Random oral questions Flashcards

1
Q

Flex Prohibited?

A

MELS COWS PERFORM @ 25%:

MELs prevent it
Contaminated / slippery runway
OAT > flex
Windshear
Special Dep Procedure
Performance does not allow it
> 25% reduction in thrust
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2
Q

Repair Intervals

A
A - as specified
B - 3 days
C - 10 days
D - 120 days
L - 365 days (CDL)
R - 120 days (NEF)
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3
Q

Order of Actions

A

MOE II Q:

Memory Items
OEB
ECAM
Vol II
QRH
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4
Q

Autoland Warning Lights

A

RAIL:

RA difference +15 feet
Autopilot loss
ILS signal failure
Localizer/GS deviation excessive (1/4 dot loc or GS 1 dot)

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5
Q

Dimensions & Turn radius

A

A320: 112 x 123 x 40 (sharklet 118 wingspan). TR 75’
A319: 112 x 111 x 40. TR 68’

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6
Q

Minimum Runway Dimensions

A

5000’ x 100ft/30m unless authorized by director

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7
Q

Master Warning Button will not cancel?

A

“Landing gear” below 750’
“Overspeed”
“Stall”

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8
Q

When does CVR come on?

A
  • 5 minute self test upon power-up
  • At 1st engine start
  • Inflight
  • Until 5 minutes after shutdown of 2nd engine
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9
Q

How to erase CVR?

A

2/2 HOP

Hold for 2 seconds to erase up to 2 hours
On the ground
Parking brake set

(Except for the last 30 mins)

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10
Q

Evac Switch, horn sounds for how long?

A

3 seconds

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11
Q

Engine Fire pb pushed

A

2-1-2-1-2:

2- silences CRC, arms squibs
1- Hyd SOV closed
2- LP fuel valve closes, FADEC de-energized
1- IDG deactivated
2- Eng Bleed valve closes, pack flow valve closes

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12
Q

APU Fire pb pushed

A

2-0-2-1-2:

2- Silences CRC, arms squib
0 hydraulics
2- LP fuel valve closes, APU fuel pump shuts off
1- APU gen deactivates
2- APU bleed valve closes, crossbleed valve closes

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13
Q

On batt power, what is powered in the cockpit?
RAT?
Slowing down on RAT?
Stopped?

A

BATT only: PFD 1, E/WD
RAT……….: PFD 1, ND 1, E/WD, MDCU 1
—140kt-125kt: Rat begins to stall
—100kt: 2 screens in the flare (DC Batt bus connects)
—50 kt: No screens (AC ESS Bus shed)
—Stopped: can do 3 things: MAV: Move outflow, APU fire det & prot, VHF-1

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14
Q

Commercial button

A

GETCCD:

Galley
Entertainment (not live TV. we don't have this)
Toilets
Cargo Lights
Cabin Lights
Drain Masts (2)
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15
Q

APU Start Button does what?

A

EFFFE:

ECB self test
Flap opens
Fuel pump on
Fuel pump isol valve opens
ECAM shows
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16
Q

Battery check?

Turn off IRS

A

25.5v min. Ensures 50% charge. 20 min charging cycle. Verify 60 amps in 10 seconds

Don’t turn off IRS until 10 sec after shutting off battery (takes 10 sec to memorize position)

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17
Q

Galley Fault

A

Any generator above 100%

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18
Q

IDG Fault?

How long to press the button?

A

High oil temp, low oil pressure

3 seconds max, to protect disconnect mechanism from damage

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19
Q

Gen 1 fault

A

GCU tripped or

Line contacter open

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20
Q

AC ESS feed fault

A

AC ESS BUS not powered

Will lose PFD1, ND1 and EWD. EWD will go to SD

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21
Q

GEN 1 LINE fault
What other faults happen?
Then what?

A

Smoke in avionics
Blower and Extract Fault
GEN 1 disconnected from AC Bus 1, and powers one fuel pump in each wing tank

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22
Q

RAT & EMER GEN fault

How long does RAT take to deploy?

A

Emergency Generator is not supplying power, but should be (AC1 and
AC2 are not powered).

