Random FOP Flashcards

1
Q

Unwell neonate with widespread rash consisting of small, pale nodules suggests what infection?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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2
Q

What is galactosaemia associated with?

A

Vomiting, jaundice, other liver failure symptoms, cataracts, e.coli infection.

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3
Q

What is associated with medium- chain acts-coenzyme A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)?

A

Metabolic acidosis, liver failure and hypoglycaemia. Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia, elevated ammonia and metabolic acidosis.

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4
Q

What is test for galactosaemia?

A

Beutler test

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5
Q

What is test for congenital syphilis ?

A

Serum rapid plasma regain

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6
Q

What is treatment for listeria?

A

Amoxicillin

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7
Q

BMI Above what centile is diagnostic for obesity?

A

> 98 th

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8
Q

Erythematous, firm, macular rash over cheeks and nose and a ‘lace patterned’ rash over trunk and limbs suggests what?

A

Slapped cheek syndrome. Parvovirus B19

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9
Q

Discrete pink spots starting in the face then becoming widespread suggests what?

A

Rubella

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10
Q

Morbilliform rash starting behind ears then spreading everywhere +/- koplik spots and conjunctivitis suggests what?

A

Measles

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11
Q

Which is MOST aw bloody diarrhoea, crohn’s or UC?

A

UC

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12
Q

Describe Moebius syndrome

A

Bilateral fixed convergent squint. ‘Expressionless face’ a/w drooling

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13
Q

Describe Brown syndrome

A

Vertical strabismus, limited elevation of the eye in and adducted position. Often congenital.

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14
Q

After what age is any intermittent squint deemed significant?

A

3 months
(Permanent squint always significant)

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15
Q

What is diagnostic test for asthma?

A

Spirometry FEV1/FVC <70 %
Bronchodilators reversibility test showing FEV1 improvement 12%
exhaled FeNO> 35ppb
Peak flow variability over 20%

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16
Q

What is dilution of adrenaline is all cases of cardiac arrest?

A

1:1000, 1mg per ml

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17
Q

When do most umbilical hernias spontaneously resolve?

A

1 year, but we won’t correct until 3-4 years

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18
Q

What is antibiotic of choice for pertussis ?

A

Azithromycin

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19
Q

What is likely cause of lazy eye , with no other features?

A

Refractive error

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20
Q

What does alcohol do to type 1 diabetics? And what is advice?

A

Causes hypoglycaemia many hours after drinking. Eat carbohydrates before and after drinking alcohol.

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21
Q

Yellowish discolouration of the skin after veggie binge called what?

A

Carotenaemia

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22
Q

What is NICE definition of DKA?

A

Ketones >3, pH <7.3 , bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l

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23
Q

When is CT chest indicated in car accident patient?

A

If penetrating trauma

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24
Q

When and what insulin for DKA?

A

0.1 units/ kg, 1 hour after fluid resuscitation

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25
Q

What is most appropriate first regimen for newly diagnosed T1DM?

A

Basal-bolus

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26
Q

What insulin regimen is most appropriate for newly diagnosed T1DM who is constantly grazing food, I.e. younger?

A

Combo short and intermediate acting insulin. 30% short acting 70% intermediate acting, 2/3 dose am and 1/3 dose pm

27
Q

What is tinea incognita?

A

A fungal skin infection mistreated with steroid only cream. Rash now less red and scaly BUT more extensive and has pustules.

28
Q

What are side effects of IV salbutamol?

A

Arrhythmia, tachycardia, tachypnoea, palpitations, hypokalaemia, metabolic acidosis

29
Q

Describe molluscum contagiosum

A

Umbilicated papules about 5mm, containing white cutaneous material.

30
Q

Chronic recurrent chest infections, no gastro symptoms and situs inversus suggests what?

A

Kartagener syndrome

31
Q

What cardiac abnormality does phenytoin cause?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

32
Q

Does being on child protection plan remove parental responsibility from the mother?

A

No

33
Q

Mitral regurgitation is what murmur?

A

Pansystolic

34
Q

What are most common deficiencies in babies breastfed by vegan mothers?

A

Zinc, B12, iron, vit D

35
Q

What is condylomata acuminata?

A

Anogenital warts- think sexual abuse

36
Q

Define precocious puberty

A

Before 8 in girls and before 9 in boys

37
Q

Raised dehydroepisndrosterone in isolation is consitent with what?

A

Premature adenarche

38
Q

Ambiguous genitalia, what needs to be excluded?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

39
Q

Features suggestive of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Ongoing fever, bilateral signs on auscultation, perihilar infiltrates on CXR

40
Q

What is this:
Low ca2+, high PO4- low PTH N vit D

A

Hypoparathyroidism

41
Q

What’s this?
Low ca2+, low PO4- high PTH high ALP low vit D

A

But D deficiency

42
Q

What’s this?
Low ca2+, low PO4- high PTH , normal vitamin D

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

43
Q

What’s this?
High ca2+, low PO4- high/NPTH high ALP

A

Hyperparathyroidism

44
Q

What are the types of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease
Multinodular goitre
Toxic solitary nodule
Subacute thyroiditis (low uptake)

45
Q

What’s the difference between Marfan syndrome and homocystinuria?

A

Lens dislocates downwards in homocystinuria + learning difficulties

46
Q

What is
Low ca2+, N PO4- high PTH high high ALP ?

A

Vitamin D dependent rickets Type 2 remember starve hair, poor growth and dental hyperplasia

47
Q

What is suggestive of cholera ?

A

Pale watery stools following trip abroad to endemic country

48
Q

What infection causes hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis?

A

Cholera

49
Q

What is slapped cheek syndrome caused by?

A

Erythema infectosum/ parvovirus

50
Q

What is definition of severe DKA?

A

pH < 7.1 or bicarbonate <5

51
Q

When treat ITP?

A

Mucosal bleeding

52
Q

Describe primary prevention

A

Reduces incidence of injury occurring

53
Q

Describe secondary prevention

A

Minimises impact of disease/injury

54
Q

Describe Tertiary prevention

A

Limit extent of injury , e.g first aid training

55
Q

What is the role of PTH?

A

Increase renal calcium absorption and mobilise calcium and phosphate from the bone

56
Q

What is urine test for galactosaemia?

A

Reducing sugars

57
Q

What conditions can cause delay in bone age?

A

Growth hormone deficiency
Hypothyroidism

58
Q

How do you test for growth hormone deficiency?

A

Insulin stress test

59
Q

What is low rennin, low aldosterone hypokalaemia and alkalosis?

A

Liddle Syndrome

60
Q

How many types of renal tubular acidosis are there?

A

1- distal tubulular hydrogen excretion
2-proximal tubule bicarbonate reabsorption
4- due to reduced production or insensitivity to aldosterone

61
Q

Difference between type 1 and 2 tubular acidosis

A

1- distal tubules, hydrogen secretion, adolescent, pH NOT less than 5.5
2-proximal tubule, bicarbonate reabsorption, pH can be less than 5.5

62
Q

High sodium and low potassium think what?

A

Hyperaldosteroneism
Conns syndrome
Renal artery stenosis

63
Q

Low sodium and high potassium think what?

A

Hypoaldosteroneism
Congenital adrenal hypoplasia