Rahul's Differentials Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ‘non-sinister’ differentials of a headache?

A
  1. Tension-type headache (stress related)
  2. Migraine (really common actually)
  3. Sinusitis
  4. Medication overuse headache - for those on migraine meds and/or analgesia
  5. Temporomandibular joint dysfunciton syndrome
  6. Trigeminal neuralgia
  7. Cluster headache
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2
Q

What are the signs of Horner’s?

A

Partial ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis
Enophthalmos

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3
Q

What are the differentials for a large pupil?

A

Cranial nerve 3 palsy
Holmes-Adie Syndrome
Trauma
Drugs (tropicamide, atropine, cocaine, ecstasy)

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4
Q

What are the differentials for a small pupil?

A
Horner's syndrome
Argyll-Robertson syndrome 
Age-related miosis
Drugs (opiates) 
Anisocoria (different sized pupils)
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5
Q

List the causes of Horner’s syndrome

A
CENTRAL: 
Stroke
Syringomyelia
Multiple sclerosis
Tumour
Infection 
PREGANGLIONIC LESION:
Pancoast tumour
Thyroidectomy
Trauma 
Cervical Rib 
POSTGANGLIONIC LESION:  
Carotid artery dissection 
Carotid aneurysm 
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Cluster headache
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6
Q

State where the lesion is for MONOCULAR BLINDNESS

A

Before the nerve

Ipsilateral optic nerve lesion

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7
Q

State where the lesion is for HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA

A

Contralateral optic radiation

Contralateral occipital lobe

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8
Q

State where the lesion is for BITEMPORAL HEMIANOPIA

A

Optic chiasm

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9
Q

State where the lesion is for LEFT/RIGHT SUPERIOR QUADRANTANOPIA?

A

Contralateral temporal optic radiation

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10
Q

State where the lesion is for LEFT/RIGHT INFERIOR QUADRANTANOPIA?

A

Contralateral parietal optic radiation

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11
Q

State where is the lesion for HOMONYMOUS HEMIANOPIA WITH MACULAR SPARING

A

Contralateral occipital lobe infarct due to posterior cerebral artery infarct

The middle cerebral artery supplies the occipital pole

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12
Q

State what is responsible for Arcuate Scotoma?

A

Glaucoma

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13
Q

State what is responsible for Central Scotoma?

A

Macular Degeneration

Macular oedema

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14
Q

What are the differentials for HAEMATEMESIS

A
Oesophagitis/Gastritis/Duodenitis
Bleeding peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal) 
Oesophageal varices
Mallory-Weiss tear
Oesophageal cancer
Gastric cancer
Arteriovenous malformations 
Bleeding diathesis
Trauma to oesophagus or stomach 
Scleroderma
Hereditary heamorrhagic telangiectasis
Aorto-enteric fistula (related to an aortic graft)
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15
Q

What does HAEMATEMESIS indicate?

A

It is an upper GI bleed

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16
Q

First ix for Haematemesis?

A

OGD

Follow by possible erect Chest X-ray: check if the peptic ulcer has perforated resulting in pleural effusion

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17
Q

What is Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

A tear of the distal postero-lateral part of the oesophagus

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18
Q

What are the two types of blood produced during HAEMATEMESIS

A

Fresh blood suggestive of an upper GI bleed

Coffee Ground blood seen due to partial digestion by stomach acids

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19
Q

What are the two types of blood found in stool?

A

Tarry black stool - Malaena which is due to an upper GI hemorrhage

Haematochezia - Fresh blood in the stool suggestive of a lower GI haemorrhage (however, it could also be from an upper GI bleed)

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20
Q

What is a Mallory-Weiss tear?

A

It is a laceration of the mucosa at the junction between the stomach and the esophagus

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21
Q

What are EASY BRUISING, DISTENDED ABDOMEN, PUFFY ANKLES and LETHARGY suggestive of?

A

Liver failure

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22
Q

What does episodic dyspepsia suggest (indigestion)

A

GORD - Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

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23
Q

Note: Jaundice is itchy so the patient may have scratch marks

A

Note: More than 4 spider naevi indicates liver disease.

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24
Q

What is macrocytic anemia and what is it suggestive of?

A

A high MCV but low hemoglobin

Seen in those who consume ALCOHOL, or have VITAMIN B12 or FOLATE DEFICIENCIES

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25
Q

List causes of low albumin

A

Liver failure
Malnutrition (just not getting enough protein in the diet)
Renal nephrotic syndrome

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26
Q

What causes raised ALT, AST

A

Damage to hepatocytes seen in alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis

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27
Q

What does raised urea in the presence of a normal creatinine suggest?

A

Pre-renal uraemia - Increased urea due to increased protein ingestion due to blood in the GI tract

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28
Q

What is the treatment for a bleeding oesophageal varix?

A
  1. Endoscopic band ligation
  2. Endoscopic sclerotherapy
  3. Balloon tamponade
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29
Q

What does a PPI do for a bleeding peptic ulcer?

A

Reduce chances of rebleeding

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30
Q

Treatment for H. pylori?

A

Triple therapy -

PPI and a combination of two antibiotics

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31
Q

Doxasosin

A

Anti emetic

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32
Q

Difficulty swallowing could mean?

A

DYSPHAGIA - true difficulty swallowing could be HIGH DYSPHAGIA or LOW DYSPHAGIA which is felt a few seconds after swallowing

ODYNOPHAGIA - Painful swallowing due to malignancy or infection e.g Candidiasis

GLOBUS - Lump in the throat

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33
Q

Ways to divide DYSPHAGIA

A

High Dysphagia

Low Dysphagia

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34
Q

DDx of High Dysphagia

A
Stroke
Parkinson's disease 
Myasthenia Gravis
Multiple sclerosis
Myotonic dystrophy 
MND 
Cancer 
Pharyngeal pouch
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35
Q

DDx of Low Dysphagia

A

ACHALSIA
Foreign body
Cancer
Stricture

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36
Q

What is ACHALISA

A

The lower oesophageal sphincter does not open leading to the backing up of food

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37
Q

What questions would you ask to a patient who presented with difficulty swallowing?

A
  1. How long have these symptoms being going on for - a stuck food bolus will present immediately, a cancer over days - weeks, a motility issue - months to years
  2. Does the painful swallowing come and go? - Persistent/progressive: CANCER
    INTERMITTENT: STRICTURE
  3. Can you swallow solids…fluids…or both…what about saliva?
    Difficulty with solids then fluids –> STRICTURE
    Difficulty with fluids > solids –> MOTILITY ISSUE
    Absolute dysphagia likely due to poorly chewed food bolus
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38
Q

What would someone with CREST syndrome suffer with?

A

CALCINOSIS
RAYNAUD’s
ESOPHAGEAL DYSMOTILITY
Sclerodactyly - Build up of fibrous tissue in the fingers which causes them to bend

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39
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma (the less common type is SQUAMOUS CELL)

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40
Q

Velvety epithelium in the esophagus can suggest?

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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41
Q

What are the RF for Oesophageal cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma:
BARRETT’S OESOPHAGUS

Squamous cell carcinoma:
Alcohol
Smoking
Dietary nitrosamines
Aflatoxins
Achalsia
Plummer-Visons syndrome
Hereditary tylosis
Coeliac disease
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42
Q

DIAGNOSE: Dysphagia, Hoarseness, Bovine cough

A

Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve
1. Infiltration of the nerve by primary malignancy of the oesophagus or a mediastinal malignancy that then compresses the oesophagus causing dysphagia

  1. ORTNER’s syndrome - Compression of recurrent laryngeal nerve by left atrium
    MS –> Hypertrophy of left atrium
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43
Q

What questions do you need to ask in a cough history?

A
  1. How long has this been going on for (Acute or chronic)
  2. Is the cough CONSTANTLY THERE or DOES IT COME AND GO?
  3. Are you coughing anything up?
  4. Any blood while you’re coughing
  5. What time does the cough usually come? When is it worst?
  6. Can you describe the cough to me? Wheezy, bovine/breathy, dry, gurgling/wet?
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44
Q

What environmental factors would you ask about for someone with a cough?

A

Smoking
Occupation
Pets
Change of house/office

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45
Q

NOTE: TB is often linked with foreign travel to South Asia, Central Asia or sub-Saharan Africa. IF YOU SUSPECT TB YOU MUST ASK ABOUT CLOSE CONTACTS WHO ARE ALSO COUGHING

A

Note: Neutrophillia is associated with bacterial infection

Urea is an indicator of severity in pneumonia

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46
Q

What are the features of a pneumothorax on examination?

A
  1. Decreased chest expansion UNILATERALLY
  2. Increased resonance over area of pathology
  3. Decreased breath sounds
  4. Decreased vocal fremitus
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47
Q

What does blood-streaked sputum suggest?

A

INFECTION OR BRONCHIECTASIS

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48
Q

What does pink and frothy sputum suggest?

A

PULMONARY OEDEMA

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49
Q

What does frank haemoptysis suggest?

A

TB
Lung Cancer
PE
Bronchiectasis (also blood streaked sputum)

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50
Q

Cough worse at night and better in the mornings is indicative of?

A

Asthma

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51
Q

Cough worse at night especially lying down is indicative of?

