Random Facts Flashcards

1
Q

Bregma junction

A

Junction on the median plane of the right and left frontoparietal sutures, or the point of crossing of the coronal and sagittal sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What runs through mastoid foramen?

A

caudal meningeal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What foramen does the facial nerve run through?

A

stylomastoid foramen along with the stylomastoid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What runs through the retroarticular foramen?

A

emissary vein, formerly called retroglenoid vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What runs through the rostral alar foramen of the skull?

A

Maxillary artery and maxillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A

The different branches are the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What runs through the caudal palatine foramen?

A

Major palatine artery (which is a branch from descending palatine, a branch of maxillary a.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the major proteoglycan of articular cartliage?

A

aggrecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the predominant type of collagen in articular cartilage?

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can happen if you increase sodium levels faster than 0.5 meQ/hr?

A

central pontine myelinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens if you decrease sodium faster than 1 mEq/hr?

A

cerebral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What fluid should you use to lower hypernatremia?

A

D5W
deficit = 0.6 x kg x (Na present/(Na normal -1))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Things that shift potassium intracellularly (leading to hypokalemia)?

A

alkalosis
insulin
catecholamines
aldosterone
beta agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ECG changes at hyperkalemia 6

A

High potassium will decrease resting membrane potential of cardiac myocytes and then hyperpolarize. Leads to bradycardia, spiked t waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ECG changes with hyperkalemia at 7-8

A

High potassium will decrease resting membrane potential of cardiac myocytes and then hyperpolarize. Prolonge P-R and wide QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ECG changes with hyperkalemia at >8.5

A

High potassium will decrease resting membrane potential of cardiac myocytes and then hyperpolarize. Lose P wave, increased S wave. At 10 –> asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does PTH come from?

A

Chief cells of the parathyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does calcitonin come from?

A

Parafollicular or C cells of the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities will you see with refeeding syndrome?

A

hypophosphatemia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does PTH influence phosphorus levels?

A

PTH increases renal excretion of phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What breeds are hypersensitive to hemolysis with hypophosphatemia?

A

Akita
Shiba Inu
Jindo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percent of oncotic pressure is attributable to albumin?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary extracellular buffer of the body?

A

bicarb. 90-95% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

intravascular vessel wall damage, stasis of flow, and the presence of a hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the Bainbridge reflex?

A

The Bainbridge reflex (aka, atrial reflex) occurs when the heart rate increases in response to a rise in atrial pressure. This is a compensatory mechanism since increased right atrial pressures frequently result from elevated left heart pressures from decreased cardiac output

26
Q

Halsted’s principles

A
  1. gentle tissue handling
  2. hemostasis
  3. preserve blood supply
  4. Asepsis
  5. Tissue apposition
  6. eliminate dead space
  7. Minimize tension
27
Q

Flow of CSF

A

lateral ventricles –> interventricular foramina –> third ventricle –> mesencephalic aqueduct –> fourth ventricle –> either central canal of spinal cord or the subarachnoid space via lateral apertures

28
Q

What are the three buttresses of the maxilla?

A

rostral (nasomaxillary)
lateral zygomaticomaxillary
caudal ptyeromaxillary

29
Q

With thin bone, how wide should the screw pitch be in comparison to bone width (such as in the maxilla)?

A

screw threads should be at least equal to bone width (this does not make sense in the book) but as an example they said that in bone that is 1-2 mm, the pitch should be 0.5-1 mm. Later in the chapter they say that to develop compression at the fracture site, the bone thickness must be at least 2x thread pitch

30
Q

What are the four zones of the physis?

A

Resting zone (only vascularized zone) next to epiphysis
Proliferative (stacked coins)
Hypertrophic (round chondrocytes)
Mineralization (columnar chondrocytes, secrete matrix for calcification)

31
Q

What is the shape of vertical force for a single limb in a kinetic study at the trot? At the walk?

A

Bell shape during trot. M shape during walk

32
Q

What types of values are seen for craniocaudal (Fy) force with braking? With propulsion? With a CrCL tear? With a thoracic limb lameness?

A
  • Craniocaudal force with braking (decceleration) is at the beginning of the stance phase and positive. It is also the larger force in forelimbs
  • Craniocaudal force with propulsion (acceleration) occurs at the limb pushing off and is negative. It is the greater force in pelvic limbs
  • dogs with a CrCL injury usually have a decrease in both braking and propulsive forces
  • patients with a forelimb lameness will usually have braking more affected than propulsion
33
Q

What is the impulse value in a kinetic study?

A

The area under the force-time curve. Impulse value considers force and contact time

34
Q

What does the L indicate in 316L stainless steel and how does that affect corrosion resistance?

A

The L refers to the low carbon content of 316L. Low carbon content improves corrosion resistance

35
Q

What are the primary elements of stainless steel (four of them)

A

iron
chromium
nickel
molybdenum

36
Q

What is the etiology of pes varus in Dachshunds?

