Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

F9 Flashcards > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Kinds of Operations

This airplane is certified for:

Max # of pax seats, A320 & A319

A

Flight in:

  • Day & night
  • VFR & IFR
  • Extended overwater
  • Icing conditions

Max # of pax seats:

  • A320: 179
  • A319: 145
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Flight Maneuvering Load Acceleration Limits

A
  • Clean configuration: -1g to +2.5g
  • Slats and/or flaps extended: 0g to +2g
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Environmental Envelope​

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Airport Operations

  • Runway slope (mean)
  • Runway altitude
  • Minimum runway width
A
  • Runway slope (mean): ±2%
  • Runway altitude: 9200 ft
  • Minimum runway width: 100ft/30m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wind for Takeoff and Landing

  • Max crosswind demonstrated for takeoff
  • Max crosswind demonstrated for landing
  • Max tailwind for takeoff
  • Max tailwind for landing
A
  • Max crosswind demonstrated for takeoff: 38 kt*
  • Max crosswind demonstrated for landing: 38 kt*
  • Max tailwind for takeoff: 15 kt
  • Max tailwind for landing: 10 kt

*Max demonstrated is not an AFM limitation. Airbus recommends operators not intentionally operate in crosswinds that exceed this value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contaminated Runway

A

It is not recommended to takeoff or land with a crosswind component higher than:

BRA Good (Mµ ≧ 0.40): 38 kt

BRA Fair (Mµ 0.35 - 0.30): 25 kt

BRA Poor (Mµ 0.06 to 0.25): 15 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Narrow Runways

  • Defined
  • Diversion to normal runway
  • Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing
  • Icy runway ops
A
  • Defined:
    • Normal runway: at least 150ft/45m wide
    • Narrow runway: less than 150ft/45m wide
  • Diversion to normal runway recommended when:
    • Rudder jam
    • Rudder pedal jam
    • Yaw damper fault
    • All failures leading to loss of NWS
  • Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing
    • Dry runway: 38 kt (gust included)
    • Wet runway: 33 kt (gust included)
    • Contaminated runway: 10 kt (gust included)
  • Operations on icy runways have not been demonstrated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wind for Pax/Cargo Door Operation

A
  • Max wind for pax door operation: 65 kt
  • Max wind for cargo door operation: 40 kt/50 kt*

*If nose oriented into the wind, or if cargo door is on leeward side, operation of cargo door is permitted in winds up to 50 kt. If wind speed begins to exceed these limitations, cargo door must be closed before wind speed exceeds 65 kt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Speed Limitations

Max speed

A
  • Maximum Vmo/Mmo: 350 kt / .82 mach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Severe Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

A
  • FL200 and below: 250 kt
  • Above FL200 thru FL310: 275 kt
  • Above FL310: 0.76 mach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum Flaps/Slats Speeds

  • Frontier flap extension speeds
  • If placarded speeds exceeded?
  • F9 flaps extension procedure
A
  • Frontier flap extension speeds are:
    • ​1: 220
    • 2: 190
    • 3: 175
    • 4: 162
  • Mx writeup if placarded speeds exceeded
  • Extend flaps at max of Vfe - 10 kt, except
  • Flaps Full, extend at max of Vfe - 15 kt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Landing Gear Speeds

  • Max speed w/ LG extended (Vle)
  • Vlo extension
  • Vlo retraction
  • Max altitude to extend landing gear
A
  • Max speed w/ LG extended (Vle): 280 kt / .67 m
  • Vlo extension: 250 kt
  • Vlo retraction: 220 kt
  • Max altitude to extend landing gear: 25,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

A
  • Maximum tire speed (ground speed): 195 kt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Windshield Wipers in Use

A
  • Max speed for use of windshield wipers: 230 kt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cockpit Window Open

A
  • Max speed for opening cockpit window: 200 kt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Taxi Speed (A320)

A
  • When the taxi weight is higher than 167,550 lbs do not exceed a taxi speed of 20 kt during a turn.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max Slats and/or flaps extended operating altitude