A

GORD or Pulmonary Oedema

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52
Q
List the likely causes of the following coughs:
Wheezy cough
Bovine/Breathy cough
Dry cough 
Gurgling/wet cough
Whooping cough
A
COPD or Asthma
Vocal cord paralysis
Bronchitis, Interstitial lung disease
Bronchiectasis
Pertussis
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53
Q

List the DDx of DRY AND ACUTE COUGH

A
Asthma
Rhinitis/Sinusitis with post-nasal drip
Upper respiratory tract infection 
Drug induced e.g. ACE inhibitors
Smoke/toxin inhalation
Inhaled foreign body 
Lung cancer 
Pulmonary oedema
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54
Q

List the DDx of PRODUCTIVE AND ACUTE COUGH

A

Lower Respiratory Tract Infection
COPD
TB

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55
Q

List the DDx of DRY AND CHRONIC COUGH

A
Asthma
GORD
Post-nasal drip 
Smoking
Lung cancer
Drug induced
COPD
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56
Q

List the DDx of PRODUCTIVE AND CHRONIC COUGH

A

Bronchiectasis
TB
Lung cancer
Recurrent aspiration

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57
Q

What does Cough + Tender cervical lymphadenopathy suggest?

A

Upper Respiratory Tract infection

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58
Q

What happens to vocal fremitus when there is consolidation and when there is effusion

A

It increases in CONSOLIDATION

In decraeses in effusion

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59
Q

List the signs of right heart failure

A
Peripheral oedema
Raised JVP 
Parasternal heave
Loud or palpable heart sound
Tricuspid regurgitation
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60
Q

What are the two complications of pneumonia?

A
  1. Spread of infection resulting in PLEURAL EFFUSION, EMPYSEMA, ABSCESS, SEPTICAEMIA
  2. Damage to local structures in BRONCHIECTASIS, PNEUMOTHORAX
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61
Q

List two obstructive airway diseases

A

Asthma

COPD

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62
Q

What does FEV1 stand for

A

Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second

Volume of air that can be forcibly blown out after a full inspiration

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63
Q

What does FVC stand for

A

Forced Vital Capacity

Volume of air that can be blown out after full inspiration

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64
Q

What features suggest asthma

A
Wheeze
Breathlessness
Chest tightness
Cough worse at night/early morning
Cough triggered by exercise, allergen, exposure, cold air on or after taking aspirin or beta-blocker
History of atopic disorder
Family history of asthma and/or atopy
Wheeze on auscultation
Low FEV1, PEF, or serum eosinophilia
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65
Q

What are the 3 things that haemoptysis can be confused with?

A
  1. Haematemesis
  2. Epistaxis (especially after a posterior nosebleed)
  3. Bleeding gums
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66
Q

List the DDx of Haemoptysis

A
V - PE, Left Ventricular Failure, Bleeding Diathesis
I - TB, Pneumonia, Lung abscess
T - Iatrogenic, rib fracture, stab
A - N/A
M - N/A
I - Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, SLE, Goodpasture's syndrome, 
N - Primary/Metastatic Lung cancer
C - N/A
D - Bronciectasis
E - N/A
F  - N/A

Drugs: Warfarin, Crack Cocaine

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67
Q

What is a Bleeding Diathesis?

A

Bleeding tendency e.g coagulopathy, severe thrombocytopenia

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68
Q

What does a mass lesion/nodules on an X-ray indicate?

A

Carcinoma, TB, Abscess,

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69
Q

What does Hilar Lymphadenopathy on an X-ray indicate?

A

Sarcoidosis, Infection (TB), Malignancy (Hodgkin’s Lymphona, Carconoma)

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70
Q

How do you confirm lung cancer in a patient?

A

A pathological sample is required for confirmation

CT-guided percutaneous fine needle biopsy is required if peripheral or BRONCOSCOPY

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71
Q

Where are you most likely to find TB (Mycobacterium Tuberculosis) in the lungs?

A

The upper lobes becauses Mycobacterium tuberculosis is highly aerobic and the apices are the most oxygenated parts of the lungs.

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72
Q

What are the two types of Pleural effusions and what is the difference?

A

Transudate - <25 g/L of protein in the fluid

Exudate - >35 g/L of protein in the fluid

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73
Q

Causes of Transudative pleural effusions and Exudative pleural effusions

A

Transudate: Heart failure, fluid overload, constrictive pericarditis, liver failure (decrease protein production), malabsorption, nephrotic syndrome

Exudative: Pathogens, Inflammatory cells, Malignant cells in the pleural space.

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74
Q

What are the different types of Malignant Primary lung neoplasms?

A
1. Non-small cell  lung cancer (80%):
ADENOCARCINOMA (30-40%)
SQUAMOUS CELL (20-30%) - most common to cause haemoptysis and secrete PTHrP
LARGE CELL CARCINOMA  (10%)
Other (5%)
  1. Small cell lung cancer (20%) can secrete ADH (causing HYPONATRAEMIA) or ACTH
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75
Q

What are the common primary tumours that lead to lung cancer mets?

A
  1. Colorectal
  2. Breast.
  3. Renal
  4. Cervix, Ovary
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76
Q

List the extra-pulmonary manifestations of lung cancer

A
  1. Bone mets –> Bony pains
  2. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteroarthropathy (HPOA)
  3. Ectopic ACTH –> Cushingoid syndrome (muscle weakness, oedema, skin hyperpigmentation)
  4. Hypercalcaemia - confusion, polyuria, polydipsia, hypotonoia, hyporeflexia, muscle weakness
  5. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
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77
Q

DDx of a coin lesion

A
Parenchymal tymor - benign, primary lung cancer, secondary lung cancer
Lymph node: Lymphoma
Granuloma: TB, Sarcoid
Abscess
Hamartoma
Foreign object
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78
Q

List the DDx of Chest Pain

A
Musculoskeletal pain
Acute Coronary Syndrome (MI or unstable  angina)
Pulmonary Embolism 
Stable Angina
Pneumothorax
Pleurisy (2ndary to infection)
Oesophagitis
Cocaine induced coronary spasm 
Anxiety
Peptic ulcer disease or gastritis
Myopericarditis
Cholecysititis
Acute pancreatitis
Thoracic aortic dissection 
Thoracic aortic aneurysm 
Coronary vasospasm 
Oesophageal spasm 
Boerhaave's perforation of the oesophagus
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79
Q

What other conditions could cause a raised Troponin

A

Any condition which causes cardiac damage
Coronary artery spasm
Aortic dissection
Myopericarditis
Severe heart failure
Cardiac trauma from surgery or road traffic accident
PE

Troponin may also be misleading in someone with renal failure.

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80
Q

What are the Ix for Chest Pain

A
ECG
Bloods:
Troponin
Serum cholesterol
FBC
U&amp;Es - Potassium could hint at arrhythmias
Inflammatory markers - WCC and CRP
Capillary glucose
Amylase

Imaging: CXR

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81
Q

What is the interesting relationship between diabetics and MIs?

A

Diabetics are more likely to suffer from ‘silent MI’s’ those without chest pain

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82
Q

What would an aortic aneurysm or dissection show on a CXR?

A

A widened mediastinum

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83
Q

Note: Remember in the end diagnosis of MI depends on elevated troponin or rapidly rising troponin.

A

Chest pain is not always a feature in the elderly or long-standing diabetics. ECG readings are also non-diagnostic.

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84
Q

What are the drugs used to treat Acute Coronary Syndrome (think of the acronym)?

A

MONABASH
Morphine/Metoclopramide (anti-emetic)
Oxygen (to keep saturation above 94%)
Nitrates (GTN, isosorbide mononitrate infusion)
Antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel, prsugrel)
Beta-blockers (not for those with heart block, asthma, acute heart failure)
ACE-inhibitors
Statins
Heparin

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85
Q

What are the secondary things to do for patients with ischaemic heart disease?

A

Lifestyle changes - Smoking cessation, low-salt diet, exercise, weight loss, cardiac rehabilitation programmes
Risk factor control with medication -
BP control: ACEi < 55 and white
CCB or Thiazide diuretics if >55 and Afro-Carribean
Cholesterol reduction: Statins otherwise fibrates
Diabetic control
Low-dose aspirin for life and ADP receptor inhibitor

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86
Q

What are the common complications of MI? (DARTH VADER)

A
Death 
Arrhythmia
Rupture (septum or the outer walls) 
Tamponade
Heart Failure 
Valve disease
Aneurysm 
Dressler's syndrome (autoimmune pericarditis is 2-10 weeks after MI;  simple pericarditis is 2-4 days)
Embolism 
Reinfarction
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87
Q

NOTE: ACS typically respond to GTN spray

A

NOTE: Pericarditis will show ST elevation in almost all leads as well as slight PR segment depression.

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88
Q

What pathology can Marfan’s predispose you to?

A

Dissected thoracic aorta
Dissected aortic aneurysm
Pneumothorax (because they are often tall and thin)

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89
Q

What would you hear on auscultation if a patient had pulmonary oedema?

A

Bi-basal crackles

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90
Q

Why do some patients with MI get nause and vomitting and other do not?

A

Due to the BEZOLD-JARISCH REFLEX

An inferior MI will irritate the diaphragm and a result cause vomitting.

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91
Q

How would a posterior MI look like on an ECG?

A

ST depression in V1, V2, V3 with tall R waves
Look for dominant R waves in V1
Inferior lead ST elevation in infarction

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92
Q

Name the first investigation for a patient with query new onset angina

A

Exercise tolerance test

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93
Q

What would you expect to see in an ECG of a patient who had a previous MI?

A

Abnormal Q waves - > 2mm deep

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94
Q

What are the changes seen over 7 days in a patient who has a STEMI?

A
  1. Tented t waves
  2. ST elevation in the affected leads, with ST depression in the reciprocal leads 24-48 hours after
  3. T wave inversion, 1-2 days after MI and persisting for weeks or months unless MI is treated
  4. Abnormal Q waves.
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95
Q

What does LOW WELLS SCORE + LOW D-Dimer indicate?

