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1
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

more rapid than tolerance
The appearance of progressive decrease in response to a given dose after repetitive administration of a pharmacologically or physiologically active substance.

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2
Q

Which organelle is enriched in hepatocytes and why?

A

Smooth ER because a function of hepatocytes is to synthesise lipids and this takes place at smooth ER.

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3
Q

What does APTT stand for and which pathway is it used to test?

A

Activated partial thromboplastin time - tests intrinsic pathway to see how long it takes blood to clot.

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4
Q

What is alteplase and its mechanism of action?

A

A fibrinolytic - converts plasminogen to plasmin to trigger degradation of fibrin.

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5
Q

Would proteins with a short half life be removed by lysosomal or proteasomal degradation?

A

Proteasomal

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6
Q

What are the different classes of chemical signal in the body?

A 
Amino acid derivatives:
- modified amino acids
- peptide hormones
- protein hormones
Steroid hormones:
- derived from cholesterol 
Eicosanoids
- derived from lipids
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7
Q

Describe Lyme disease.

A
  • bacterial infection
  • spread by infected ticks
  • circular rash and flu like symptoms
  • treated with antibiotics
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8
Q

Which protein maintains the alignment of the thick filament in the middle of each sarcomere?

A

Titin

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9
Q

Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?

A
  • CN III (oculomotor)
  • CN VII (facial)
  • CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
  • CN X ( vagus)
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10
Q

A mutation in the motor protein dynein can cause which condition?

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

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11
Q

Which type of collagen is the predominant component in hyaline cartilage?

A

Collagen II

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12
Q

How does Bcl 2 influence apoptosis?

A
  • normally inhibits apoptosis by regulating the permeability of the mitochondrial membrane
  • bcl 2 found to be increased in many cancers (especially lymphomas) and this increases the cells ability to evade any pro death signals
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13
Q

Describe neutrophils

A
  • 50-60% of circulating leukocytes
  • short lived (6-12 hours)
  • 1st line of defence
  • bacteriostatic and toxic factors
  • phagocytose pathogens
  • release soluble mediators
  • multi-lobed nuclei
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14
Q

Which cell types can cause gliomas?

A

Glial cells (astrocytes, Schwann, ependymal, oligodendrocytes, microglial)

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15
Q

In which phase of the cell cycle are organelles replicated?

A

G2

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16
Q

Which extra embryonic membrane in continuous with the epiblast?

A

The amnion:

- lines the amniotic cavity which is filled with fluid and acts to protect the developing embryo
- present until birth
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17
Q

Describe the range of action of a paracrine signal and give an example.

A

Can reach nearby cells by diffuse e.g. a morphogen

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18
Q

Which branch of the aorta supplies the upper left limbs with oxygenated blood?

A

The left subclavian artery.

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19
Q

List the stages of the chain of infection.

A
  • infectious agent
  • reservoirs
  • portal of exit
  • means of transmission
  • portal of entry
  • susceptible host
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20
Q

What are the features of class I shock?

A 
Blood loss: up to 750ml
Total % blood: up to 15%
Pulse rate: <100
Blood pressure: normal
Resp. Rate: 14-20
Urine output: >30ml/hour
Mental status: normal
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21
Q

What are the features of class II shock?

A 
Blood loss: 750-1500ml
Total % blood: 15-30
Pulse rate: >100
Blood pressure: normal 
Resp. Rate: 20-30
Urine output: 20-30ml/hour
Mental status: mild anxiety
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22
Q

What are the features of class III shock?

A 
Blood loss: 1500-2000ml
Total % blood: 30-40%
Pulse rate: >120
Blood pressure: decreased
Resp. Rate: 30-40
Urine output: 5-15ml/hour
Mental status: anxious
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23
Q

What are the features of class IV shock?

A 
Blood loss: >2000ml
Total % blood: >40
Pulse rate:  >140
Blood pressure: decreased
Resp. Rate: >40
Urine output: negligible 
Mental status: confused
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24
Q

Which compound is a calcium chelator?

A

Sodium citrate

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25
Q

Which stain is routinely used to stain blood films?

A

Giemsa (basic methylene blue and acidic eosin)

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26
Q

List some classifications of hormones by chemical structure.

A

Amino acids derivatives:
- modified amino acids e.g. adrenaline
- peptide hormones e.g. oxytocin
- protein hormones e.g. insulin, growth hormone
Steroid hormones:
- derived from cholesterol e.g. testosterone, cortisol
Eicosanoids:
- derived from lipids e.g. prostaglandins

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27
Q

What type/s of hypersensitivity are antibody mediated?

A

I, II and III

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28
Q

What type/s of hypersensitivity are T cell mediated?

A

IV

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29
Q

What are the 3 cell types of cell surface receptors? Give examples.

A
  1. Ion channel linked - used by glutamate neurotransmitter
  2. G-protein-linked (GPCR) - used by adrenaline, serotonin
  3. Enzyme-linked - key subtype is receptor tyrosine kinases - used by many growth factors
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30
Q

What is the mode of action for Warfarin?

A

Vitamin K antagonist

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31
Q

Divide the process of haemostasis into three phases.

A

1 - vasoconstriction
2 - platelet plug formation
3 - coagulation

32
Q

What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Primary: bone marrow and thymus
Secondary: lymph nodes (tonsils and adenoids) and spleen

33
Q

What pathogen causes Yellow fever?

