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random notes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vector of JEV?

A

Culex tritaeniorhynchus is the vector

Pigs and wild birds serve as a reservoir for the virus

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2
Q

When testing the intrathecal antibodies for patient with JEV , What are the other possible positive IgG results?

A

Other related flavivirus includes:
1-Dengue
2- yellow fever
3- West Nile viruses
4- TBE

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3
Q

What are the diseases that can be transmitted by Culex?

A

1-Arbovirus infections such as West Nile virus, Japanese encephalitis, or St. Louis encephalitis

2- Filariasis

3- Avian malaria.

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3
Q
A
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4
Q

What is the Brill-Zinsser disease ?

A
  • Exacerbation of epidemic typhus
  • Usually occurs several years following the initial infection in a milder form
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5
Q

What are the organisms that can cause Madura foot?

A

1- bacterial:
Actinomycetes spp
Streptomyces spp
Nocardia spp

2- Fungal:
Madurella spp
Fusarium spp
Aspergillus spp

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6
Q

What is the vector of Zika

A

Aedes Mosquitos
(possibly Culex )

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7
Q

T/F:

Congenital Zika syndrome can occurs with any Zika lineage ?

A

F

Only can be caused by Asian Lineage

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8
Q

What is the vector and the reservoir for West Nile virus ?

A

Vector : Culex

Reservoir: Birds
(Bird -Mosquito-bird cycle)
Human is dead-end

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9
Q

What are the main symptoms of West Nile virus?

A

A) WNV fever: Fever +rash
RF:
1- High viral load
2- Female gender

B) WNV Neuroinvasive disease in 1/150 case :
1- Coarse tremor (only upper limps and it is postural tremors)
2- parkinsonian features
RF:
1- Male gender
2- Advanced age
3- Comorbidities

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10
Q

What is the arbovirus that can be transmitted by anopheles Mosquitoes?

A

Onyong nyong

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11
Q

Mode of transmission of Rift valley fever ?

A

1- By direct contact with tissues of infected livestock

2- By Mosquito bite:
- Culex tritaeniorhynchus
2- Aedes vexans

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12
Q

Mode of transmission of CCHF?

A

1- By close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected persons or animals

2- Tick bite :
Argas reflexus and Hyalomma spp

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13
Q

what is the cause of Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM) - creepy eruption ?

A

dogs hookworms :
1- Ancylostoma caninum
2-Ancylostoma braziliense

Cats hookworm:
1-Ancylostoma braziliense

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14
Q

what disease that can be transmitted by Aedes albopictus??

A

1- West Nile encephalitis
2- Chikungunya

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15
Q

what disease that can be transmitted by Aedes Aegypti?

A

Yellow Fever
Dengue
West Nile
Chikungunya

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16
Q

which Mosquito can transmit both Yellow Fever and
Mayaro virus?

A

Haemagogus
spp

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17
Q

What is the vector of Colorado tick
fever?

A

Dermacentor
andersoni

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18
Q

What are the 3 sutypes of TBE?

A
  1. Russian
    Spring-Summer
    encephalitis
    (RSSE) ( sever form with gradual onset)
  2. Siberian
    subtype (chronic and progressive )
  3. Central
    European
    encephalitis
    (CEE) (Biphasic illness)
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19
Q

What is the plasmodium spp that commonly ass with nephrotic syndrome ?

A

Plasmodium malariae

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20
Q

Which plasmodium spp that can result in relapse ( not recrudescence) after primary infection ?

A

plasmodium Vivax and Ovale

From 30 days up to 5 years after 1ry infection due to the latent liver hypnozoite that can undergoes Schizogony and re-enter blood stream

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21
Q

Key features of Plasmodium Malariae?

A

1- Can cause nephrotic syndrome in Children (quartan malaria nephrotic syndrome )

2- Can remain in the blood for years (but no latent hypnozoites) very low levels (chronic)

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22
Q

What is Malaria recrudescence ?
and which plasmodium can cause it

A

recurrence of infection due to survival of the plasmodium in RBC (low level parasitaemia) not due to hypnozoites schizont

Caused by :
p falciparum
p knowlesi
p malariae

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23
Q

What is the cause of Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis ?

A

L brasilienses

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24
Q

What are the cutaneous manifestation of coccidioidomycosis ?

A

1- early disease :
fine papular rash , Erythema nodosum and erythema multiform

2- late:
Ulceration and abscess with predilection to nasolabial fold

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25
Q

What is the IP , method of transmission , and diagnostic method of coccidioidomycosis (valley fever)?