A

Low chance of a PE

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96
Q

What are the 3P’s of Pleuritic chest pain

A

PE
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax

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97
Q

How would you describe Pleuritic chest pain

A

A sharp, stabbing, burning chest pain which is worse on inhaling or laughing

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98
Q

What are carotid bruits a sign of?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

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99
Q

List the causes of SOB

A

SOB can be due either to not enough oxygen getting around the body or increased respiratory drive.

  1. Insufficient oxygen getting into the lungs
    - Obstructed airways
    - Dcreased lung volume
    - Decrease volume of functional lung
    - Inability to inflate the lungs
  2. Insufficient oxygen into the blood
    - Damage to alveoli
    - Fluid between the alveoli and capillary
    - Disrupted blood supply
  3. Insufficeint O2 around the body
    - Reduced cardiac output
    - Anaemia
    - Shock (blood pressure <90/60 mmHg)
  4. Increased respiratory drive
    - Hysterical hyperventilation
    - Acidaemia
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100
Q

What kind of cough would you expect with asthma?

A

A dry cough

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101
Q

What kind of cough would you expect with pneumonia

A

A persistent, productive cough

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102
Q

What are the DDx of SOB with onset of seconds-minutes

A
Bronchospasm (due to acute asthma or COPD)
Anaphylaxis
Laryngeal oedema
PE
Pneumothorax
Flash pulmonary oedema
Hysterical hyperventilation
Inhaled foreign body
Tension pneumothorax
Acute epiglottitis/supraglottitis
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103
Q

What are the DDx of SOB with onset hours to days?

A
Pneumonia
Heart Failure
Pleural effusion
Post-op atelectassis
Chronic pulmonary emboli 
Altitude sickness
Guillian-Barre syndrome
Myasthenia Gravis
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Lung Collapse
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104
Q

What are the DDx of SOB with onset weeks to months?

A
COPD
Chronic asthma
Heart failure
Pulmonary fibrosis
Anaemia
Bronchiectasis
Physical deconditioning
Obesity
Pulmonary hypertension
Mesothelioma
Pulmonary tuberculosis
Kyphoscoliosis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Motor neuron disease
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105
Q

In a CXR what 3 things do you want to ensure? Other than patient’s details and PA

A

Good penetration - not too white not too dark
Adequte inspiration - So things don’t look too hazy
Not rotated - Spinous processes equidistant to medial ends of the clavicle

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106
Q

List the features of RHF

A

Raised JVP

Peripheral oedema

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107
Q

List the features of LHF

A

Bibasal cracles - suggestive of pulmonary oedema
Displaced apex beat
CXR showing bilateral pulmonary oedema

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108
Q

List the post-operative causes of breathlessness

A
Atelectasis (alveolar collapse): 
Pneumonia
Pulmonary oedema
PE (classically DVTs occur 10 days after)
Anaemia
Pneumothorax
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109
Q

What is the treatment for Atelectasis?

A

Physiotherapy
Oxygen
Analgesia

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110
Q

Questions to ask in family history of suspected asthma patient?

A
Family history of
Eczema
Hayfever
Nasal Polyps
Allergies
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111
Q

What are the three pillars of asthma management?

A
  1. Avoid the triggers - smoke, allergens, exercise in cold air
  2. Bronchodilate (open those airways!) - b2 agonists/phosphodiesterase inhibitors/antimuscarinics
  3. Reduce immune response in lungs - inhaled/oral corticosteroids
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112
Q

What pneumonia is common in immunosuppresed patients?

A

Pneumonia caused by the opportunistic organism: Pneumocystis jiroveci common in those with AIDS
Diagnosed by performing microscopy + silver staining and culture on sputum and bronchoalveolar lavage samples.

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113
Q

What kind of inhaler is the blue inhaler?

A

Salbutamol

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114
Q

What kind of inhaler is the green-white?

A

Ipratropium

Antagonises muscarinic receptors preventing PNS smooth muscle contraction

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115
Q

The common side effects of ACEi?

A

Cough

Issues related to kidney damage

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116
Q

What are the DDx of Breast Lump

A
Carcinoma
Benign cystic change
Fibroadenoma
Cyst
Breast abscess
Fat necrosis
Periductal mastitis
Galactocele
Phyllodes tumour
Sarcoma
Duct papilloma
Lipoma
Sebaceous cyst
Prominent costal cartillage/rib
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117
Q

How does age affect the DDx of Breast Lump

A

<30: Physiologically normal, benign cystic change, fibroadenoma, Abscess, Galactocele

30-45: Benign cystic change, cyst, abscess, carcinoma

45-60: Cyst, abscess, carcinoma

> 60: Carcinoma

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118
Q

What antibiotic could be used in cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

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119
Q

What are the RF for breast cancer?

A
Previous history of breast cancer
Family history of breast  cancer
History of ovarian, endometrial or bowel cancer
Radiation to the chest wall 
Menarche before 13
Menopause after 51
No kids (nulliparity)
Having  a first child after the age of 30 
Not breast-feeding
HRT
Use of the oral contraceptive  pill
Obesity
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120
Q
What are the follow discharges from the nipples indicative of?
Blood
Serous
Green,  brown, yellow discharge
Milky discharge
A

Blood - Carcinoma
Serous - Intraductal papilloma
Green, brown, yellow - Periductal mastitis
Milky - Galactocele

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121
Q

NOTE: Breast cancer does not often come with the constitutional symptoms/FLAWS symptoms. However, it may present with mets in the form of…?

A

Back pain

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122
Q

What are the key features to look for in a breast examination?

A

Asymmetry
Contours
Skin changes
Nipple discharge or changes

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123
Q

What is the approach for investigating solid lumps in the breast clinic?

A

Breast lumps should undergo triple assessment:

  1. Clinical examination
  2. Radiological examinatio
    a) USS if <35 years old
    b) Mammogram w or w/out USS if >35 years old
  3. FNA or core biopsy

FNA - type of cells (dysplastic or not)
Core biopsy - invasion of local structures

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124
Q

Where is breast cancer likely to metastasize to and how should imagine be done accordinlty?

A

Liver - CT abdomen, MRI abdomen, contrast-enhanced USS
Bone - Axial skeleton via bone scintigraphy or CT or MRI
Long bone imaging via bone scintigraphy or plain radiographs
Chest - CT
Brain - CT

Some hospitals recommend CT with/out PET

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125
Q

What does HYPERECHOIC on an USS mean?

A

The structure appears BRIGHTER

Seen in solid masses

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126
Q

What does HYPOECHOIC on an USS mean?

A

The structure appears DARKER

Seen in fluid-filled cysts

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127
Q

How does breast cancer present in a man?

A

Unilateral, non-tender, irregular surface, indistinct margins and hard consistency

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128
Q

What are the causes of Gyanaecomastia?

A
Liver disease
Drugs (cimetidine, spironolactone, phenothiazines, finasteride,  anabolic steroids)
Primary testicular failure
Acquired testicular failure
Secondary testicular failure
Endocrine tumours
Non-endocrine tumours
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129
Q

What determines prognosis of breast cancer?

A
Tumour stage
Tumour grade
Hormone receptor status 
Tumour type
Patient age
Treatment type
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130
Q

What are the risks of lymph node clearance?

A

Lymphoedema
Long thoracic nerve injury
Axillary vein thrombosis

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131
Q

What is PRCB score

A

P - Physical examination
R - Radiological examination
C - Cytology (FNA)
B - Biopsy (core biopsy)

Score: 
1 - Normal for P/R;  Inadequate for C
2 - Benign
3 - Probably benign
4 - Probably malignant
5 - Malignant
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132
Q

What are the DDx of ACUTE Epigastric pain

A
Acute pancreatitis
Perforated peptic ulcer
Gastritis/Duodenitis
Peptic ulcer disease (gastri or duodenal)
Biliary colic
Acute cholecystitis
Ascending cholangitis
Myocardial infarction 
Ruptured Abdominal Aneurysm
Mesenteric ischaemia
Basal pneumonia
Oesophagitis (due to GORD)
Non-ulcer dyspepsia
Chronic pancreatitis
Incomplete bowel obstruction
Boerhaave's perforation
Gastric Cancer
Pancreatitc cancer 
Acute hepatitis
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133
Q

Make a SOCRATES cheat list for the presentation of acute pancreatitis

A
Site: Epigastrium (could be elsewhere)
Onset: 10-20 minutes 
Character: Deep/boring pain 
Radiation: To the back 
Attenuating factors: Sitting forwards
Severity: Very severe

Note: Sitting forward is better for those with pancreatitis and Neutrophilia is a strong indicator of pancreatitis

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134
Q

Pain that starts in epigastrium –> rest of abdomen

A

Peritonitis

Perforated gastric ulcer

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135
Q

Pain that starts in epigastrium and moves up to chest

A

Likely cardiac in origin

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136
Q

Pain that stays in the epigastric region?

A

Likely biliary in origin

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137
Q

DDx sudden onset epigastric pain?

A

Perforation

MI

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138
Q

DDx of epigastric pain that takes 10-20 minutes to come on?

A

Acute pancreatitis

Biliary colic

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139
Q

DDx of a epigastric pain that takes hours to come on?

A

Inflammation that is either acute cholecystitis or pneumonia

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140
Q

DDx of epigastric pain that is crushing/tightnes?

A

Cardiac

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141
Q

DDx of sharp/burning epigastric pain?

