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ACS - Cheese Facts > Random > Flashcards

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1
Q

After curd has been formed, which will contain more lactic acid bacteria, the curds or the whey?

A

The whey. It will contain not only more lactic acid bacteria but also more lactose

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2
Q

The contact of the curd to the whey will affect what?

A

The acid level of the cheese
The moisture content of the cheese

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3
Q

Will the calcium component of the cheese be greater or lesser the longer the curd has contact with the whey?

A

The calcium will dissolve more rapidly as the acidity increases

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4
Q

Elasticity is highly dependent upon ___

A

Acid

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5
Q

How do you measure evaporative moisture loss?

A

Dry out a sample, measuring the difference between the initial sample and the finished sample after drying

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6
Q

What is MNFS?

A

Moisture in non fat Substance. What portion of the cheese is moisture and protein

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7
Q

How do you calculate MNFS?

A

Amount of water/ (water +protein).

Expressed as a %

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8
Q

What is FDM?

A

Fat in dry matter

The amount of dry matter (everything that ISNT water) that is fat

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9
Q

How do you calculate FDM?

A

Fat / (fat + protein)

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10
Q

What is margin?

A

The amount of the total sale price that the producer keeps that isn’t cost

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11
Q

What is a markup?

A

A set percentage added to the cost of the product to determine the sales price

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12
Q

What are the steps in cheddar manufacture?

A
  • Milk heated to 88F; starter culture added (lactococcus lactis and leuconostoc)
  • Renneted after 15-30 minutes (stirred for 5 mins)
    -coagulated after 25 minutes, cut into pea size pieces
    -heated to 100-102F, stirring 30-45; after temp reached stirred 45-60 minutes more
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13
Q

What is scalding?

A

The process of cutting curd into small pieces and then cooking the curd over 100F in order to expel more whey

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14
Q

What is the pH you’re wanting before the cheddaring process can begin?

A

6.1

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15
Q

What would the pH get to after cheddaring and before milling?

A

5.2

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16
Q

What types of cheeses pair best with pilsners, pale ales, and IPAs?

A

Many will work BUT semi hard cows milk cheeses are most suitable

Cheddars

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17
Q

What type of cheeses pair well with Tripels, Belgian golden ales and French Bieres de Garde

A

Work well with bloomies and triple crème that aren’t overly ripe

Also well with aged goat and aged crottins

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18
Q

What type of cheeses pair best with Saisons and wheat beers?

A

Tangy fresh goat cheese

Best way to start off a cheese and beer tasting

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19
Q

What type of cheeses pair best with “wild yeast” beers?

A

Washed rind cheeses (taleggio, epoisses)

Also with milder blue cheeses (young Stilton)

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20
Q

What cheeses pair best with brown ales, porters, scotch ales and doppelbocks?

A

Aged Gruyère and goudas

Also aged Pyrenees sheep milk cheeses (ossau iraty)

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21
Q

What types of cheeses pair best with Barley Wines, old ales and imperial stouts?

A

Should be robust as these are robust beverages

Intense blues, aged Gruyère, aged Gouda, parm, mimolette

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22
Q

What is bovine somatotropin?

A

Is a growth hormone that affects the metabolism of somatic cells.

Creation of r-bST in the 1980s found a 12-15% increase in milk production.

No test for r-bST in milk

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23
Q

What is diacetyl?

A

Fermentation compound which contributes a desirable buttery aroma to a cheese

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24
Q

What is a house culture?

A

A starter culture made by the cheese maker.

There will be a slight difference day by day which will be reflected in the cheese

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25
Q

What is a mother culture?

A

Initial starter culture obtained in a frozen/freeze dried form. Typically a small sample is propagated initially to ensure starter viability.

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26
Q

What are secondary ripening cultures?

A

Cultures uses to bring out specific characteristics during the ripening stages of cheesemaking (flavor, texture, mold development)

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27
Q

What are natural cultures?