A
  • 20,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cabin Pressure

  • Max positive differential pressure
  • Max negative differential pressure
  • Safety relief valve setting
A
  • Max positive differential pressure: 9.0 psi
  • Max negative differential pressure: -1 psi
  • Safety relief valve setting: 8.6 psi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ram Air Inlet

A
  • If △P is greater than 1 psi, the check valve located downstream will not open even if the ram air door has been selected open
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Air Conditioning

  • With LP ground unit
  • With HP ground unit
A
  • With LP ground unit
    • Do not use conditioned air simultaneously from packs and LP ground unit (to avoid chattering of the non return valves)
  • With HP ground unit
    • An external HP source may be used for air conditioning, provided the air supply is confirmed to be free from oil contamination. Do not use HP ground unit when APU supplies bleed air to avoid bleed system damage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Avionics Ventilation

A
  • The airplane electrical system should not be powered for more than two hours without a cooling system when the outside air temperature is above 49˚C.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Airframe Vibration

A
  • Airframe vibrations shall be recorded in the aircraft logbook and on Airframe Vibration Reporting Sheet (Form 31048) and left in logbook.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

APU

  • LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory
A
  • The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Mx action is required within the next 10 hours of APU operation.
  • A logbook entry is NOT required after receiving this message. Contact MCC to determine status of required mx action.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

APU

  • Starter limits
A
  • Three starter motor duty cycles, separated by
  • One minute cool down, then wait
  • **60 minutes **before attempting three more cycles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

APU

  • Maximum N
  • What happens then?
A
  • Maximum N: 107%
  • Note: the APU automatically shuts down at 107% N speed (ECAM display)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

APU

  • Maximum EGT
A
  • 675˚ C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

APU

  • Max EGT for start (below 35,000 feet)
A
  • 1090˚C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

APU

  • Max EGT for start (above 35,000 feet)
A
  • 1120˚C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

APU

  • Max alt for APU electrical & start
A
  • Max alt for APU electrical & start: 39,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

APU

  • Max alt for APU battery start
A
  • ​25,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

APU

  • Max alt for APU pneumatics (1 pack w/ elec)
A
  • 22,500 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

APU

  • Max alt for APU assisted engine start
A
  • Max alt for APU assisted engine start: 20,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

APU

  • Max alt for APU pneumatics (2 packs w/ elec)
A
  • Max alt for APU pneumatics (2 packs w/ elec): 15,000 ft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

APU

  • APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice
A
  • APU air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice:
    not permitted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Autopilot Engagement

  • After takeoff/Go-around (if SRS is indicated)
A
  • 100 AGL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

​Autopilot Engagement

  • Enroute
A
  • 500 AGL
37
Q

​Autopilot Engagement

  • Non-precision approaches
A
  • DDA/DA
38
Q

​Autopilot Engagement

  • Non-autoland ILS app w/ CAT 1 displayed on FMA
A
  • 160 AGL
39
Q

​Autopilot Engagement

  • Non-autoland ILS app w/ CAT 2/3 displayed on FMA
A
  • 80 AGL
40
Q

​Autopilot Engagement

  • Autoland ILS approach (one or two autopilots)
A
  • Rollout/taxi speed
41
Q

Auto Flight​​

  • Approach must be flown with autopilot(s) engaged if operable?
A
  • Visibility less than 4000 RVR or 3/4
42
Q

Auto Flight

  • Use of AP or FD in OPEN DES or DES mode not permitted when?
A
  • Inside FAF or below 1000 AGL on a visual approach
43
Q

Auto Flight

  • Use of autothrust is approved under what conditions?
A
  • With or without AP/FD in selected or managed mode
44
Q

Auto Flight

  • Use of NAV and FINAL APP modes for non-precision approach
A
  • NAV, or NAV and APP NAV and FINAL APP mode may be used for VOR, VOR/DME or RNAV (including GPS or RNAV(GNSS)) approach but not for ILS, LOC or LDA approach.
45
Q

Auto Flight

  • Non-precision approaches w/ engine-out
A
  • If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the autopilot to perform non precision approaches in the following modes: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA (not applicable on A/C 205 - 216, 220, 223 & 227).
  • Only FD use is authorized.
46
Q

Auto Flight

  • Flight management function
A

FMGS lateral and vertical navigation has been certified for takeoff, departure, en route, arrival (terminal area operations), instrument approach procedures (except ILS, LOC and LDA) and missed approach/go around procedures.

RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY, or radio updating, has been demonstrated to be:

En route Terminal area Approach

1 nm 0.5 nm 0.3 nm

1 nm 0.51 nm 0.3 nm

1.1 nm 0.51 nm Not authorized

With AP ON in NAV

With AP OFF and FD on in NAV

With AP OFF and FD OFF

Without GPS PRIMARY (GPS deselected or inoperative), NAV accuracy has been demonstrated provided the appropriate RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU and HIGH accuracy is displayed.

The aircraft is capable of conducting RNP AR operations to a minimum RNP accuracy value of 0.3 when operated in accordance with Frontier’s approved program and procedures as set forth in this manual.

RNP 0.3 has been demonstrated in normal and non-normal conditions as follows for the following modes.
– DepartureinNAVmode,
– InitialapproachinNAVorAPPNAVmodes,

– FinalapproachinFINALAPPmode, – MissedapproachinNAVmode.

NOTE: Use of AP for RNP AR operations is recommended.

47
Q

Derived Decision Altitude

A
  • For non-precision instrument approaches conducted to an applicable Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), a Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be calculated and observed as minima. DDA is calculated by adding 50’ to the published MDA.
48
Q

Autoland

  • Requirements
A
  • Captains is PF
  • CONF 3 and CONF FULL
  • CAT II/III runway
  • CAT II/III aircraft
  • CAT II/III crews trained
  • Ground facilities operational
  • Wind within limits
  • Braking action fair or better.
49
Q

Autoland

  • When is CAT II/III autoland required?
A
  • Requirements for autoland satisfied and
  • ATIS below 2400 RVR or 1/2 mile

Note: If any of the CAT II/III requirements are not met, and CAT I or better weather conditions prevail upon arrival at the airport, the crew may brief and fly the approach to current CAT I minimums w/ manual landing

50
Q

Auto Land

  • Prohibited?
A
  • Braking action less than fair
  • Runway < 100 ft wide
  • Below -1000 ft pressure altitude
  • FAI on a/c 203, 223, 902-943
51
Q

Auto Land

  • Cat II/III runways w/ wx at or above 800/2
A

Permitted, provided that crew:

  • Advise ATC of autoland attempt for critical area protection and glideslope intercept from below
    • If ATC unable, may continue approach, but be prepared to assume control
  • Is aware that LOC or GS beam fluctuations, independent of the aircraft system, may occur and the PF is prepared to immediately disconnect the AP and take the appropriate action should unsatisfactory guidance occur.
52
Q

Auto Land

  • Autobrakes required?
A
  • For all Cat III approaches:
    • Runway < 8000 ft: Medium
    • Runway ≧ 8000 ft: Low or medium
53
Q

Auto Land

  • CAT II parameters
A
  • Minimum decision height: 100 ft AGL
  • At least one AP engaged in APPR mode
  • CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE, or CAT 3 DUAL on FMA
54
Q

Auto Land

  • CAT IIIA parameters
A
  • Fail Passive (CAT 3 SINGLE):
    • DH 50 ft AGL
    • At least one AP engaged in APPR mode
    • CAT 3 SINGLE on FMA
    • A/THR used in selected or managed speed
  • Fail operational (CAT 3 DUAL):
    • Alert height 100 ft AGL
    • Two APs engaged in APPR mode
    • CAT 3 DUAL on FMA
    • A/THR used in selected or managed speed
55
Q

Auto Land

  • CAT IIIB parameters
A
  • Alert height 100 ft AGL
  • Two APs engaged in APPR mode
  • CAT 3 DUAL displayed on FMA
  • A/THR in selected or managed speed
56
Q