A

Peptic ulcer
Gastritis
Duodenitis

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142
Q

DDx of deep/boring epigastric pain?

A

Pancreatitis

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143
Q

DDx of epigastric pain that radiates to the back?

A

Pancreatitis
Leaking AAA
Possibly peptic ulcer

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144
Q

DDx of epigastric pain that goes to the shoulder?

A

Basal pneumonia

Subphrenic abscess

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145
Q

DDx of epigastric pain that radiates to the jaw, neck or shoulder?

A

Cardiac

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146
Q

DDx of retrosternal chest pain?

A

Oesophagitis

MI

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147
Q

What makes acute pancreatitis better?

A

Sitting forward

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148
Q

What is the surgical dogma on what makes peptic ulcers/duodenal ulcers better or worse?

A

Peptic ulcers are WORSE on eating

Duodenal ulcers are BETTER on eating

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149
Q

DDx of constant epigastric pain?

A

Biliary colic

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150
Q

DDx of pleuritic chest pain?

A

PE
Pneumothorax
Pneumonia

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151
Q

List 4 conditions you want to know in a PMH if a patient has epigastric pain?

A

Biliary disease - Have you ever had gallstones before?Peptic ulcer disease - Have you ever had a peptic ulcer?
GORD - recurrs

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152
Q

Which drugs predispose to Peptic Ulcer disease?

A

NSAIDs
Steroids
Bisphosphonates
Salicylates (aspirin)

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153
Q

Which drugs predispose to acute pancreatitis?

A

Sodium valproate
Steroids
Thiazides
Azathioprine

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154
Q

What are the DDx of Epigastric pain?

A
Acute pancreatitis
Perforated peptic ulcer
Gastritis/Duodentitis
Peptic ulcer disease (gastric or duodenal)
Biliary colic
Acute cholecystitis - inflammation of  the gall bladder
Ascending cholagnitis - Inflammation of the bile duct
Myocardial infarction
Ruptural abdominal  aortic aneurysm
Mesenteric ischaemia
Basal pneumonia
Oesophagitis (due to GORD)
Non-ulcer dyspepsia 
Chronic pancreatitis
Imcomplete bowel obstruction
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155
Q

Causes of Jaundice

A

Ascending cholangitis
Gallstone-induced acute pancreatitis
Acute hepatitis

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156
Q

List the Ix for an acute epigastric presentation

A
History
Examination
FBC
CRP 
Amylase or lipase
Liver enzymes
Albumin 
U&amp;Es
Calcium  
Glucose
ABG
Troponin
USS
ECG
CXR
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157
Q

What does a raised AST and ALT indicate?

A

Damage within the liver to hepatocytes

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158
Q

What does a raised ALP, GGT, Bilirubin indicate?

A

Damage within the biliary tree or compression of the biliary tree for ex. due to oedema of the pancreas

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159
Q

What does a raised ALP alone indicate?

A

Problems with bone or placenta

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160
Q

What does a raised GGT indicate?

A

Excessive alcohol intake

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161
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

A
I -  Idiopathic
G- Gallstones
E - Ethanol 
T - Trauma
S - Steriods
M - Mumps/HIV/Coxsackie infection
A - Autoimmune
S - Scorpion bites
H - Hyperlipidaemia/Hypercalcaemia/hypothermia
E - ERCP
D - Drugs  (sodium valproate, steroids, thiazides, azathioprines)
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162
Q

Treatment for a patient with pancreatitis

A

I would begin with an ABCDE approach
Airway
Breathing
Circulation

I would then treat the underlying cause e.g Gallstones through laparascopic cholecystectomy

as well as give him IV fluids, Oxygen, Analgesia, Antiemetics, DVT prophylaxis, Low fat diet

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163
Q

Treatment for patient with severe pancreatitis

A

ERCP within 72 hours of onset of pain along with sphincterotomy and then cholecystectomy.

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164
Q

How do you prevent reoccurent in a patient who has alcoholic pancreatitis?

A

Focus on cessation of drinking.

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165
Q

List the RF for peptic ulcer disease

A

Smoking

Alcohol

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166
Q

Management of dyspepsia

A

Lifestyle advice - reduce/eliminate alcohol, caffeine, chocolate, fatty food and smoking, lose weight

Full-dose PPI

Test and treat H.pylori

  • C-urea breath test
  • Anti-Helicobacter blood serology
  • H.pylori positive endoscopic biopsy
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167
Q

How do you treat H. pylori?

A

Triple therapy

PPI + 2 antibiotics
7 day TD PPI with
Metronidazole 400 mg + Clarithromycin 250 mg

Amoxicillin 1 g + Clarithromycin 500 mg

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168
Q

DDx of raised amylase

A
Acute pancreatitis (if >1000 U/L)
Pancreatitic trauma
Pancreatic carcinoma
Perforated peptic ulcer
Acute Appendicitis
Acute Cholecystitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Mesenteric ischaemia
Leaking AAA
Bowel obstruction 
Mesenteric ischaemia
Mumps
Pancreatic carcinoma
Opiate medications
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169
Q

What is the triad of peritonitis?

A

Motionless patient
Tenderness and guarding on abdominal palpation
Absent bowel sounds

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170
Q

Top DDx for pain around the face

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

Giant cell arteritis

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171
Q

What are the ‘red flags’ that would lead to a endoscopy?

A
  1. Persistent vomitting
  2. Chronic GI bleed
  3. Weight Loss
  4. Progressive dysphagia
  5. Iron deficiency anaemia
  6. Epigastric mass
  7. Suspicious barium meal
  8. Age >= 55 with unexplained and persistent recent-onset dyspepsia
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172
Q

List the 5 complications of peptic ulcer?

A
  1. Haemorrhage - Bleeding esp in those on blood thinners
  2. Perforation - manifests as haematemesis/melaena and leads to peritonitis
  3. Penetration - Not to peritoneum but to organ parts of GI tract, food no longer makes it worse, diarrhoea, weight loss
  4. Scarring - Satiety, bloating, vomitting
  5. Malignancy
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173
Q

What are the local complciations of pancreatitis

A
  1. Necorsis of the pancreas - The pancreas is being autodigested and eventually it dies.
  2. Abscess formation
  3. Pseudocysts
  4. Paralytic ileus - lack of movement of bowl
  5. Duodenal stress ulceration
  6. Fistula formation to colon
  7. Obstructive jaundice due to choledocholithiasis or pancreatic oedema
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174
Q

What is Choledocholithiasis

A

Gallstones in the common bile duct

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175
Q

What are the systemic complications of pancreatitis?

A
Sepsis
Shock 
Acute renal failure (due to hypoperfusion)
Respiratory compromise
Disseminated intravascular coagulation 
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia
Pancreatic encepholopathy
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176
Q

DDx of low faecal elastase?

A

Pancreatitis
Crohn’s
Coeliac’s
Short gut syndrome

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177
Q

What is the difference between Cushing’s ulcers and Curling’s ulcers

A

They are both peptic ulcers

Cushing’s ulcers are due to brain injury

Curling’s ulcers are due to burns

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178
Q

DDx of decreased amylase clearance

A

Renal failure
Macroamylasaemia
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Head injury

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179
Q

Which 4 systems can influence the vomitting center in the medulla?

A
  1. CNS
  2. Vestibular system
  3. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
  4. CN IX and CN X
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180
Q

List the DDx of nausea and vomitting due to pathology of the vestibular system

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Labyrinthitis
Motion sickness
Meniere’s disease

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181
Q

List the DDx of nausea and vomitting due to pathology of the chemoreceptor trigger zone

A
Hormones
Electrolytes
Medications
Alcohol
Toxins
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182
Q

List the DDx of nause and vomitting due to pathology of the CNS

A
Pain 
Anxiety
Raised ICP
Meningitis
Encephalitis
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183
Q

List the DDx of nausea and vomitting due to pathology of the Abdominal/Cardiac systems affecting CN IX or CN X

A

GI obstruction
GI infection
Inflammation of diaphragm (as in inferior MI’s)
Inflammation of liver, pancreas, gallbladder, peritoneum

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184
Q

What are the worrying signs of peritonitis?

A

Motionless patient
Tender, rigid abdomen
Absent bowel sounds

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185
Q

What are the worrying signs of bowel obstruction?

A

Bilious (green) or faeculent (foul like) vomit
Distended abdomen
Absolute constipation
Abdominal pain

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186
Q

What are the worrying signs of raised ICP

A

Early morning vomitting
Headache worse when lying down
Nerve VI palsy

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187
Q

What are the worrying signs of meningitis?

A

Stiff neck
Photophobia
Headache

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188
Q

What are the worrying signs of meningitis?

A

Stiff neck
Photophobia
Headache
Reduced consciousness

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189
Q

What are the worrying DDx of haematemesis

A

Bleeding peptic ulcer

Oesophageal varices

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190
Q

What does guarding and rigidity on palpation suggest?

A

Peritonitis

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191
Q

What do absent bowel sounds and tinkling/high pitched tinkling sounds indicate?

A

Absent bowel sounds: Bowel obstruction - ileus (functional)

Tinkling/high pitched: Bowel obstruction - mechanical

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192
Q

What Ix do you need to do in a patient with nausea and vomitting

A

FBC, CRP - infection, inflammation

U&Es - vomiting can cause electrolyte imbalances, need baseline in case of surgery

Venous Blood Gas - pH and lactate give idea of how sick patient is; metabolic acidosis+raised lactate = ill

Liver enzymes -
GGT + ALP = cholestatic picture
AST + ALT = hepatitis

Amylase - confirm/exclude pancreatitis

G&S

Supine abdominal radiograph - bowel obstruction, foreign body, toxic megacolon

Erect chest radiograph - Air under diaphragm to indicate perforation

Pregnancy test

Tox screen

Contrast studies

Abdominal CT

Head CT

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193
Q

In a patient awaiting surgery for small bowel obstruction what is the management plan?

