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Neuroscience Unit 1 > Random > Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a tumor from remnant of Rathke’s pouch called?

A

Craniopharyngioma

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2
Q

What expands to form cerebellum?

A

Rhombic lip

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3
Q

What separates the thalamus from the hypothalamus?

A

Hypothalamic sulcus

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4
Q

What is the difference between idiopathic intracranial hypertension and normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension - no increase in ventricle size, but increase in pressure

Normal pressure - common in elderly, ICP increases only at NIGHT, triad of symptoms: apraxia, incontinence, and dementia (AID)

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5
Q

Which of Rexed’s laminae is only present in cervical/lumbar enlargements?

A
  1. At the same place, 8 will be displaced medially and is most anterior
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6
Q

What are areas 5,7 vs S2?

A

5,7 - for active object manipulation - knows what an object should feel like during a motor task involving eye hand coordination -> knockout = tactile apraxia

SII - lack of stereognosis - unable to feel an object to tell what it is -> memory of tactile sensation.

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7
Q

What is the function of Lisshauer’s tract?

A

For ALS neurons entering in lateral division, they send collaterals through the posterolateral fasciculus to localize the site of pain to the correct dermatome

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8
Q

What is the function of the CM/PF thalamus for ALS?

A

Promotes arousal to pain signals

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9
Q

What is the function of the dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus with regards to ALS?

A

Links to the limbic system thru reticular formation

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10
Q

What happens with the anterior cingulate cortex is knocked out?

A

You lose the unpleasant experience of pain. You can still feel it, it’s just unlinked to the limbic system

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11
Q

How do calcium or cAMP modify tyrosine hydroxylase activity?

A

Ca (via PKC) or cAMP activate a kinase which phosphorylates tyrosine hydroxylase, preventing the the norepinephrine interference of biopterin binding.

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12
Q

What glutamate channel is not open until unblocked by Mg?

A

NMDA - Not always open

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13
Q

What causes the fast and slow EPSP responses of cholinergic receptors?

A

Fast: Nicotinic - nonselective ion channels open
Slow: Muscarinic - inhibit the potassium M receptor via GPCR to induce a steady-state depolarization, making the neuron more excitable.

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14
Q

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the hippocampus, and how does this contrast with acetylcholine?

A

It has a “modulatory effect”, making neurons more excitable WITHOUT modifying membrane potential. This occurs via inhibition of potassium channels involved in repolarization, so the neuron is more excitable in the relative refractory period

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15
Q

What does alpha-bungarotoxin bind?

A

Nicotinic Ach receptors specifically

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action for pertussis toxin?

A

Blocks the muscarinic inhibition of the heart by modifying Gk (hyperpolarizing) and Gi (anti-cAMP, hyperpolarizing).

ADP-ribosylating

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17
Q

What are three mechanisms of Familial Parkinson Disease?

A
  1. Defect in Parkin gene -
    Adds ubiquitin to proteins
  2. Defect in Alpha-synuclein - causes resistance to degradation of proteins in proteosomes
  3. Defect in UCH-L1 -
    Recycling of ubiquitin from protein fragments
18
Q

What are the 5 peaks generated on the AEP?

A
  1. Generated by CN8
  2. Generated at cochlear nucleus
  3. Generated at superior olive / trapezoid body
    4/5. Generated in upper pons as impulses travel thru lateral lemniscus / inferior colliculus
19
Q

What is a Rinne test?

A

Place the butt of a tuning fork on the mastoid process. Have the patient listen, then put it next to their ear. A normal result is they can hear better when the tuning fork is not touched against them.

Conductive hearing impairment = sounds better when touching bone than when fork is free in air. (Sound is not amplified / transmitted properly by bones).

20
Q

What is the path of MVST? What is its job?

A

Ascends from one nuclear complex bilaterally through the medial longitudinal fasciculi (MLF) on both sides. Becomes ipsilateral in caudal medulla, distributes to cervical / upper thoracic segments (T1/T2). Important for head and neck movements of cervical region. Can be found in white matter of anterior funiculus.

21
Q

What gives input to the fastigial nucleus?

A
  1. Vestibular nuclear complex
  2. Spinocerebellum (anterior lobe vermis)
  3. Vestibulocerebellum
22
Q

Where does the vestibular nuclear complex project?

A

Ipsilaterally to vestibulocerebellum and fastigial nucleus

23
Q

What are the inputs of the cerebellum back on the vestibular nuclear complex? What is one additional one?