A

1- IP: 7 to 21 days
2- By inhalation
3 Diagnosis:
-Histopathology and microscopy using methenamine silver stain
- Culture
- Antigen detection
- PCR
- Serology

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26
Q

What is the pathognomic histology feature of coccidiomycosis ?

A

Spherules in the lung pathology:
Arthroconidia with thin walls

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27
Q

Diagnostic method of Paracoccidioidomycosis ?

A

1- Microscopy :
large fungal cell with spikes (93% sensitive ) from sputum or pus
2- Histology also sensitive

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28
Q

What is the transmission method of Sporothrix schenckii??

A

Direct inoculation by :
1- scratches of cats and armadillos
2- horny plants

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29
Q

what is the causative agent of sporotrichosis (rose handler disease )?

A

sporothrix scheckii

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30
Q

What are the clinical syndromes caused by sporothrix scheckii ?

A

1- lymphocutaneous
( can also result in contagious bone involvement)

2- Fixed cutaneous

3- pulmonary (inhalation)

4- disseminated ( for pt with reduced CMI including diabetes

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31
Q

What is the Cause of Fish tank granuloma?

A

Mycobacterium Marinum

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32
Q

What is the cause of Buruli ulcer? and whats is the difference to M Marinum

A

Mycobacterium Ulcerance . Genetically
Identical to Mycobacterium Marinum but the only difference is the production of Mycolactone which causes tissue destruction

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33
Q

what are the diff in parasite human cell relationship in leishmania and HAT ?

A

Kalazar (leishmanai) : obligate intracelluler

American trypanosomaiasis: can be intracellular (amastigote) or extracellular trypomastigote

African HAT : always extracellular (Blood stream trypomastigote)

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34
Q

What is the infective stage of Trypanosoma parasite ?

A

1-Metacyclic Trypomastigote
2- Then Blood stream Trypomastigote
3-Then in fly transform to Procyclic trypomastigote
4-Then Epimastigote 5- Finally Metacyclic Trypomastigote again

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35
Q

What is the infective stage of Leishmania parasite?

A

1- promastigote (infective stage )
2-In human transform to amastigote
3- transform back to Promastigote in the fly gut

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36
Q

What is the predominant parasitic form of Leishmania , African and American HAT in Human ?

A

Leishmania : Amastigote

American HAT: amastigote

African HAT : Bloodstream Trypomastigote

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37
Q

What are the infective stages of both Leishmania and Trypanosoma?

A

for Leishmania: Promastigote (predominant stage in phlebotomine fly)

for Trypanosomiasis:
Metacyclic trypomastigote

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38
Q

In leishmania and Trypanosoma :
What is the predominant stage in Mosquitoes

A

Leishmania : Promastigotes (also the only stage found in Mosquitoes)

Trypanosoma : Epimastigote (but the infective stage is the Metacyclic trypomastigotes)

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39
Q

There are only tow forms of Leishmania parasite ?#, what are they?

A

Promastigotes in Mosquitoes

amastigotes in mammalian

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40
Q

Leishmania strains causing KALAZAR?

A

Old world:
L Donovani donovani
L Donovani infantum

New world:
L donovani Chagasi

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41
Q

Leishmania strain causing Old world Cutaneous leishmania ?

A

1- L Major
2- L Tropica: ( leishmania Recidevence LR, Vescerocutaneous leishmaniasis )

3- L aethiopica (DCL)

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42
Q

Disseminated cutaneous leishmaniasis ?

A

1- Caused by L braziliensis , Amazonensis , panam , Gyanensis
2- multiple ulcerative lesions
3- very few parasites seen on biopsy (immunologically mediated disease)
4-Positive serology
5- May involve mucosa

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43
Q

Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis ?

A

1- Caused by:
L aethiopica , Mexicana , Brasiliense.
2- Dose Not ulcerate
3- Multiple soft tissue nodules (full of Amastigote)
4- No mucosal lesion

44
Q

Cause of Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis ?

A

Leishmania Brasiliense

45
Q

T/F:
Diffuse cutaneous leismaniansis can ulcerate and can affect mucosa?

A

Never ulcerate
Never affect mucosa

46
Q

T/F
Opisthorchis sinensis(chines liver flukes) is ass with cholangiocarcinoma ?

A

T

47
Q

T/F
Opisthorchis sinensis length is 2.5cm ?
and can transmit by eating row fishes ?

A

T
T

48
Q

What is the adult Fasciolopsis buski size (Giant Chinese intestinal flukes) ?

A

7.2 CM

49
Q

Diagnostic tests for Strongyloidiasis?