8 secs

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23
Q

APU master switch fault

A

Auto shutdown

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24
Q

Engine start/shutdown N2 checkpoints

A

16% ignition on (immediately in flight)
22% fuel flow (15% in flight)
50% start valve closes
2-min stabilizing time starts when gray box around N2 disappears

20% on shutdown, engine drain mast opens

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25
Q

If autothrust runaway?

A

Hold a/thr disconnects for 15 secs. Permanently disables a/thr for remainder of flight

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26
Q

Engine start fault

A

Automatic start abort

HP fuel valve disagree

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27
Q

Fuel transfer valves open when?

A

1650 lb in either inner tank, both open and stay open until next refueling cycle

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28
Q

When do center tank pumps operate?

A

During both engine starts for 2 mins
Slat retraction*
At 550 lbs center tank quantity, run for 5 mins

*exception: if all tanks full, center tank pumps will not run until 1,100 lb burned from each inner tank (fuel return issue from IDG fuel return line)

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29
Q

Center tank mode sel fault

A

If wing tank is below 11,000lb and center tank more than 550 lb

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30
Q

Fuel imbalance limits

A

3300 (1100) lb between wings, 1520 (800) within each wing

31
Q

Cabin oxygen masks last for how long?

A

13 mins

32
Q

Pneumatic system supplies air for:

A
WEHAW:
Wing anti ice
Engine ice
Hydraulics
Air conditioning 
Water pressure
33
Q

Engine bleed fault

A
LOOSA:
Leak
Overpressure
Overtemperature downstream 
Start in progress & valve not closed
APU in use and & valve not closed
34
Q

APU bleed fault

A

Leak

35
Q

Blower fault

A
SACO:
Smoke
Air pressure low*
Computer power failure*
Overheat*

*horn sounds if on the ground and engines off

36
Q

Extract fault

A

SAC:
Smoke
Air pressure low*
Computer power failure*

*horn sounds if on the ground and engines off

37
Q

Red guarded switch means?

A

Tied to battery bus

38
Q

Red collared circuit breakers

A

Wingtip brakes & flight control computers

39
Q

BMC failure

A

If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to
issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary:
– Overpressure.
– Overtemperature.
– Wing leak.
Nevertheless, the associated bleed FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost, and the
associated bleed valve does not close automatically.
ENG BLEED LEAK warning is lost for the associated engine, as is also the APU BLEED
LEAK warning if BMC1 has failed.

40
Q

Ram air valve PB pressed

A

Outflow valve will open to 50% open, if psid less than 1.0

41
Q

If less than 115 pax?

A

Pack flow control switch to low

42
Q

Ditching PB selected

A
6 things:
2 pack flow control valves
Avionics in @ out valves (blower & extract)
Ram air inlet
Outflow valve (unless selected manually)
43
Q

When does active cabin pressure controller channel automatically switch channels

A

70 secs after landing
If operating system fails

May occur if deselect MODE SEL pb for 10 seconds and re press

44
Q

Hot air fault

A

Overheat detected, and:
Hot air valve closes
Trim air valve closes

45
Q

If 30c or greater, retract slats?

A

No, keep flaps selector to 1

46
Q

Emer exit lts switch to auto, when do emer lts illuminate?

A
Loss of AC1 bus illuminates only: 
     -Overhead Lights 
Loss of DC ESS SHED bus illuminates: 
     -Overhead Lights  
     -Exit Signs 
     -Path Lighting
47
Q

When do emer exit light batteries charge?

A

On ground: emer exit lts switch to OFF

In flight: no smoking to AUTO and gear UP

48
Q

When is speedbrake extension inhibited?

A
SEAFAT:
SEC 1&3 faulted
Elevator L or R fault
Alpha prot active
Flaps full
Alpha floor active
Thrust lever > MCT
49
Q

Speedbrakes limited to 1/2 deflection?

A

A320 with autopilot on

50
Q

When are wingtip brakes activated?

A
ROAM:
Runaway
Overspeed
Assymetry
Movement uncommanded
51
Q

Slat retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited when?