A

Using cultures from a previous days’ milking or whey from an earlier batch (ex: Comte and Parm Reggiano)

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28
Q

What is a good practice for the prevention of bacteriophage?

A

Rotation of starter culture strains to reduce impact

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29
Q

What are some benefits to adding lipase to a cheese?

A

Flavor enrichment
Better scent
Reduction of ripening time

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30
Q

What flavors will calf lipases give to a cheese?

A

Delicate, mild piquant flavor

Pleasant butter scent with light spicy flavor

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31
Q

What flavor will kid/goat lipase give to a cheese?

A

Strong, sharp piquant flavor

Persistent scent

provolone example

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32
Q

What flavor will lamb/sheep lipase give to a cheese?

A

Strong, marked traditional flavor. Medium spicy

Think pecorino Romano

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33
Q

What is the first HACCP principle?

A

Development of a hazard analysis

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34
Q

When should a producer have separate HACCP plans?

A

When products are made where the production process is different from others

Ex: plant where cheddar and Italian style cheeses are made should have different plans;

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35
Q

What are flow diagrams in regards to HACCP Plans?

A

A flow chart where each step in the process is placed in a box, showing the flow from raw ingredients to shipping of finished product

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36
Q

What three possible hazards should be addressed during each step identified in the flow diagram?

A

Potential for:
Physical
Chemical
Biological hazards

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37
Q

How are chemical hazards addressed in a HACCP Plan?

A

SSOPs (Sanitary standard operating procedures)

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38
Q

How are biological hazards addressed in a HACCP plan?

A

GMPs (good manufacturing practices)

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39
Q

How are biological hazards addressed in a HACCP Plsn?

A

Both through SSOPs (ie: cleaning of equipment) and GMPs (ie: personnel)

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40
Q

What is step 2 of a HACCP plan?

A

Identify critical control points

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41
Q

What is a critical control point?

A

A hazard where there is not an additional step further in the process that will prevent, reduce or eliminate the hazard.

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42
Q

What is step 3 of a HACCP Plan?

A

Setting critical limits

Used to determine that the system is working at its best to minimize safety issues

Should be measurable

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43
Q

What is step 4 of a HACCP plan?

A

Monitoring of critical limits

Should also state “how” the critical limit will be evaluated; frequency of testing, who will evaluate and how the testing is completed

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44
Q

What is step 5 of the HACCP plan?

A

Record keeping

Should be recorded as close to real-time data as possible

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45
Q

What is “dry data”?

A

A form of automated response that doesn’t reflect what was done or evaluated at the time noted on the forms

Ex: entering in “ok” for data points or SSOP checklists rather than actually checking

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46
Q

What is step 6 of a HACCP Plan?

A

Corrective actions

When something goes wrong, it must be documented and what steps were taken to correct the failure

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47
Q

What four points should be addressed in a corrective action as part of a HACCP plan?

A
  1. Should bring the situation under control and within critical limits
  2. Identify the reason for the deviation
  3. Identify what changes will be enacted for the future to prevent it from happening again
  4. Verify that no product potentially injurious to health is allowed into the food chain.
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48
Q

What is the seventh step in a HACCP plan?

A

Verification

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49
Q

What three areas of concern are important to the verification part of a HACCP plan?

A
  • Direct observation and record keeping if forms to ensure that CCPs were monitored at least as often as outlined in the plan
  • monitoring of a secondary individual
  • direct observation of monitoring equipment/calibration records
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50
Q

What three areas of concern are important to the verification part of a HACCP plan?

A
  • Direct observation and record keeping if forms to ensure that CCPs were monitored at least as often as outlined in the plan
  • monitoring of a secondary individual
  • direct observation of monitoring equipment/calibration records
51
Q

The Public Health and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act of 2002 requires that:

A

Food facilities register with the FDA

FDA given advance notice on any imported shipments of food

52
Q

What benefits does FDA Registration Numbers have for the FDA?