A

1- Stool for larvae ( not eggs)
2- Stool culture on Charcoal
3- Serology

50
Q

What is the histological picture of Talaromyces Marnefei?

A

Round or oval extracellular or intramacrophage yeast like cells with a midline clear septum at the dividing yeast

51
Q

Causes of umbilicated nodular rash?

A

1- Molluscum contagiosum
2- Cryptococcal neoformans
3- Talaromycosis

52
Q

What is the 5th lymphatic filariasis that has unsheathed larvae ?

What is the vector of 1- 1- Brugia spp ?
2- Onchocerca volvolus ?

What is the spp causing intestinal schistosomiasis ?

A

1- The vector of Brugia is Mansonia Mosquitoes

2- Vector of Onchocerciasis is Simulium black fly

Intestinal schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma mansoni.

Mansonella perstans and Mansonella Ozardi

53
Q

what is the size of Cyclospora cayetanensis cysts ?

A

7.5-10 µm
spherical
can be sporulated or non-sporulated

54
Q

What is the size and shape of Isospora belli (Cystoisospora belli )??

A

large (25 to 30 µm) and have a typical ellipsoidal shape
#when immature and contain one sporoblast
# if mature , sporoblast divides in two sporoblasts

55
Q

What is the eggs size of Cryptosporidium spp?

A

oocysts are rounded and measure 4.2 to 5.4 µm in diameter

56
Q

Eggs of enterobius vermicularis ?

A

30 x 60
elongated and asymetrical
transparent
slightly flattened in one side

Folded larvae inside can give the shape of midline slit

57
Q

What is the cause of abdominal angiostrongyliasis?

A

Angiostrongylus costaricensis

58
Q

What is the cause of neuro angiostrongyliasis?

A

angiostrongylus cantonensis

59
Q

T/F
Angiostrongylus spp can reach maturity in human ?

A

F
Only mature in small pulmonary capillaries of the rodents

60
Q

What is the mode of human infection in Angiostrongyliasis ?

A

By ingestion of L3 Larvae in contaminated vegetable and fruits

61
Q

What is the definitive and intermediate host for Angiostrongylus cantonensis ?

A

Rats are definitive hosts

#snail and slug are the intermediate hosts

62
Q

What is malarone and how it can be used?

A

Atovaquone -Proguanil
1 tablets po OD
2 days before travel until 1 week after return

63
Q

What is Larium and how it can be used ?

A

Mefloquine
250 mg tablets
po once weekly

3 weeks before travel until 4 weeks after return

64
Q

T/F
Mefloquine (Larium ) can be given for pt with depression?

A

F
C/I in depression

65
Q

What is the difference b/w rhabditiform and filariform larvae in strongyloidiasis ?

A

1- The first-stage rhabditiform larvae (L1) are 180—380 µm

2- third-stage filariform larvae (L3) are up to 600 µm long.

66
Q

T/F:
Sandflies can cause very painful bite ?
usually at dusk or dawn ?

A

T

67
Q

what are the identification features of Mosca flies?

A

1- Gray black in colour
2- 4 longitudinal stripes in thoracic part
3- No biting mouth part
4- 4th vein pend toward 3rd vein almost touch it

68
Q

What are the identification features of Stomoxys calcitrans (Stable fly)?

A

1- forward pointing proboscis
2- the 4th vein pend upward but not touching the 3rd vein
3- Has very painful bites

69
Q

What are the 3 common human Myiasis ?

A

1- Botfly -(Dermatobia hominis )

2- Tumbu larvae (Condylobia anthropopaganda )

3- Screw fly
(Cochylomyia and chrysomya )

70
Q

What are the Symptoms
caused by the
two main
venom groups?

A

1- Neurotoxin :
- Shock
- Blurred vision
- respiratory failure

2- Haemotoxic:
– Tissue swelling , pain and necrosis
- Bleeding , DIC
- haemolysis

71
Q

What are the features of Elipdae and what are the main members of this group?

A

@ short fangs (which are fixed and do not fold back)
@ No distinct division between the
head and the neck

  • Cobras
  • Coral snakes
    – Mambas
    – Kraits
    – Tiger snakes
72
Q

t/f:
Bungarotoxin is a neurotoxin and it is common feature of Eapidae snakes ?

A

T

73
Q

What are the true sea snake group called ?

A

Hydrophiinae

74
Q

What are the general features of Hydrophiinae?