A
  1. Manage patient with an A to E approach
  2. Nil by mouth - reduces the risk of aspiration on induction by anaethesia
  3. Drip and suck: IV fluids + aspiration of gastric contents
  4. Analgesia
  5. Antiemetics
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194
Q

LEARNING POINT: Avoid NSAIDs in dehydrated patient or those with AKIs

They are nephrotoxic!

A

LEARNING POINT: Morning sickness is most common in the first trimester

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195
Q

When is surgery indicated in a patient with small bowel obstruction?

A

There are signs of strangulation or peritonism
After 48 hours the obstruction has not resolved
There is no history of abdominal surgery, so sinister causes are more likely

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196
Q

What is the difference between D&V caused by toxins and that caused by infection?

A

A toxin from ‘food-poisoning’ rarely persists more than 24 hours

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197
Q

What does ketonuria suggest?

A

That the patient is in metabolic starvation

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198
Q

What is Kussmaul breathing?

A

Breath has sweet smell to it due to ketones
The breathing is deep labored and gasping

At first in acidosis - the breathing is swallow and rapid

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199
Q

What is the management of DKA

A

IV fluids to rehydrate
IV insulin as an infusion to suppress ketosis
Monitor fluid balance, cap glucose, ketones, serum potassium
Potassium therapy

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200
Q

What is the management of a patient with a perforated appendix which leads to PERITONITIS?

A

Note that peritonities is high risk as the patient is at risk of deteriorating into septic shock from gut contents getting into the peritoneal cavity

  1. A to E approach
  2. Resuscitation with IV fluid bolus
  3. Broad spectrum antibiotics
  4. Analgesia
  5. Antiemetics
  6. Nil by mouth
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201
Q

What would you give a dehydrated patient that can tolerate oral fluids?

A

Oral rehydration solution with sodium, glucose, water

Ask them to have a little and often

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202
Q

What are the causes of nause and vomitting in a patient with cancer?

A

Metabolic: Hypercalcaemia, uraemia

Intracranial: Raised ICP due to brain mets

GI: constipation, bowel obstruction, ileus, hepatomegaly

Psychogenic: anxiety

Chemotherapy or opiate analgesia

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203
Q

What are porthole scars?

A

Laparascopic surgery

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204
Q

Which two patients with vomiting would you not prescribe metoclopramide?

A

Patient with bowel obstruction

Patient with Parkinson’s

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205
Q

List some complications of vomitting

A
Dehydration
Renal impairment
Electrolyte imbalance - hyponatraemia, hypocholaraemia
Aspiration 
Aspiration pneumonia
Mallory-Weiss tear in mucose of oesophagus
Boerhaave's perforation
Loss of tooth enamel
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206
Q

What is the cause of Jaundice?

A

Excessive collection of bilirubin in tissues

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207
Q

Extravascular breakdown of RBCs results in what abnormal cells?

A

Spherocytes

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208
Q

Intravascular breakdown of RBCs results in which abnormal cells?

A

Schistocytes (it’s shit if they’re breaking down in your blood)

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209
Q

What are the 6 pathways that can lead to jaundice?

A
  1. Intravascular haemolysis
  2. Extravascular haemolysis
  3. Reduced hepatocyte uptake
  4. Enzyme defects in conjugation
  5. Hepatocyte damage
  6. Bile flow obstruction
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210
Q

What does pre-hepatic jaundice mean?

A

Excess production of bilirubin likely due to too much haemolysis

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211
Q

What does hepatic jaundice mean?

A

Problem with hepatocytes - hepatitis

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212
Q

What is PSC?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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213
Q

What does post-hepatic jaundice mean?

A

Problem with the outflow of bile perhaps outside the liver - common bile duct obstruction or inside the liver (PSC)

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214
Q

What is a sign of obstructive jaundice?

A

Pale stool and dark urine and steatorrhoea (foul smelling +foul)

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215
Q

NOTE: All pre-hepatic jaundice is uncojugated

A

NOTE: Hepatic jaundice can be conjugated or unconjugated

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216
Q

What are the DDx causes of Jaundice?

A

Intravascular haemolysis - congenital or acquired
CONGENITAL: G6PD deficiency, pyruvate kinase def, sickle cell, thalassaemia

ACQUIRED: artifical heart valves, blood group mismatch, DIC< malaria, HELLP syndrome in pregnant women

Extravascular haemolysis
CONGENITAL: Hereditary
ACQUIRED: Autoimmune

Reduced hepatocyte uptake: portosystemic shunts

Congenital enzymatic problems: Gilbert’s syndrome, Crigler-jannar syndrome

Decreased excretion of bilirubin

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217
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

It is a variant of pre-eclampsia, seen in later stages of pregnancy or child birth

H- Haemolysis
EL - Elevated Liver enzymes
LP - Low Platelet count

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218
Q

What is an indication of extravascular haemolysis

A

Spherocytes

Splenomegaly

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219
Q

What are the causes of decreased bilirubin excretion?

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome
V: Budd-Chiari syndrome (hepatic vein thrombosis)
I: Viral/bacterial hepatitis (leptospirosis or Weil’s disease)
T: Gallstones, stricture (After ERCP)
A
M: Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis
I: Primary biliary cirrhossi, Primary sclerosing cholangitis
N: Metastatic liver cancer, hepatocellular carcinoma, pancreatic cancer, cholangiocarcinoma
E: intrahepatic cholestatis of pregnancy

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220
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A
Absorption of too much iron 
Bronzed skin
Polyrura
Weight loss
Infections

Diagnosis age 50 for men, 10-20 years after menopause

Hemosiderosis - deposition of iron in liver, pancreas,

Tx: Blood letting, medication

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221
Q

List the signs of dehydration

A

Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, hypotension

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222
Q

What do green rings around the iris/Kayser-Fleischer rings suggest?

A

Wilson’s disease

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223
Q

What does splenomegaly suggest?

A

Extravascular haemolysis

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224
Q

What ix in someone who is jaundiced and what do you look for?

A

FBC –> Anaemia –> Blood flim
Serum bilirubin levels –> Raised unconj –> Blood film
Liver enzymes (ALT + AST) –> Raised –> Viral serology/ASMA, ANA, AMA, Alcohol
Biliary enzymes (ALP + GGT) –> AMA, Alcohol, USS biliary tree
Urine bilirubin –> positive –> USS biliary tree
Serum amylase –> USS biliary tree

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225
Q

DDx of microcytosis

A

Thalassaemia

iron-deficiency

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226
Q

What is bilirubin in the urine indicative of?

A

Post-hepatic obsturction

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227
Q

What makes up a haemolysis screen?

A

Haptoglobins (it will be depleted)
LDH (released by haemolysed RBCs)
Direct antiglobulin test (DATs or Coombs)
Blood film

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228
Q

What is Antismooth muscle antibodies positive in?

A

Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

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229
Q

What is antimitochondrial antibodies elevated in?

A

Primary Billiary Cirrhosis

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230
Q

LEARNING POINT: An USS will be good at picking up mechanical obstruction of the bile duct

A

IF a mechanical obstruction cannot be identified other caused such as Primary Billiary Cirrhosis or Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis should be thought of.

NOTE: Prothrombin time is an indicator of compromised liver function

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231
Q

What are the outcomes for Hep B

A

Full recovery
Carriers
Chronic symptomatic Hep B –> cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma
Fulminant hepatitis

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232
Q

Managment of someone with Hep B

A
Practice safe sex
Minimise alcohol consumption
Avoid sharing toothbrushes or razors
Trace contacts
Vaccinate current sexual partners and childre n
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233
Q

What is the management of primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Raised Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) are indicative of PBC

MX: Refer to hepatologist
Confirm diagnosis via MRCP and liver biopsy
Immunosuppresion (because PBC is autoimmune mediated destruction of bile ducts)
Bile salt replacement - ursodeoxycholic acid
Fat soluble vitamin replacement - supplement A, D, E, K
Pruritis itch management - anti histamines, cholestyramine
Liver transplant

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234
Q

Patient with jaundice and UC, what do you immediately think of?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Elevated perinucear antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies PANCA

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235
Q

List the DDx of RUQ pain

A
Biliary colic
Cholecystitis
Duodenal ulcer
Pancreatitis
Basal pneumonia
Ascending cholangitis
Gastric ulcer
Small bowel obstruction  
Appendicitis
Hepatitis (VADA) 
Pyelonephritis
Cancer
Aortic dissection   
AAA
Inferior MI
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (Adhesions around the liver capsule due to gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia)
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236
Q

DDx of midline, dull epigastric pain that moves to RUQ and back as well as right scapula (Boas’s sign)

A

Cholecystitis

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237
Q

Mx of patient with cholecystitis?

A
Clear fluids
IV fluids
Analgesia
Broad spectrum antibiotics
NBM
Laparascopic cholecystectomy
238
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

A

Stone formation which can cause biliary colic (irritation of Hartman’s pouch or common bile duct)

239
Q

What are the causes of ascending cholangitis?

A

Gallstones stuck in the common bile duct
A stricture in the common bile duct
A tumour blocking the common bile duct
Bacteria being pushed into the common bile duct by ERCP

240
Q

What are the 4 components of bile?