A

eccentric premature closure of the medial portion of the distal tibial physis

37
Q

What are the two methods of joining an axial pattern flap and defect when there is intact skin between the flap and the wound?

A

Bridging incision or tubing the flap

38
Q

How much plasma is required to increase albumin by 1.0 g/dL?

A

30-45 ml/kg of plasma is needed to increase albumin by 1.0

39
Q

What is Poiseuille’s law?

A

Flow = Pichange in pressurer^4/(8viscositylength)

Basically, resistance to flow is inversely related to the radius to the fourth power. An increase in radius will greatly decrease resistance to flow

40
Q

What is the Hering Breuer reflex?

A

stretch reflex controlling the rate and depth of respiration

41
Q

What is the most common fungal pathogen in the nose of dogs? In cats?

A

dogs - Aspergillus fumigatus
cats - Cryptococcus neoformans

42
Q

What is the normal ratio/percent of tracheal diameter to thoracic inlet in a dog? In a bulldog?

A

In a normal dog, the trachea is 20% of the length of the thoracic inlet. In a bulldog, it is about 12%

43
Q

What does the cranial laryngeal nerve innervate?

A

the cranial laryngeal nerve comes off the vagus before it goes on its long wandering journey. It innervates the cricothyroideus and provides sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The caudal laryngeal is the termination of the recurrent laryngeal and innervates all other intrinsic laryngeal muscles

44
Q

What are the stages of laryngeal collapse?

A

I - everted laryngeal saccules
II - cuneiform processes collapse in
III - corniculate process collapse in

45
Q

What is the most common long term complication following a transphenoidal hypophysectomy?

A

diabetes insipidus and hypothyroidism. You may need lifelong vasopressin supplementation for the diabetes insipidus

46
Q

Name differentials for a destructive bone lesion?

A

Neoplasia (adenocarcinoma is most common in dog)
inflammatory rhinitis
infectious (fungal) rhinitis
foreign body
dental dx

47
Q

How big should a stoma be for a cholecystoduodenostomy or cholecystoenterostomy?

A

At least 4 cm to decrease the risk of stricture of the stoma and allow reflux to flow back into the small intestines. Other complications of this procedure besides stricture of the stoma include dehiscence, cholangiohepatitis, hepatic abscess, acquired PSS, pancreatitis

48
Q

What is metacarpal periostitis?

A

increased bone density as a result of repetitive stress. Seen in racing greyhounds

49
Q

Where do the pulmonary veins travel in relation to the bronchus?

A

caudal and ventral aspect of each bronchus

50
Q

What are the five causes of hypoxemia?

A

hypoventilation
low inspired O2
diffusion impairment
V/Q mismatch
Shunting

51
Q

How does a therapeutic laser supposedly treat MS/ortho pain?

A
  • photons are emitted from the laser and absorbed by cytochrome C in the mitochondria –> increases cellular metabolism
  • pain relief is from decreased production of inflammatory mediators like PGE2, TNF, COX2
  • pain relief may also be from increased endogenous opioid production and reduced nerve conduction velocity
  • wound healing is enhanced by increased fibroblast proliferation, differentiation, collagen deposition, neovascularization
52
Q

What are the depths of penetration for laser light therapy?

A

650 nm for superficial tissues like wounds
900 nm for deeper tissues (infrared spectrum)

53
Q

How are surgical site infections classified to the CDC?

A

superficial, deep, or organ/cavity
- superficial - skin or SQ and within 30 days of sx
- deep - muscle or fascia and within 30 days or up to a year if there is an implant
- organ/cavity - within 30 days of sx or up to a year if there is an implant

54
Q

What is the functional residual volume?

A

about 45 ml/kg
it is the volume of air in the lungs at the end of exhalation. It is also the point at which forces of the lung and chest wall are equal and opposite

55
Q

What parameters does the animal trauma triage ATT score evaluate?

A

perfusion
cardiac function
respiratory disease
eye/muscle/integument damage
skeletal disease
neuro disease

56
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

A

Eisenmenger syndrome refers to any untreated congenital cardiac defect with intracardiac communication that leads to pulmonary hypertension, reversal of flow, and cyanosis
First described for VSD reverse shunting but also can be used for PDA shunt reversal

57
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Consists of pulmonic stenosis, perimembranous vsd, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy

58
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus

A

Pulsus paradoxus seen with cardiac tamponade. Blood pressure change with inhalation and exhalation: during inspiration, left ventricular end-diastolic volume, left heart output, and arterial pressure are decreased resulting in variation of systolic arterial pressures often greater than 10 mmHg

59
Q

What is electrical alternans?

A

Electrical alternans is beat-to-beat variability of the QRS complex on electrocardiogram, often found in the setting of pericardial effusion

60
Q
A