Auto Land

  • Wind restrictions
  • Min/max Vapp wind correction
A
  • Headwind: 30 kt
  • Crosswind: 15 kt
  • Tailwind: 10kt
  • Min 5kt / Max 15kt Vapp correction

*NOTE: When wind constraints apply to autoland procedures, the limit is considered to apply to the point of touchdown. If a report of a crosswind component value greater than the limit is received while on approach, an aircraft may continue an approach. However, a subsequent wind report indicating winds are within limits, or a pilot determination that actual winds are within limits, must be made prior to touchdown. Acceptable methods for such a determination may include ATC, ATIS or pilot use of onboard IRS or FMS wind readout capabilities. *

57
Q

Auto Land

  • Performance limits (below 500 ft)
A
  • GS deviation: < 1 dot
  • LOC deviation: < 1/4 dot
  • Airspeed: ± 5 kts of target
  • Max Rate of Descent: 1000 fpm
  • Airspeed: not below Vls
  • Bank: not to exceed 7°
  • Pitch: -2.5° to 10°
58
Q

Auto Land

  • Engine-out
A
  • A320 series AFM-approved for single-engine autoland, however
  • F9 limitations prohibit it, except for emergency authority & safest course of action in CONFIG FULL
59
Q

Cargo

  • Loading
A
  • Load below line marked approx. 2 in below top of cargo pits (or may impede proper operation of cargo smoke detection system)
60
Q

Electrical

  • Max continuous load per generator
A
  • 100% (90kVA)
61
Q

Electrical

  • MAX continuous load per TR
A
  • 200 A
62
Q

Electrical

  • Outlets
A
  • Must NOT be used during takeoff and landing
  • 115V/400Hz outlet on rear CB panel should never be used for charging PEDs/EFBs (fire risk)
63
Q

Engines

  • Thrust setting/EGT limits
A
64
Q

Engines

  • Max continuous oil temperature
A
  • 140°C
65
Q

Engines

  • Max transient oil temperature
A
  • 155°C (15 mins)
66
Q

Engines

  • Min starting oil temperature
A
  • -40°C
67
Q

Engines

  • Min oil temp for takeoff
A
  • -10°C
68
Q

Engines

  • Min oil quantity
A
  • 9.5 quarts plus
  • 0.5 quarts per hour of estimated flight time
69
Q

Engines

  • Max N1
A
  • 104%

*NOTE: The N1 limit depends upon ambient conditions and engine air bleed configuration. These may limit N1 to a value lower than the one noted above. *

70
Q

Engines

  • Max N2
A
  • 105%
71
Q

Engines

  • Starter limits
A

​(2 mins on, 20 seconds off) x 4, then 15 mins

  • 4 cycles consecutive, each 2 mins max duration
  • 20 seconds between cycles (starter relube)
  • 15 mins (after 4 cycles) for starter cooling before a new start attempt or motoring
  • Do not engage starter above 20% N2
72
Q

Engines

  • Reverse thrust
A
  • Prohibited:
    • In flight
    • Backing up aircraft
    • Reduce taxi speed (except emergency)
  • Max Rev not below 70 kt (idle allowed to stop)
73
Q

Engines

  • Reduced thrust takeoff restrictions
A
  • Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of full rated thrust. T MAX FLEX not to exceed:
    • A319: ISA + 60°C
    • A320: ISA + 53°C
  • Assumed temp not lower than flat rating temp or actual OAT
  • Allowed with inop items affecting performance, only if performance hit has been applied
  • Prohibited:
    • Slippery or contaminated runways
    • Suspected, reported, or known windshear
    • Special Departure Procedure specifices full thrust for takeoff
74
Q

Fuel

  • Jet A Min temp​
  • Jet A Max temp
A
  • -36°C*
  • 49°C
  • If TAT reaches -34°C, monitor ECAM FUEL page that fuel temperature remains higher than -36°C
75
Q

Fuel Weight

(902-949, 954, 203-204, 218-219, 221 & 223)

