MRCP Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What is a differential in young women presenting with prolonged amenorrhoea? What test would you order (after b-hcg/TFTs etc)

A

premature ovarian failure

FSH

The suspicion here, given the prolonged cessation of menses with a normal weight, normal thyroid function tests, and a past history of coeliac disease is premature ovarian failure, thought to be autoimmune in origin. As such looking for elevated FSH (28 is the upper limit of normal, 40 is the value required to confirm menopause) is the optimal next investigation.

Unfortunately spontaneous return of ovarian function is extremely rare. Therefore this patient in all likelihood should be offered hormone replacement therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which technique is the best in differentiating between ectopic Cushing’s syndrome and pituitary dependent Cushing’s disease?

A

Inferior petrosal sinus sampling is an extremely sensitive, specific and accurate test for differentiating between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH production.

A raised ACTH from here compared to the periphery suggests a pituitary cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Features of zinc deficiency

A
  • dwarfism
  • hypogonadism
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • rough and dry skin
  • mental lethargy, and
  • geophagia
  • Hypertelorism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do thyroid hormones enhance?

A
  1. insulin-dependent entry of glucose into cells
  2. myocardial oxygen consumption
  3. nerve conduction
  4. gluconeogenesis, and
  5. oxidation of fatty acids.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who should be screened for thyroid abnormalities?

A
  • Patients with atrial fibrillation
  • Patients with hyperlipidaemia (4–14% have hypothyroidism)
  • Diabetes mellitus—on annual review
  • Women with type 1 DM during 1st trimester and post delivery (3-fold rise in incidence of postpartum thyroid dysfunction)
  • Patients on amiodarone or lithium (6 monthly)
  • Patients with Down’s or Turner’s syndrome, or Addison’s disease (yearly)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Eye signs seen in graves disease only

A
  • Soft-tissue signs: periorbital oedema, conjunctival injection, chemosis
  • Proptosis/exophthalmos
  • Diplopia/ophthalmoplegia
  • Optic nerve compression causing visual failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Example of Meglitinides

A

Repaglinide
Nateglinide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MoA of meglitinides

A

increase pancreatic insulin secretion
like sulfonylureas they bind to an ATP-dependent K+(KATP) channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do Raloxifine and Tamoxifen differ?

A

Tamoxifen (another SERM) acts as a partial agonist at the endometrium, so can promote endometrial hyperplasia.

Raloxifene acts as an oestrogen agonist at some sites, for example, bone to increase mineralisation, but acts as an antagonist at other sites, for example, uterus/breast (preventing endometrial/breast hyperplasia).

It differs from tamoxifen in this regard, because tamoxifen (another SERM) acts as a partial agonist at the endometrium, so can promote endometrial hyperplasia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If cortisol is not suppressed by the low or high dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

Primary adrenal Cushing’s syndrome (low/undetectable ACTH) or
Ectopic ACTH is the cause (high ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does PTH increase calcium?

A

Enhances the release of calcium from bones by binding to osteoblasts which stimulates the formation of osteoclasts

Enhances reabsorption of calcium in the distal tubules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which kind of cancer is associated with acromegaly?

A

Carcinoid tumour

ectopic GH-releasing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of McCune-Albright syndrome

A
  • Precocious puberty
  • Bony fibromas leading to possible pathological fractures
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Café au lait spots
  • Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
  • Short stature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome: cause?

A

Random, somatic mutation in the GNAS gene

**not inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does Amiodarone cause hypothyroidism

A

Stops peripheral conversion of t4–>t3

REM: thyroid mainly makes t4 -relies on peripheral conversion

17
Q

DKA blood gas features?

A

hyperglycaemia
lactic acidosis
low bicarbonate

18
Q

What are the effects of Exenatide

A

Suppresses appetite
Inhibits glucose production in the liver
Slows gastric emptying
Stimulates insulin release

mimics the effect of the gut hormone GLP-1 (glucagon-like peptide 1)

19
Q

What would you see on the gas of a patient with Cushings syndrome?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

20
Q

By which mechanism does Cushings lead to a metabolic alkalosis

A

Excess ACTH production leads to upregulation of corticosteroid production, increase in mineralocorticoid production, and consequent hypokalaemia with metabolic alkalosis.

21
Q

Which gene mutations is Monogenic diabetes/MODY associated with

A

glucokinase and HNF1a and HNF4a

22
Q

What is the incretin effect?

A

glucose given via the gut will elicit a greater insulin response than IV

glucose-dependent insulinotropic hormone (GIP) and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

23
Q

What is acarbose

A

alpha glucosidase inhibitor which inhibits the splitting of disaccharides into glucose and so inhibits glucose absorption from the gut

24
Q

Why is there an increased risk of hypoglycaemia in patient with renal impairment taking glibenclamide?

A

two active metabolites, 4-trans-hydroxyglibenclamide and 3-cis-hydroxyglibenclamide, which are both renally excreted

25
Q

What is the significance of 21 hydroxylase ?

A

An enzyme involved in the cholesterol steroid pathway
Anti-21-hydroxylase antibody is found in 80% of patients with autoimmune adrenalitis

26
Q
A