A

1- Short fangs, small head
2- flattened body
with a short flattened tail,
3- valvular nostrils on top of head.
4- long
thin bodies elongated lungs that
extend the entire length of the body

75
Q

What are the 3 toxins that can be produced by hydrophiinae?

A

1– myotoxin and rhabdomyolysis
2– neurotoxin
3– haemotoxin

76
Q

What is the commonest cause of death following hydrophiinae bite ?

A

Cardiac arrest due to hypercalaemia ( rhabdomyolysis , AKI , haemolysis )

77
Q

What is the Laticaudinae ?

A

It is the sea krait

78
Q

What is the difference b/w hydrophiinae and laticaudinae?

A
  • Laticaudinae is not true sea snake
  • Laticaudinae has slender body but flattened tail
  • Laticaudinae has lateral nostrils
79
Q

What are the common features of Viperidae snakes ?

A

1- Narrow neck
2- long retractile fangs

80
Q

What are the commonest Viperidae ?

A

– Vipers / adders
– Rattlesnakes
– Mocassins
– Asps
- Viper berus in UK

81
Q

What is the effect of vipers?

A

massive local swelling and necrosis with blisters and specific odour

82
Q

What is the special effect of Attractaspididae (burrowing asps ) ?

A

can erect a
single fang on one side of the head without
opening the mouth

can kill human within 45min

83
Q

what is treatment of ascaris lumbricoides ?

A

Mebendazole

84
Q

The only filaria that is not infected by Wolbachia ?

A

Loa loa

85
Q

What is the significance of presence of Morula cell of Mot in CSF ?

A

Human African Trypanosomiasis

86
Q

T/F :
No HAT cases in Zimbabwi ?

A

T
Only in Zambia

87
Q

what is skin snip test and skin slit smear test?

A

1- skin snip test is used to diagnose onchocerciasis

2- Slit Skin Smear:
For diagnosing leprosy and cutaneous leishmaniasis

88
Q

how to diffrentiate b/w larva currens and cutaneous larva migrans?

A

Larva currens:
move faster( 2 cm per hour)

CLM: 1-2 CM per day

89
Q

CLM treatment?

A

single dose of ivermectin or albendazole

90
Q

which spp of leishmania can cause large epidemic of cutaneous leishmaniasis ?

A

leishmania Tropica

because it is has Anthroponotic ( no animal reservoir)

91
Q

T/F:
muco-cutaneous Leishmaniasis is caused entirely by Brasilienses group ?

A

T

92
Q

what are the typical FBC picture in dengue fever?

A

low PLT and WBC

High HB

93
Q

what are the typical rash in dengue?

A

1- Morbilliform rash
2- petechial rash in ankles
3- blanching erythema
(like sunburn)

94
Q

what is the length of Cimex bed bugs ?

A

3-10mm
brown
segmented abdomen

95
Q

what is the treatment of neurocysticercosis?
ocular cysticercosis?

A

albendazole
plus
praziquantel
prednisolone
surgery if ocular

96
Q

CMV retinitis treatment of choice ?

A

Valgancyclovir 900 gm po BD for 21 days then maintenance 450 mg

97
Q

Mode of infection of Capillaria philippinensis ?

A

by eating undercooked fish

98
Q

What is the size and features of Capillaria philippinensis ?

A

1- looks simillar to Trichuris trichura eggs
2- 45-25 mic
3- two flat polar prominences
4- striated shell

99
Q

Tx of trichinella spiralis?

A

Albendazole or mebendazole

100
Q

The vector of ATBF ?

A

Amblyoma tick

101
Q

what are the DEBONEL /TIBOLA features?

A

1- caused by : Rickettsia Slovaca

2- vector: tick Dermacentor

3- common feature : Eschar +regional lymphadenopathy

4- common in Europe and Asia

102
Q

T/F:
All arboviruses are ssRNA viruses except colorado tick virus which is dsRNA?

A

T

103
Q

Yellow fever is triad of ?

A

fever (Viral sepsis)
jaundice
AKI

104
Q

What are the 3 lineage of chikungunya?

A

west African
East African
Asian

105
Q

How many serotypes and lineage of YF? DHF?

A

1- YF:
One serotype

2- DHF:
4 serotypes

106
Q

Infection with Zika can give lifelong immunity?

A

T
Because one serotype

107
Q

how many Zika serotypes?

A

= one serotype
= 2 lineage ( African and Asian)
= 3 genotypes:
- W African
- E African
- Asian (congenital zika)

108
Q

What is the special feature of Iodamoeba butschlii cyst?

A

5-20 mic size
has Glycogen vacules

Parasitology (5 decks)

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