A
  1. Vestibulocerebellum - most caudal, ipsilateral input, inhibitory
  2. Spinocerebellum - most rostral, ipsilateral, inhibitory
  3. Fastigial nucleus - bilateral, excitatory.

Additionally:
Reticular formation sends fibers to vestibular nuclear complex

24
Q

What are the minor contributions of the vestibular nuclear complex to efferent control besides eyes and spinal cord?

A
  1. Reticular formation (reticulospinal tract)
  2. Vestibular periphery - excitatory neurons to cristae and maculae
  3. Thalamus - to VPL, signalling vestibular irritation to the somatosensory cortex eventually (cause of vertigo)
25
Q

What are microglia derived from?

A

Mesoderm

26
Q

Where are the two types of astrocytes found most commonly, and what do their processes do? What do they look like in the nucleus?

A

Fibrous - most common in white matter
Protoplasmic - more compact and fuzzier, found in gray matter

Processes form “end feet” which sit on the outer perimeter of blood vessels

Look almost like plasma cells with marginated heterochromatin

27
Q

How do astrocytes act in support?

A

During brain development, they are the radial glia which provide support + migration path for newly proliferated neurons

28
Q

How do astrocytes help at synapses?

A

They isolate synapses, and also buffer potassium / act as a potassium sink in extracellular space after depolarization to quickly restore membrane potential

29
Q

What is the mechanism for rhodopsin work?

A

Light striking 11-cis retinal converts it to all-transretinal. Opsin is GPCR, which uses the protein transducin to decrease glutamate release by that rod cell. Rhodopsin is recycled by retinal pigment epithelium

30
Q

In what areas are the UMN / LMN most commonly affected in ALS?

A

UMN - to the lower limbs

LMN - to the upper limbs as well as laryngeal + pharyngeal constrictor muscles

31
Q

What is Weber’s syndrome (superior alternating hemiplegia)?

A

lesion of PT tract + CN3 nucleus. Will manifest in PT syndrome (spastic hemiparesis of contralateral side of body) + CN3 symptoms + lower facial paralysis since corticobulbar tract is included (upper face has bilateral contribution).

32
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

Unilateral nerve 7 lesion - loss of ipsilateral face movements, hyperacusis (stapedius), ipsilateral corneal reflex, diminished taste on anterior 2/3, dry eye (loss of PANS before giving to greater petrosal nerve)

33
Q

How does the superior colliculus communicate with the PPRF?

A

Sends axons across midline to stimulate PPRF. PPRF will stimulate the ipsilateral abducens nucleus

34
Q

What does the abducens nucleus do when stimulated by PPRF?

A
  1. Sends motor axons to activate lateral rectus of ipsilateral eye
  2. Sends internuclear neuron axons via MLF on contralateral side to synapse in contralateral oculomotor complex, ultimately activates medial rectus of contralateral eye
35
Q

Where do pontocerebellar fibers project to and what is their function?

A

Coordination of complex movements

Project to dentate nucleus through MCP.

Dentate nucleus will ultimately communicate with VL thalamus which projects to Brodmann’s area 4

36
Q

Where do olivocerebellar fibers project to and what is their function?

A

Memory of complex tasks

Project to globose, emboliform, and dentate nuclei through ICP

These three nuclei will communication with red nucleus (controls axial upper flexors and lower limb extensors through rubrospinal tract) and VL thalamus (communicates with area 4)

37
Q

What are some of the functions of the reticulospinal tract?

A
  1. Sympathetics from hypothalamus
  2. Regulation of muscle tone under cerebellar control
  3. Regulation of muscle tone via vestibular nuclear complex efferent
  4. Receives input from PPN for postural and gross reflex movements.
  5. Controls diaphragmatic contraction to keep u breathing
38
Q

How does neocerebellar syndrome differ in presentation to spinocerebellar syndrome?

A

Neocerebellar has dysarthria and dysdiadokinesia as well

Spinocerebellar has dysmetria and is common in cases of chronic alcoholism leading to B1 deficiency

39
Q

Where are the medial and lateral reticulospinal tracts?

A

Medial - pons

Lateral - medulla

40
Q

What makes up the medial and lateral fifths of the cerebral peduncle? How does this relate to the internal capsule?

A

Medial - cortex communication to pontine nuclei from frontal lobe - fibers pass through anterior limb of internal capsule

Lateral - cortex communication to pontine nuclei from pontine, occipital, and temporal

41
Q

At what point are the ALS and ML actually next to eachother?

A

Around the midpontine level

Neuroscience Unit 1 (20 decks)

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