A

Water
Fats
Bile salts
Bilirubin

Bile salts are absorbed from the terminal ileum them travel back to the liver via enterohepatic circulation. Bile salts may be recycled up to 10 times a day

241
Q

What effect do liver disease and obstructive jaundice have on blood clotting times?

A

They will increase the prothrombin time (PT)

242
Q

What are the 3 types of gallstones?

A

Bile pigment (5%) - haemolytic anaemia, total parenteral nutrition
Cholesterol (20%) - fair, fat, fertile, female of forty, flatulent, oral contraceptive pill
Mixed (75%)

10% of gallstones are radio-opaque and show up on x-rays; 90% of renal stones show up

243
Q

What are the complications of gallstones

A
Biliary colic
Acute/chronic cholecystitis
Mucocoele (mucus filled gallbladder)
Empyema (pus-filled gallbladder) 
Cancer of gallbladder 
Cholangiocarcinoma
Ascending cholangitis
Obstructive jaundice
Acute pancreatitis
Gallstone ileus
244
Q

What is Mirrizzi’s syndrome?

A

A gallstone in the cystic duct is big enough to compress the common bile duct leading to obstructive jaundice

245
Q

What is Courvosier’s law and the idea behind it?

A

In a patient who is jaundiced, check if the gallbladder is palpable.
IF IT IS PALPABLE THEN…
It is unlikely the jaundice is due to gallstones

Because, gallstones will cause inflammation of the gallbladder as a result it will become thickened and fibrotic. The opposite of distended and palpable, rather it will ‘shrivel’ up. Unlike if due to a tumour where back pressure would cause distension. So if you can feel it it’s unlikely that stones are the cause.

246
Q

What is the difference between ERCP and MRCP?

A

ERCP - Endocscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

MRCP - Magneto retrograde cholangiopancreatography

MRCP is diagnostic and allows visualisation of the biliary tree
ERCP allows for the removal of stones and endoscopic sphincterotomy of the sphincter of Oddi.

247
Q

What are the risks of ERCP?

A

Bleeding
Perforation of the biliary tree
Cholangitis
Pancreatitis

248
Q

What are the DDx of RIF pain?

A
Appendicitis
Gastroenteritis
Utereric colic
Inguinal hernia (Especially if encarcerated or strangulated)
Epididymitis and/or orchitis
Mesenteric adenitis
Acute pancreatitis
Testicular torsion
Ectopic pregnancy
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Salpingitis
Torsion/haemorrhage/rupture of an ovarian tumor of cyst
Meckel's diverticulitis
Cholecystitis
Pyelonephritis
Psoas abscess
Small bowel obstruction 
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Urinary tract infection
Constipation
Acute onset iletis
Caecal volvulus
Perforated peptic ulcer
Caecal diverticulitis
Shingels
Rectus sheat haematoma
Femonal hernia
249
Q

LEARNING POINT: In any woman who presents with abdominal pain you must perform a pregnancy test

A

LEARNING POINT: A patient with mesenteric adenitis will have mesenteric lymph node enlargement. It is often preceded by an upper respiratory tract viral infection as a result cervical lympadenopathy may be present.

Mesenteric adenitis is a mild condition which causes temporary pain a patient’s abdomen. It is common in children and usually resolves.

250
Q

What might blood on a PR exam suggest?

A

IBD

Bleeding Meckel’s diverticulum - congenital bulging of the small intestine

Caecal diverticulum - outpouching of the caecum in which stool can get stuck leading to infection

251
Q

What Ix should you do a patient with RIF pain?

A
FBC - checking WCC
CRP - inflammatory  marker
Venous blood gas - Raised lactate and/or metabolic acidosis --> ischaemaia or severe sepsis
U&amp;Es - giving the baseline of electrolytes
Serum amylase -
Glucose - DKA can cause abdominal pain
LFTs
Urinalysis
Abdominal USS - can definitly say appendicitis but cannot rule it out
CXR 
Abdominal CT
ECG
252
Q

What are the DDx of a raised amylase (less than 1000)

A
Pancreatitis
Bowel obstruction 
Mesenteric ischaemia
Posteriorly perforated duodenal ulcer
Mumps
Pancreatic carcinoma 
Opiate medications
253
Q

What are the 3 indications for an ABDOMINAL RADIOGRAPH

A

Small bowel obstruction - dilated loops of bowel will be seen

IBD resulting in toxic megacolon

Foreign body in GI system

254
Q

How should you manage a patient with appendicits?

A

I would manage this patient firstly with an A to E approach

I would give IV fluids as a bolus

Give adequate analgesia

NBM for solids and non-clear fluids for 6 hours prior to surgery
NBM clear fluids 2 hours before surgery

Appendicectomy

Broad spectrum antibiotics

DVT prophylaxis

255
Q

What is the management for septic shock?

A

The Sepsis Six

  1. High flow oxygen –> start with 15L/min aim for 96%
  2. Take blood cultures
  3. Give broad spectrum antibiotics
  4. Give IV fluid challenges - to increase blood pressure and reduce heart rate
  5. Measure serum lactate and haemoglobin - use VBG
  6. Measure accureate hourly urine output - Decreasing urine output indicates AKI
256
Q

List the possible causes of appendicits

A

Obstruction by faecolith or foreign body
Lymphoid hyperplasia of Peyer’s patches
Fibrous strictures
Carcinoid tumour

257
Q

What antibodies are used to screen for Coeliac’s and what antibody do you need to watch out for?

A

Anti-endomysial antibodies
Tissue transglutaminase

IgA deficiency would lead to a false negative

258
Q

What is the NICE criteria for IBS?

A

More than 6 months of abdominal pain associated with bloating and altered bowel habit

259
Q

Signs of acute pelvic inflamamtory disease

A
Sexually active - possibly with new partner
Lower abdo pain
New vaginal discharge
Vomiting
fever
Adnexel tenderness
260
Q

What is the management for acute pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

parenteral cephalosporin
oral doxycyclin
treat sexual contacts
fluoroquinolone

261
Q

What are the main complications of diverticulitis

A
Perforation 
Abscess formation 
Fistulation into adjacent structures
Chronic inflammatory strictures -->  bowel obstruction 
Haemorrhage
262
Q

What disease is often called ‘left-sided appendicitis’

A

Diverticulitis

263
Q

List the RF for ectopic preganancy

A
  1. Previous ectopic pregnancy
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease - damage to tubes
  3. Tubular procedures (Sterilisation)
  4. Endometriosis
  5. Pelvic surgery
  6. In vitro fertilisation
  7. Intrauterine contraceptive device
264
Q

Describe presentation of acute diverticulitis

A

Midline, colicky, poorly localised pain which then migrates to LIF
Nausea sometimes vomitting

265
Q

Describe pain progression of ureteric stone

A

Pain migrating from left flank to iliac fossa

Patient is unable to sit still

266
Q

Sharp pain can indicate

A

Haemorrhage
Perforation
Torsion

267
Q

Questions to ask menstruating women

A

When was your last menstrual period?
How regular are your periods?
Is there any possibility you are pregnant?

268
Q

Using a PR what can you detect?

A

Pelvic abscess

Rectal malignancy

269
Q

What imaging should you request for a patient with acute diverticulits?

A

Abdominal CT with contrast

DO NOT REQUEST COLONSCOPY OR BARIUM ENEMA as these could result in perforation

270
Q

What imaging should you consider in a young female patient where you are considering gynaecological problems?

A

Transabdominal with/without transvaginal ultrasound

271
Q

DDx of Flank Pain

A
Muscular sprain
Nephrolithiasis/ureteric colic
Spinal pathology (fractures, metastases, disc prolapse)
Leaking/rupture AAA
Testicular torsion 
Ectopic pregnancy 
Ovarian torsion
Pyelonephritis
Perforated peptic ulcer
Renal cancer
Abscess 
Basal Pneumonia
Pancreatitis
Diverticulitis
Appendicitis
272
Q

Learning point: Make SOCRATES –> SOCRATES Bitch

A

Site, Onset, Character, Radiation, Alleviating factors, Timing, Exacerbating factors, Severity, have you ever had this before?

273
Q

Questions to ask when you suspect a UTI?

A

Any change to how FREQUENTLY you are urianting?
Have you felt more URGENCY
Have you experienced much PAIN while urinating?
Has the urine been cloudy or foul smelling?

274
Q

Questions to ask when you suspect ureteric obstruction/prostate enlargement?

A

Does it take a while for you to get started? - HESITANCY
Any reduced flow? - FLOW
Have you noticed any dribbling? - DRIBBLING
Have you felt after you’ve gone that there’s still some left? - RETENTION

275
Q

What does polycystic kidney disease predipose to?

A

Pyelonephritis

276
Q

LEARNING POINT: Aciclovir and indinavir crystallize in the urine

A

LEARNING POINT: Acetazolamide causes diuresis and potential dehydration

277
Q

In a patient with ureteric stones why do measure serum calcium, phosphate and urate?

A

To identify the type of stones

278
Q

Ix for possible ureteric pain

A
Urinalysis
Urine MC&amp;S
urea, creatinine, electrolytes
FBC, CRP
Serum calcium
Serum phosphate
Serum urate
Bedside USS
CT  KUB 
for pregnanant women - magnetic resonance urogram
279
Q

What are some signs of renal impairment or failure

A

High creatinine
High urea
High potassium

280
Q

What are the four types of Kindey stones

A

Calcium (75-85%) - radio opaque, calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate or mixed

Struvite (10-20%) - ammonium magnesium phosphate

Urate (5-10%)

Cystine (1%)

281
Q

How do you treat a patient with hypercalciuria?

A

Ix for hyperparathyroidism

Thiazides (to decrease renal excretion of Calcium)

Low calcium diet

282
Q

How do you treat patient with hyperuricosuria?

A

Allopurinol

283
Q

How do you treat a patient with HYPOcitraturia?

A

Potassium citrate because the citrate alkalinizes the urine to inhibit the formation of crystals

284
Q

Who usually get struvite stones and what are they due to?

A

Women

Secondary to infection with a urease producing bacteria - Proteus, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella

285
Q

How do you treat urate stones?

A

Potassium citrate

Allopurinol

286
Q

How do you treat cystine stones?

A

Increase fluids to dilate urinary cystine concentration

Solubility of cystine like urate is pH dependent so give potassium citrate to alkalise urine and make it easier for stone to pass

Cystine-binding drugs can be given - tiopronin

287
Q

Which conditions predispose to renal stone formation?

A
Metabolic:
Hypercalciuria
Hyperuricosuria
Hypocitraturia
Hyperoxaluria
Gout
Hyperuricaemic states - malignancy, G6PD deficiency
Cystinuria
Primary hyperpaarathyroidism
Crohn's disease - oxalate stones
Chronic UTI due to urease producing bacteria --> struvite stones
Medullary sponge or polycystic kidneys
REnal tubular  acidosis
Sarcoidosis
288
Q

What radiographic finding do you see for kindey stones

A

Kidney stones themselves
Hydronephrosis or hydrourter - dilated ureters
Perinephric fluid

289
Q

What is the soft tissue rim sign on a CT ?

A

A stone may be surronded by a rim of soft tissue unlike a phlebolith (calcified pelvic vein)

290
Q

What is the tail sign on a CT?

A

A soft tissue opacity which extends away from the stone lik a tail - this indicates a phlebolith not a stone

291
Q

What are the complications of kidney stones?

A

Ureteric stricture
Acute/chronic pyelonephritis
Renal failure
Intrarenal or perinephric abscess - Dx renal mass w/ fluid level USS or radiology
Xanthogranulomatous pyelnephritis - Tx: Nephrectomy
Urine extravasation into pelvic cavity.

292
Q

List contraindications of NSAIDS

A
Asthma
History of anaphylaxis
Previous/active peptic ulcer 
Severe heart failure
COX-2 selective inhibitors - promot bleeding no-no in IHD, CVS disease, PAD
293
Q

When to use NSAIDs cautiously?

A

Coagulation defects
Renal, cardiac, hepatic impairmenet
During pregnancy and breast feeding
Elderly patients at risk of bleeding and renal failure

294
Q

What ar ethe indications for surgery on an unruptured AAA

A

AAA > 5.5 cm
AAA diameter growing > 1 cm per year
Symptomatic AAA

295
Q

What are the red flags of back pain

A

Sphincter problems
Unable to self-care or walk

Weight loss 
Fever
Back tenderness to palpation 
Thoracic spinal pain 
Violent trauma

Age<20 or >50
severe morning stiffness
structural deformity
nerve root pain not resolving for > 6 weeks

296
Q

RF for AAA

A

Smoking
Systemic hypertension
Male sex
Family history

297
Q

List the DDx of Constipation related to abnormal bowel peristalsis

A
IBS
Medications (opiates, iron supplements, calcium channel blockers)
Hypothryoidism
Hypercalcaemia
Hypokalaemia
MS
Parkinson's disease
Diabetic neuropahty 
Idiopathic megacolon
Idiopathic slow transit
298
Q

List the DDx of Constipation related to hard faeces

A

Lack of dietary fibre

Dehydration

299
Q

List the DDx of Constipation related to bowel obstruction

A

Colorectal adenomcarcinoma
Sigmoid volvulus
Other pelvic masses (uterine fibroids, ovarian tumor)
Colonic strictures (radiotherapy, Crohn’s disease, diverticular disease)

300
Q

List the DDx of constipation related to a patient not pushing

A

Haemorrhoids
Anal fissure
Pelvic floor dysfunction

301
Q

What are the RED FLAGS related to bowel obstruction?

A
Severe, persistent constipation 
Absolute constipation - not passing stool OR flatus
Rectal bleeding
Tenesmus
Intermittent mucoid diarrhoea
Weight loss
Iron deficiency anameia
Night sweats 
PMH of UC or colonic polyps
Strong family history of colon cancer or colonic polyps esp if family members were <60
302
Q

DDx of constipation with intermittent diarrhoea?

A
IBS (young)
Colorectal cancer (>45 years)
Diverticular disease (>60 years with hx of left illiac fossa pain)
303
Q

Which medications are well known for causing constipation?

A
  1. Opiates
  2. Anticholinergics
  3. Tricyclic antidepressants
  4. Caclium channel blockers
  5. Iron supplements
304
Q

What are the markers of colon cancer?

A

CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen)
CA19-9
CA125

305
Q

What are the different imaging tools that can be used to visualise the GI tract

A

Colonoscopy
Protoscopy
Rigid sigmoidoscopy - only as far as sigmoid colon
Flexible sigmoidoscopy - as far as splenic flexure, takes biopsies, removes small polyps
CT colongraphy - abdominal CT scan + filling bowel with air (insufflation)
Double-contrast barium enema - give the patient a barium enema and take plain radiographs

306
Q

List the classes of meds that can be used for constipation

A

Bulk producers - diet, methylcellulose tablets, ispaghula husks
Stool softeners - Liquid paraffin, arachis oils, enemas to soften stool
Osmotic laxatives - lactluose, movicol (watch out for those with renal impairment/on diuresis eg heart failure patients)
Peristalsis stimulatnts - glycerol suppositoris, bisacodyl, senna can
Enemas

307
Q

Ddx of polyuria and polydipsia

A

Diabetes

Hypercalcaemia

308
Q

What are the causes of HYPERCALCAEMIA

A

Bone metastasis
Myeloma
Hyperparathyroidism
Vitamind D overdose

309
Q

How would ALP, PTH and Phosphate vary in bone mets

A

HIGH ALP
LOW PTH
HIGH PHOSPHATE

310
Q

How would ALP, PTH and Phospthate vary in myeloma?

A

NORMAL ALP
LOW PTH
HIGH PHOSPHATE

311
Q

How would ALP, PTH and Phosphate vary in Hyperparathyroidsim primary?

A

NORMAL/HIGH ALP
HIGH PTH
LOW PHOSPHATE

312
Q

How would ALP, PTH and Phosphate vary in Hyperparathyroidsim tertiary?

A

NORMAL/HIGH ALP
HIGH PTH
HIGH PHOSPHATE

313
Q

How would ALP, PTH and Phosphate vary in Vitamin D overdose?

A

LOW ALP
LOW PTH
HIGH PHOSPHATE (vit D increase phosphate and calcium absorption by the gut

314
Q

List the clinical features of bowel obstruction

A

Absolute constipation - not even passing flatus
Colicky abdominal pain
Distended abdomen
Nasuea and vomitting

315
Q

What would you see on an abdominal radiograph to think bowel obstruction

A

Small bowel loops >3 cm
Large bowel loops > 6 cm
Large bowel loops –> >9cm risk of perforation

316
Q

How long does ileus take to resolve?

A

24-72 hours after surgery

317
Q

How can you reduce the risk of post-op ileus?

A

Local/epidural anesthesia
Minismising opiate analgesia
Minimising bowel manipulation
Encouraging mobilisation of the patient

318
Q

List some RF for bowel cancer

A

Smoking
Excercise and obesity
Red meat

319
Q

List the causes of diarrhoea

A

Infectious
Inflammation of the bowel - IBD, diverticular disease
Increased motility - hyperthyroidism, anixety, IBS
Malabsorption - coeliac’s, pancreatic insufficiency
An obstruction overflow - hard faeces so only soft stool can pass through
Meidcations -

320
Q

Name some medications which can cause diarrhoea`

A

Laxatives,

Colchicine, Digoxin, Metformin, Thiazide diuretics, antibiotics

321
Q

What are the DDx of Diarrhoea (young, female)

A
Infective diarrhoea
IBS
Coeliac's 
Crohn's disease
Ulcerative colitis
Medications (antibiotics, laxatives) 
Hyperthyroid
322
Q

What are the DDx of Diarrhoea (old)

A

Neoplasm - villous polyps, colonic adenocarcinoma, pancreatic cancer
Diverticular disease
Overflow diarrhoea secondary to constipation
Ischaemic colitis
Microscopic colitis
Bacterial overgrowth

323
Q

What is the approach to a patient with diarrhoea?

A

I would start by managing this patient through an A to E approach
I would then assess them for dehydration by checking HEART RATE, BLOOD PRESSURE, MUCOUS MEMBRANES and asking if they FEEL THIRSTY
I would then check the patient’s electrolytes using either an ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS or VENOUS BLOOD GAS

324
Q

What is mucoid/jelly-like faeces indicative of?`

A

Salmonella infection

Villous polyps in the colon

325
Q

What are foul smelling/floating stool suggestive of?

A

Malabsorption - coeliac’s
Pancreatic duct obstruction - pancreatic cancer, cystic fibrosis
Biliary insufficiency - cholecystectomy

326
Q

What are pale stool indiciative of?

A

Biliary/Pancreatic obstruction
Chronic pancreatitis
Gallstones

327
Q

What does fresh blood when a patient wipes or faeces streaked with blood indicate?

A

Anal fissure

Haemorrhoids

328
Q

What does red blood mixed in with the faeces suggest?