A

Weight (lbs):

  • Wing tanks
    • Outer: 1,520 x2
    • Inner: 11,982 x2
  • Center tank: 14,281

Total: 41,285

76
Q

Fuel Weight

951-953, 201-202, 205-216, 220 & 227

A

Weight (lbs):

  • Wing tanks
    • Outer: 1,520 x2
    • Inner: 12,286 x2
  • Center tank: 14,281

Total: 41,893

77
Q

Fuel

  • ​Min fuel for takeoff
A
  • 3,300 lb
  • WING TK LO LVL warning must not be displayed on ECAM
78
Q

Fuel Imbalance

  • Inner tanks – Outer tanks balanced
  • Outer tanks
A
  • Inner tanks, outer tanks balanced, full tanks:
    • 3,300lbs (1,100lbs sharklets takeoff)
  • Outer tanks:
    • 1,520lbs (800lbs sharklets takeoff)
79
Q

Hydraulic

  • Max hydraulic pressure
A
  • 3200 psi
80
Q

Landing Gear

  • Maximum brake temperature for takeoff
  • Braking system limits
A
  • 300°C
  • See 5.50 for brake temp limits requiring mx action

*NOTE: The braking system is not designed to hold the aircraft in a stationary position when a high thrust level is applied on at least one engine. During ground procedures that require a thrust increase with braking, the flight crew must ensure that the aircraft remain stationary. *

81
Q

Landing Gear

  • Taxi with deflated tires
A
  • If tire damage suspected after landing or RTO, must be inspected before taxi
  • If deflated but not damaged:
    • 1 tire on 1+ gears: 7 kts during turn
    • 2 tires on same gear: 3 knots / 30˚ NWS
82
Q

Naviation

  • RNP-10 oceanic/remote area ops
A

Approved with

  • GPS PRIMARY
  • Without GPS PRIMARY (GPS deselected or inop), for 6.2 hours following the loss of the 2nd GPS
83
Q

Navigation

  • Inertial reference system
A
  • IRS ground alignment demonstrated satisfactory up to 73° latitude
  • In NAV mode, IRS will not provide valid mag headings at latitudes exceeding:
    • 73° N
    • 60° S
  • Flight using NAV mode outside above limits not authorized
84
Q

Navigation

  • ISIS bugs function
A
  • Must not be used when both PFDs are lost
85
Q

Navigation

  • Modification of retrieved procedure
A
  • Must not be done unless ATC clearance obtained and implication of doing so is clearly understood by the flight crew
86
Q

Navigation

  • EGPWS
A
  • Navigation not to be predicated on use of terrain displan
  • Authorized to deviate from ATC clearance to extent necessary to comply with EGPWS warning
  • EGPWS TERR switch OFF within 15 NM of airport:
    • To/from runway not in EGPWS database
    • For specific app procedures which have been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts
87
Q

Oxygen

  • Min flt crew oxy pressure (a/c 201-219, 902-953)
  • Min flt crew oxy pressure (a/c 954, 220, 221,2 223 & 227)
A

(format is 2crew/2crew+1obs/2crew+2obs)

a/c 201-219, 902-953:

  • 600/800/1,000psi

a/c 954, 220, 221,2 223 & 227:

  • 900/1,000/1,400psi

(absolute most restrictive, two crew @ 50°C Ref Temp)

88
Q

Oxygen

  • Min oxy pressures provide for?
A
  • Protection after loss of cabin pressure w/ mask regulator on NORMAL (diluted oxygen):
    • During emer des, all crew for 13 mins
    • During cruise at FL100, 2 crew for 107 mins

Or:

  • Protection against smoke w/ 100% oxygen:
    • 8,000 ft cabin, all crew for 15 mins
89
Q

Fuel

  • Fuel management
A
  • Center tank must be emptied first, followed by the wing tanks
  • Takeoff on center tank is prohibited. Eng 1 & 2 must be completely segregated for take-off (i.e. crossfeed valve closed)

F9 Flashcards (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions