RANDOM Flashcards

1
Q

Three recommended reasons for referral for further investigation of atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis?

A
  • Refractory hypertension (BP >150/90 mmHg despite 3 antihypertensives)
  • Recurrent episodes of pulmonary oedema despite normal left ventricular function
  • Rise of >20% serum creatinine or fall of GFR >15% over 12 months with high clinical suspicion of widespread atherosclerosis, or during the first 2 months after initiation with an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
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2
Q

STATS: how to use sensitivity and specificity?

A

High sensitivity helps to rule out disease (SnOut) and a high specificity helps to rule in (SpIn) disease

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3
Q

What is T4 RTA?

A

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis is caused by hypoaldoseteronism, resulting in reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion.

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4
Q

What causes t4 rta?

A

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis is not a tubular disorder at all, but is included in the classification as it is associated with a mild (normal anion gap) metabolic acidosis due to a physiological reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. The underlying cause of this is hypoaldoseteronism, due to either:

primary deficiency
hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, or
aldosterone resistance (caused by eplerenone, spironolactone, trimethoprim, pentamidine, or pseudohypoaldosteronism).

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5
Q

Biochemical features of T4 RTA?

A

It can also be caused by collecting duct dysfunction from renal insufficiency. The cardinal feature is hyperkalaemia and normal urinary acidification.

Sodium wasting is a variable feature of type 4 renal tubular acidosis, as aldosterone normally enhances sodium reabsorption. It is not usually as marked as in this case, but it is possible the diuretic has exacerbated it.

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6
Q

Which enzyme is the target of the antibodies found in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PD)

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7
Q

What does pyruvate dehydrogenase (PD) do?

A

generates pyruvate from phosphoenolpyruvate

Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PD), required for the generation of acetyl-CoA from pyruvate for entry into the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, is found in the mitochondria.

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMAs), the serological hallmark of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), are often targeted against pyruvate dehydrogenase.

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8
Q

Pompe’s disease is a deficiency of what?

A

alpha-glucosidase

and is also known a*s glycogen storage disease *type 2.

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9
Q

Pompe’s disease: symptoms

A

Myopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Hepatomegaly

can be treated with supplementation of the enzyme.

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10
Q

What is Achondroplasia ?

A
  • Autosomal dominant condition
  • commonest forms of short-limbed dwarfism
  • Caused by an activated point-mutation of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (at 4p16.3).
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11
Q

Achondroplasia -incidence increases with?

A

Increasing paternal age

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12
Q

Ulnar neuropathy causes?
(3)

A
  1. ring and little finger paraesthesia
  2. hypothenar wasting
  3. weak thumb adduction
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13
Q

What is typically elevated in Gaucher’s disease?

A

acid phosphatase

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14
Q

What is typically reduced in Gaucher’s disease?

A

glucocerebrosidase

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15
Q

What causes psuedohypoparathyroidism

A

Mutation of the PTH receptor with abnormality of the Gs alpha subunit with reduced cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production

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16
Q

Clinical features of TTP?

A

microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
acute kidney injury
thrombocytopenia
fever and
neurological symptoms

17
Q

eculizumab MoA and use

A

(a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody)
adult atypical HUS

18
Q

A L5/S1 disc prolapse affects the S1 nerve root causing:

A

Sensory loss to the posterior calf and the plantar surface of the foot
Motor loss to gastrocnemius and soleus, and
Loss of ankle jerk

19
Q

L3/4 disc prolapse affects the L4 nerve root, causing:

A

Pain in the anterior thigh
Quadriceps weakness
Reduced knee jerk
Loss of sensation over the thigh

20
Q

L4/5 disc prolapse affects the L5 nerve root, causing:

A

Pain over lateral aspect of thigh and leg
Loss of sensation to lateral aspect of leg and dorsum of foot
Weakness of dorsiflexion (‘foot drop’)
Reflexes often unaffected

21
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism features?

A

High aldosterone
suppressed renin
alkalosis
low potassium
low magnesium
and normal/high sodium.

22
Q

P450 dependent drugs

A
  • Warfarin
  • Estrogen
  • Phenytoin
  • Theophylline
  • Digoxin
23
Q

P450 inhibitors

A
  • Acute alcohol intake
  • Allopurinol
  • Amiodarone
  • Cimetidine, omeprazole
  • Dapsone
  • Imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
  • INH
  • Macrolides (Azithro-Clarithro-Erythro mycins)
  • Quinolones (ciprofloxacin)
  • Quinupristin
  • Sodium valproate
  • Spironolactones
  • SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
  • Grapefruit juice (potent inhibitor of the cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP3A4)
  • Protease inhibitors (ndinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir, saquinavir)
24
Q

P450 inducers

A
  • Antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine (note that valporate is an inhibitor)
  • Barbiturates
  • Chronic alcohol intake
  • Griseofulvin
  • Quinidine
  • Rifampicin
  • Smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
  • St John’s Wort
  • Sulfa drugs
  • Tetracycline
  • Nevirapine (NNRTI)
25
Q

Which drugs can be cleared by HD

A
  • Barbiturate
  • Lithium
  • Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
  • Salicylates
  • Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is
    preferable)
26
Q

Drugs impairing glycaemia

A
  • Thiazides, furosemide (less common)
  • Steroids
  • Tacrolimus, cyclosporin
  • Interferon-α
  • Nicotinic acid (vitamin B3)