A

Can more easily determine the location and source of a potential bioterrorism incident or food borne illness outbreak

Can quickly notify any affected facilities

53
Q

What is the purpose of The Public Health and Bioterrorism Preparedness and Response Act of 2002?

A

Directs the FDA to take steps to protect the public from a threatened or actual terrorist attack on the US food supply and other good related emergencies

54
Q

What is a license in regards to US imports, according to the USDA Foreign Agricultural Service?

A

-gives importers a privilege to pay a lower rate of duty than one who does not have a license

Also works to limit the amount of a given dairy product that can be imported at that cheaper rate (helps protect domestic producers)

55
Q

What are tariffs?

A

Taxes/duties assessed on imports to maintain a level of fairness in international trade.

Determined by international agreements; most current for dairy imports is from 1995 (Uruguay Round Agreement)

56
Q

What 2 ways can dairy licenses be awarded?

A

By Type (ex: cheddar, Swiss type, American, blue, Gouda, etc)

By Origin: Individual country or country blocks (EU)

57
Q

What does NSPF stand for when describing dairy license type?

A

Not Specifically Provided For

58
Q

What is the difference between Historical and Non-Historical dairy licenses?

A

Historical licenses were awarded to importers of dairy products at the time the tariff-rate quota was introduced

Non-Historical licenses are awarded by lottery

59
Q

What must both historical and non-historical dairy importers do to keep their license? ,

A

Must apply for the license on a yearly basis

Must currently import dairy products

60
Q

What is a file system?

A

Term used to describe how shipments are chronologically labeled.

Refers to the week of the year the product shipped. Ex: if product left port on May 11th, would be coded as File 19 as that is the 19th week of the year.

61
Q

What is a consolidator/consolidation?

A

A service where smaller loads of freight are combined onto one shipping container

Book pallet spaces on containers at a specified rate

62
Q

What are the two main ways to transport freight internationally?

A

Air freight and Ocean freight

63
Q

What are the two main differences between air and ocean freight?

A

Cost and Lead time

Air freight is much more expensive but ocean freight can be up to a 3 week lead time from order to receipt at distribution

64
Q

What are freight terms?

A

The contract terms that stipulate which party is responsible for arranging and paying the freight costs , which include the transport costs and insurance

Remember, whomever pays freight is responsible for any damages or losses that occur in transit

65
Q

What is FOB?

A

Freight On Board

The buyer of the goods is responsible for freight from a specific point (ie: manufacturing plant, consolidation point or port)

66
Q

What is Ex Works

A

Stipulates that the buyer is responsible for freight from the manufacturer’s plant

67
Q

What does delivered mean in regards to freight ?

A

The seller is responsible for freight to the door of the buyer

68
Q

What are payment terms?

A

Used to determine the method and timing of receiving payment for a shipment.

Usually the number of days after a shipment has been invoiced or received.

69
Q

What is COD?

A

Cash On Delivery

Customer must pay for the shipment when it is delivered.

May or may not include a discount

70
Q

What is invoice to invoice?

A

Payment term where customer must pay for the most recent past shipment at the time of receipt of a new shipment

71
Q

What are Net “X” payment terms

A

X refers to the number of days after a delivery has been made that payment must be received by the supplier

Ex: net 30 is 30 days

72
Q

What are the US Regulatory Agencies that oversee the clearance of incoming shipments?

A
  • Dept of Homeland Security (Customs Boarder Patrol
  • USDA (Foreign Agricultural service & Food Safety and inspection service)
  • dept of health and human services (FDA)
73
Q

Which agencies can legally “hold” shipments from entering the US?

A

USDA
FDA
CBP - customs and boarder patrol

74
Q

What are the two reasons that the USDA could put a cheese shipment on Manifest hold?

A
  • to verify a producer has an approved Sanitary Certificate
  • to perform an intensive exam
75
Q

What is a sanitary certificate?