A

Virus from Flavivirus genus (spread by mosquitos)

34
Q

Describe cranial nerves I - VI

A 
I - Olfactory - smell
II - Optic - vision
III - Oculomotor - eye movements
IV - Trochlear - eye movements
V - Trigeminal - motor to muscles of mastication and general sensory to the face
VI - Abducens - eye movements
35
Q

Describe cranial nerves VII - XII

A

VII - Facial - muscles of facial expression
VIII - Vestibulocochlear - hearing and balance
IX - Glossopharyngeal - swelling and taste
X - Vagus - wandering nerve supplying heart, lungs, gut (parasympathetic system)
XI - Spinal accessory - neck muscles
XII - hypoglossal - muscles of the tongue

36
Q

What does the brachial plexus innervate and where does it arise from?

A
  • innervates the upper limb

- typically arises from C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

37
Q

Which pathogen would be common in a UTI?

A

Escherichia coli

38
Q

What is the most superficial layer of intrinsic back muscles?

A

The splenius muscles

39
Q

Describe the splenius muscles.

A
  • thick and flat
  • splenius capitis superior to splenius cervicis
  • cover and hold deep neck muscles in position
40
Q

Which amino acid is coded for by codon AUG?

A

Methionine

41
Q

In which layer of the epidermis would you find melanocytes?

A

Stratum basale.

42
Q

Using the Manchester triage system, how long should a patient classed as ‘green’ have to wait?

A

A maximum of 2 hours.

43
Q

What are the insertion points for the longissimus portion of the erector spinae column of the back?

A
  • lower ribs
  • transverse processes of C2-T12
  • mastoid process of the skull
44
Q

How does neisseria meningitidis present after gram staining?

A

As pink cocci because gram -ve and spherical.

45
Q

In what type of cell is vitamin D synthesis initiated?

A

Keratinocytes

46
Q

Which extra embryonic membrane forms the foetal component of the placenta?

A

The chorion:

  • a double layered membrane formed by the trophoblast and the extra embryonic membranes
  • lines chorionic cavity which is found in early pregnancy but disappears with expansion of amniotic cavity
47
Q

What type of receptor presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?

A

MHC 1 (also known in humans as HLA A, B and C)

48
Q

Describe the neurons of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

A

Sympathetic - short pre ganglionic and long post ganglionic

Parasympathetic - long pre ganglionic and short post ganglionic

49
Q

What are hemidesmosomes composed of?

A

Integrins.

50
Q

Which type of post translational modification alters the activity of the protein?

A

Phosphorylation

51
Q

Which drug targets VEGF?

A

Avastin (bevacizumab)

52
Q

Where is fibrinogen produced?

A

Liver

53
Q

What is the partial pressure of CO2 in the pulmonary vein?

A

40

54
Q

List the different types of shock.

A
  • cardiogenic
  • hypovolaemic
  • septic
  • neurogenic
  • anaphylactic
  • obstructive
55
Q

Which type of shock involves fluid redistribution due to leaking capillaries and vasodilation?

A

Septic shock

56
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A large, flat tendon that anchors muscle

57
Q

Which keratohyalin granule is involved in the formation of a cell envelope around the cells in the stratum corneum?

A

Involucrin

58
Q

What are the origins of the latissimus dorsi?

A
  • spinous processes T7-T12
  • thoracolumbar aponeurosis
  • dorsal surface of sacrum
  • dorsal 1/3 of iliac crest
  • 10-12th ribs
  • inferior angle of the scapula (variable)
59
Q

Where is the insertion of the latissimus dorsi?

A

On the humerus at the floor of the intertubercular sulcus

60
Q

Name the sterile sites of the body.

A
  • blood, tissues and organ systems
  • CNS
  • lower respiratory tract
  • sinuses, inner and middle ear
  • renal system down to posterior urethra
  • female reproductive tract down to cervix
  • eye (except exposed conjunctivae)
61
Q

Describe the allantois (extra embryonic membrane)

A
  • forms as an outgrowth of yolk sac
  • contributes to umbilical arteries
  • connects to foetal bladder
  • acts as a urine reservoir in non-human mammals
62
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found and what is their function?

A

Small intestine, they are secondary lymphoid organs

63
Q

What are the layers of the GI tract from the lumen outwards?

A
  • epithelium
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis proprietor/externa
  • adventitia/serosa
64
Q

List some features of cardiac muscle.

A
  • involuntary
  • one or two centrally located nuclei per cell
  • striated
  • intercalated discs
  • branching
65
Q

How is the skin involved in physiological regulation?

A
  • maintains body temperature via sweat and hair
  • changes in peripheral circulation
  • minor role in fluid balance (sweat)
  • synthesis of vitamin D
66
Q

What is the TNM system?

A

Tumour
Nodes
Metastases

67
Q

Which digestive enzymes released by the pancreas are released in their active form?

A
  • amylase
  • lipase
  • deoxyribonuclease
  • ribonuclease
68
Q

What type of collagen is produced in the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A

III

69
Q

What activates factor XIII to become XIIIa in the clotting cascade?

A

Thrombin

70
Q

What technique is used to measure HER2 on cell membranes?

A

Immunohistochemistry

71
Q

How do aminoglyoside antibiotics target bacteria?

A

They target the bacterial ribosome therefore look to impede/inhibit protein synthesis.

72
Q

Which bacteria causes whooping cause and how does it stain?

A

Bordetella pertussis - gram negative coccobacillus

73
Q

Briefly describe the role of the complement cascade in the innate immune response.

A
  • inflammation
  • opsonisation
  • kills pathogens directly
74
Q

What is the main cell type in articular cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

75
Q

What percentage of a tendon is composed of cells?

A

Approx 20% (fibroblasts/tenocytes)

76
Q

Where does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the cranial cavity?

A

Through the superior orbital fissure

77
Q

How many distinct synovial joints are there in the atlantoaxial joint?

A
  • joints between C1 and C2
  • 3 synovial joints
  • 2 at articular facets
  • 1 at odontoid peg and anterior surface of C2 foramen

Summative Revision (4 decks)

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