A

If AOA greater than 8.5° or airspeed falls below 148 kt retraction from 1 to 0 is inhibited. Inhibition removed when AOA below 7.6° or speed exceeds 154 kt

52
Q

ELAC functions

A

PAR AAA:

Pitch
Abnormal attitudes
Roll

Aileron droop
Autopilot acquisition
Activates the protections

53
Q

SEC functions

A

PAR SS:

Pitch
Abnormal attitudes
Roll

Speedbrakes
Spoilers

54
Q

FAC functions

A

BSWFT RATTY:

Beta target (flaps 1,2,3 & one N1 ≥ 80% & 35% N1 split)
“Speed, speed, speed” (flaps 2+, below 2000’ to 100’)
Windshear (reactive, 3-5 sec after liftoff, 50’-1300’ & 1300’-50’)
Flight envelope protections (left side PFD/commands α-floor shown on FMA & E/WD)
Tail:

Rudder limiting
Alternate law yaw
Turn coordination
Trim
Yaw damping
55
Q

What is beta target? What does it indicate?

A

If one engine fails, FAC modifies sideslip indication to blue.

Conditions: flaps 1,2,3 & one N1 ≥ 80% & > 35% N1 split

Indicates optimum aircraft performance.

56
Q

α-floor:

  • When available?
  • Indications?
  • How to cancel?
A

Protection that commands TOGA thrust.

  • Available from liftoff to 100’ RA on approach.
  • “A FLOOR” green, amber flashing box on FMA, amber on E/WD.
  • “TOGA LK” green, amber flashing box on FMA when leaving α-floor conditions. TOGA thrust frozen.
  • “Match & mash”. Move TLs to TOGA, a/thr pb’s. Then, CLB detent or as appropriate.
57
Q

Multiple failures of systems, explain degradation of flight control laws

A
Broken airplane -->
Alternate law (check Vol 2 for type) -->
Gear down w/ AP on = Alt Law
Gear down w/ AP off = Direct law for landing flare
58
Q

“Jet upset”, explain degradation of flight control laws

A

Abnormal Upset –>
Abnormal Attitude Law

?
?
?

59
Q

Explain low speed stability

A
  • Replaces normal α protection
  • Available for all configurations from 5 kt to Stall Warn +10kt
  • Progressive nose down signal introduced
  • Bank angle compensation to maintain constant α
  • α-floor inoperative
60
Q

Explain high speed stability

A
  • Nose up demand introduced

- Aural overspeed warning remains available

61
Q

Normal law protections

A
Bank
Yaw
Pitch
AOA
Load
Speed
62
Q

Alternate law protections

A
Bank
Yaw
Pitch
AOA
Load
Speed
63
Q

Direct law protections

A
Bank
Yaw
Pitch
AOA
Load
Speed
64
Q

Mechanical backup

A

Pitch control via THS

Yaw control via rudder pedals

65
Q

α-prot does what?

A
Bank limit 45º
Autopilot disconnect
Speed brakes retract
α instead of load factor protection
Pitch up trim inhibited
66
Q

High speed protection does what?

A

Bank limit 40º
Autopilot disconnect
Stick aft movement
Seeks wings level (spiral static stability to 0º)

67
Q

“Jet upset” abnormal attitude laws triggered at what parameters?

A

see handout

68
Q

How long does APU take to shut down?

When cam we turn off the batteries?

A

Up to 2 mins.

Wait until flap is fully closed (about 2 mins after AVAIL light goes out) to turn off the batteries.

69
Q

Can we load late bags after jetbridge removed?

A

Yes, must shut down engine first

70
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • parked at gate, NWS disc pin installed, only 1 eng master on
  • parking brake on, only one engine master on
  • 40 secs after cargo door operation
  • ptu switch off
71
Q

Emergency gear extension lever operation

A

1st turn: isolates LG from hydraulics
2nd turn: unlocks doors
3rd turn: gravity allows gear to drop

72
Q

Adirs operation while on battery power

A

All 3 on batt for 5 mins. Then, only one remains on (1 or 3 as selected by captain)

73
Q

Takeoff inhibit system non inhibited items?

When does the t.o. inhibit start and cease?

A

AEDFEDS:

  • apu fire
  • engine fire
  • dual engine failure
  • FWCs failed (both)
  • Elevators both failed
  • dual input
  • sidestick fault

-starts at 80kts, ceases 1500’ or 2 mins after takeoff