A

Issued by the government entity from the country of origin ( ministry of food, etc) that is in charge of food and/or agriculture.

States that the food meets or is at levels below the thresholds needed for US regulations. Must provide independent lab results

76
Q

What is an intensive exam?

A

Random examination or when the USDA has suspicions that a container carries disease organisms/pathogens

Occurs rarely

77
Q

What is the USDA responsible for?

A

Meat, Poultry, and eggs

Also controls certain aspects of cheese clearance

78
Q

What does the FDA regulate?

A

Governs all food, excluding those covered by the USDA, that enters into interstate commerce

79
Q

What is the role of the FDA?

A

To ensure that all foods entering into interstate commerce are safe, wholesome and properly labeled

80
Q

What are the two types of FDA holds?

A

FDA paper hold- checks the invoice of a shipment to determine any irregularities worth further investigation

FDA exam- if further investigation needed, can either be a visual inspection to verify product or can take a physical sample for testing

81
Q

What are the most common type of holds that can occur during the importation process?

A

FDA holds.

Can also take the longest to clear

82
Q

What can happen if a product is mislabeled upon import?

A
  • producer will have a set time to re-label the product.
  • will risk permanent detention and destruction of the product OR be forced to export the product back to the country of origin
  • if positive for pathogens, shipment destroyed
83
Q

What is the role of CBP in regards to import clearances?

A

Assess and collect duties on incoming shipments and ensure that they do not contain illegal contraband

84
Q

What factors can affect the amount of duties paid on incoming products?

A
  • Protecting domestic industries
  • result of international trade agreements or disputes
85
Q

What is a customs broker?

A

A person who helps to prepare and submit documentation to notify or obtain clearance from federal agencies (USDA, FDA, CBP)

86
Q

Who pays for the services of a customs broker?

A

The importer/exporter

87
Q

What services can a customs border provide?

A
  • preparation/electronic submission of import/export documents
  • calculate and make payments on duties, taxes, excises
  • facilitate communication between parties, especially if there is a hold on a product
88
Q

For a distributor, what are key objectives in regards to the receiving of product?

A
  • ensure the amounts invoiced are the amounts received
  • ensure the quality (take temps, visually inspect for damage or spoilage)
  • note lot codes
  • ensure that it is loaded in the correct area of the warehouse
89
Q

What are two elements a distributor must take into consideration when warehousing product?

A

Make sure the products are slotted appropriately in the warehouse (proper picking)

Products are properly rotated FIFO

90
Q

What are key considerations when picking/selecting an order in a warehouse?

A
  • the order of the picking ticket should proceed in the same order as the slotting of the products
  • heavier, more durable items are slotted first to prevent damage
  • items with similar packaging are not slotted next to one another to avoid mispicks
91
Q

What are the two main goals to effective shipping?

A

Plan routes to take into consideration customer delivery hours and minimize fuel consumption/drive time

Maintain the cold chain and keep products secure in the vehicle

92
Q

What are the HACCP critical control points for a distributor?

A

Receiving
Storage
Shipping

93
Q

What is an example of a critical limit for a distributors HACCP plan?

A

Maintaining temperatures of refrigerated product at 40 or less

94
Q

What is the main goal of FSMA?

A

To transform the nations food safety plans by focusing on “prevention” by implementing measures that are effective in preventing contamination

95
Q

What are four ways to achieve active managerial control in an operation?

A
  • training programs
  • manager supervision
  • SOPs
  • HACCP
96
Q

What are some steps to implement active managerial control?

A
  • identify/ document potential risks and ways to control or eliminate them
  • monitor critical activities
  • correct improper behaviors or procedures
  • verify that policies/ procedures/corrective actions are followed
  • ensure employees are trained
  • assess system to make sure it’s working
97
Q

What is a HACCP Plan?

A

A documented 7 step plan, specific to a facility, its products, equipment, operations and customers

Identifies biological, chemical and physical hazards within the product flow and how to prevent, eliminate or reduce those to safe levels

98
Q

What are some examples of critical control points for cheesemakers?

A

-raw milk storage
- filtration/pasteurization of milk
- addition of starter cultures and rennet
- cooling
- curd cutting
- hooping
- dry salting and aging
- storage

99
Q

What are some examples of critical control points for distributors?

A

-receiving, storage and shipping

100
Q

What are some examples of critical control points for retailers?

A

-receiving, storing
- preparing, cooking, cooking
- hot/cold holding
- assembly/set up/packing
- serving and selling

101
Q

Who regulates milk and milk products?

A

The FDA

102
Q

What is the national standard for milk sanitation?

A

The PMO (pasteurized milk ordinance)

103
Q

Cheese that is produced from milk that, prior to setting the curd, has not been heated above the temperature of the milk at the time of milking is:

A

Raw milk cheese

104
Q

With date marking and labeling of cheese, what is required?

A

Cheese is a priority allergen
- name of product
- net weight
- Nutritional information (if required)
-requires ingredient list and allergen callout
- name and address of retailer/manufacturer or distributor
- sell by date, code or lot info

105
Q

What is considered a high and moderate risk cheese?

A

One that has a water activity of 39% or greater

106
Q

What is the most important thing a good handler can do?

A

Wash their hands

107
Q

How long must you wash your hands for?

A

20 seconds total (10-15 scrub time)

108
Q

What is the definition of cleaning?

A

Removal of food or dirt from a surface

109
Q

What is the definition of sanitizing?

A

Reduces pathogens on a surface to safe levels

110
Q

What is the definition of disinfecting?

A

Elimination of many or all pathogenic microorganisms

111
Q

What is the definition of sterilizing?

A

Destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life, including spores

112
Q

What are the specific requirements for manual dishwashing?

A

3 compartment sink
- detergent and water at 110F
- water
- water and sanitizer

113
Q

If using hot water sanitizing method, what temperature is required?

A

Immersed in 171F water or higher for at least 30 seconds

114
Q

If using a dish machine to clean, what are the temperature requirements?

A

Wash temp at least 150F
Final sanitizing rinse at least 180F

-internal surface temp of the dishes must reach at least 160F
- if using a stationary rack, single temp machine, must reach at least 165F

115
Q

What is the temperature danger zone?

A

41-135F

116
Q

The more fat content in milk (a low protein to fat ratio), will give you a cheese that has ____ moisture and an inability for the curds to expel whey and take up salt.

A

More moisture

Should be used for bloomy and soft styles

117
Q

The less fat content in milk (a higher protein to fat ratio), will give you a cheese that has ____ moisture and should be used to make _____style cheeses.

A

Less; harder and more aged types

118
Q

When should antibiotics be addressed with raw milk?

A

When the product is initially received. The only way to prevent it is from the start

119
Q

What about alpine cheeses allows for the elasticity to be able to expand under pressure from accumulating CO2 from propionic bacteria?

A

The high mineral (calcium phosphate) content and high pH (more alkaline)

The slow acid production of these styles of cheeses (had to make cheese after milking; unable to sit) ensures that the mineral content is higher

120
Q

What is the pH of bloomy rind cheeses within the first 24 hours? Smear ripened cheeses?

A

Around 4.6 for bloomies

Around 5.2 for smear

121
Q

If a cheeses pH is above 5.5, is that cheese at a greater or lesser risk for pathogen growth?

A

Greater

122
Q

What is the name of the device with an air system that helps to mitigate the air flow in an aging facility?

A

Sock

123
Q

What is the term used to describe a group of judges eating the same cheeses, at the same time, comparing notes and scores when evaluating?

A

Norming

124
Q

What are the 4 stages of a product lifecycle?

A
  1. Introduction
  2. Growth
  3. Maturity
  4. Decline

ACS - Cheese Facts (3 decks)

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