A

Colorectal pathology - UC, dysentery, colorectal carcinoma

329
Q

What would you ask if you want to rule out IBS?

A

Do you get symptoms at night?

Ask about NOCTURNAL SYMPTOMS

330
Q

What is tenesmus indicative of?

A

A space occupying lesion in the rectum (e.g. carcinoma)

Could be colitis

331
Q

What does an alternating bowel habit suggest for example: diarrhoea –> normal –> constipation?

A

IBS

Colorectal cancer

332
Q

What would you ask to try to rule out infectious diarrhoea?

A

Has you ever had something like this before?

-Yes? –> Less likely to be infectious diarrhoea

333
Q

DDx diarrhoea + vomitting

A

infective gastroenteritis

334
Q

DDx of diarrhoea + RIF pain

A

Terminal ileum inflammation like Crohn’s disease, Yersinia enterocolitica infection

335
Q

DDx of diarrhoea + LIF pain

A

Diverticular disease

336
Q

DDx of relief after motions

A

IBS

337
Q

What extra abdominal manifestations are associated with IBD (crohn’s and UC)?

A

Uveitis - painful red eye with loss of vision
Scleritis - painful red eye with no loss of vision
Episcleritis - uncomfortable red eye with no loss of vision
Enteric arthritis
Erythema nodosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum

338
Q

What is erythema nodosum and list some causes

A

TENDER, raised, red nodules on the skin

CAUSES: Crohn’s, UC, oral contraceptive pill

339
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum and list some causes

A

Necrotic ulcers

CAUSES: Crohn’s, UC, oral contraceptive pill

340
Q

What effect do Coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease and UC all have on a FBC?

A

They cause anaemia due to malabsorption of iron, folate and vitamin B12

341
Q

If a patient has diarrhoea and a history of recent antibiotic use what should you test for?

A

C. difficile toxin test

342
Q

List three symptoms that a patient with UC might present with?

A

Diffuse pain
Bloody diarrhoea
Fine between episodes

343
Q

List how a patient with Crohn’s might present

A
Pain that is worse in the RLQ
Diarrhoea
Failure to thrive between episodes, weight loss
episcleritis, scleritis, uveitis, 
erythema nodosum
pyoderma gangrenosum
anaemia
weight loss
fatigue
344
Q

Why would you perform an abdominal x-ray on a patient with UC?

A

They are at risk of toxic megacolon - you want to look at their bowel

345
Q

Hallmark of Crohn’s?

A

Non-caseating granulmoas in bowel mucosa

346
Q

Name some of the complications of steroids

A

Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Cataracts

347
Q

List some of the medications used to treat Crohn’s

A

Methotrexate (Folate antagonist)
Azathioprine (purine synthesis inhibitor)
Infliximab (anti-TNFalpha)

348
Q

What diseases is UC associated with?

A

Colonic adenocarcinoma
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Cholangiocarcinoma

349
Q

What investiagtion should you carry out for Grave’s disease?

A

Antithyroid peroxidase
ESR
(Obviously TFT’s so confirm they are hyperthyroid)

350
Q

Why would you request a test for thyroid-stimulating antibodies in patient who is pregnant?

A

Because in a pregnant patient with Grave’s disease the antibodies can cross the placenta which would result in a thyrotoxic fetus and such a baby would need special care at the time of delivery

351
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in nails

A

Clubbing

352
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in Eyes

A

Anvterior uveitis/iritis
Scleritis
Episcleritis

353
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in the skin

A

Erythema nodosum - raised, red, tender nodules

Pyoderma gangreonosum - inflammatory ulceration and skin necrosis

354
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in the joints

A

Enteric arthritis

355
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in the blood

A

iron-deficiency anaemia
Folate deficiency anaemia
Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia

356
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in the biliary system

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

cholesterol gallstones

357
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in the kidney

A

Kidney stones

Fat is not absorbed well
Calcium is sequestered in bowel
Calcium usually binds oxalate in blood, lack of calcium results in oxalate accumulation and stones

358
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD in bones

A

osteomalacia
osteoporosis

Calcium is not absorbed by the gut because fat is not being absorbed by the gut

359
Q

List the extra Gi manifestations of IBD that starts with A

A

Amyloidosis

360
Q

Which bacteria is likely to cause an outbreak of vomiting and diarrhoea in an institution?

A

NOROVIRUS

361
Q

Which bacteria is likely to causes BLOODY DIARRHOEA

A

E.coli strain O157

Shigella

362
Q

Which bacteria is likely to cause watery diarrhoea a few days after a barbecue

A

Campylobacter jejuni

363
Q

Which bacteria is likely to cause diarrhoea rapidly after a meal?

A

Staphyloccus aureaus

Bacillus cereus

364
Q

Which bacteria is likely to cause diarrhoea in an elderly patient treated with antibiotics

A

Clostridium difficile

365
Q

Which bacteria is likely to cause RIF + diarrhoea

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

366
Q

What are the signs a patient may be dehydrated?

A
thirsty
dry mucous membranes
tachycardic
narrow pulse pressure and/or low blood pressure
dry lips, mouth, tongue
prolonged capillary refill time (> 2 seconds) 
cool peripheries 
dizzy on standing
367
Q

What is a fluid challenge?

A

An IV blous of 250-500 mL of crystalloid given over 30 minutes to someone who is hypovolaemic

After, they require assesment:

  • no response: not enough fluid/not hypovolaemic
  • transient rise in BP: not enough fluid/losing it rapidly
  • sustained rise in BP: enough fluid
368
Q

What is fluid maintenance?

A

If a patient cannot drink they need maintenance IV fluids to restore their fluid loss

369
Q

What is replacement fluid?

A

Extra fluids on top of the maintenance fluids to compensate for the fluids that patient loses. Must do in:

febrile patients (+500 mL for every 1 degree)
burns patients
stoma patients

370
Q

what is a Scybalum

A

Hard faeces in the intestine

371
Q

List typical features of Crohn’s when you look at the bowel

A

Transmural inflammation - entirety of bowel is affected
Skip lesions - Different parts of bowel are affected
Cobblestoning - Pattern of how the bowel looks
Fistula formation

372
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

In the duodenum

373
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

jejunum

374
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

ileum

375
Q

List the ANORECTAL DDx of Rectal Bleeding

A
Haemorrhoids
Rectal tumour
Anal tumour
Anal fissure
Anal fistula 
Solitary rectal ulcer
Radiation proctitis
Rectal varices
Trauma
376
Q

List the COLONIC DDx of Rectal Bleeding

A

Diverticular disease
Angiodysplasia
Colitis (inflammatory, ischaemic, infective)
Colonic tumour (benign or malignant)
Iatrogenic (endoscopic biospy, anastomatic leakage)
Vasculitis

377
Q

List the ILEO-JEJUNAL DDx of Rectal Bleeding

A
Peptic ulceration (including Meckel's diverticulum)
Andiodysplasia
Arterio-venous malformation
Crohn's disease
Coeliac disease
Aorto-enteric fistula 
Small bowel tumours
378
Q

List the UPPER-GI DDx of Rectal Bleeding

A
Peptic ulcer
Gastritis/duodenitis
Varices
Tumor
Mallory-Weis tear
Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
Aorto-enteric fistula
Dieulafoy lesion
379
Q

What is Olser-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

It is another term for Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

380
Q

Whenever speaking to a patient who has lost blood via cough or via per rectal bleeding, what is the one question you should ask?

A

How much blood have you lost?

  • A teaspoon?
  • A tablespoon
  • A wineglass?
381
Q

What is one reason a patient has tarry, black stool other than melaena?

A

They are on iron supplements

382
Q

What does blood mixed with stool indicate?

A

A lesion proximal to the sigmoid colon
Colitis (pain/no pain)
Colonic tumor (no pain)

383
Q

What does blood streaked stool indicate?

A
sigmoid or anorectal source
Anal tumor (pain)
Rectal tumor (no pain)
384
Q

What does blood passed immediately after stool mean?

A

Anorectal condition - haemorrhoids

385
Q

What does blood passed on its own WITHOUT stool indicate?

A
Diverticular disease
Angiodysplasia
IBD
Bleeding cancer 
Upper GI bleed
386
Q

What does blood only seen on the toilet paper indicate?

A

Bleeding from the anal canal
anal fissure (pain)
Haemorrhoids (no pain)

387
Q

DDx of pain + PR bleed

A

anal fissure - tearing pain, may also have itch
Colitis - abominal cramps
Lower anal cancer

388
Q

What are your HEADLINE DDx of rectal bleeding?

A
Diverticular disease
Angiodysplasia
Haemorrhoids
Colitis
Anal fissure
Lower GI tumors
389
Q

For a PR bleed which conditions should you ask about?

A

Ulcerative colitis

Upper GI bleed causes - peptic ulcer disease, chronic liver disease

390
Q

What is the relevance of anticoagulant and antiplatelet medication in a patient with a bleed?

A

They can accentuate bleeding from a lesion

391
Q

What is the relevance of long-term anticoagulation in a patient with PR bleeding?

A

Long term anticoagulation can make existing angiodysplasia more likely to bleed

392
Q

What is the relevance of NSAIDs with relation to diverticular disease?

A

NSAIDs increase the likelihood of bleeds from diverticular disease

393
Q

Which two drugs predispose patients to C.difficile infections?

A

Antibiotics

Proton pump inhibitors

394
Q

What are you looking for on a DRE?

A

A palpable mass

Blood on the withdrawn finger

395
Q

When would you not perform a DRE for renal bleeding?

A

Presence of an anal fissure or anal abscess

396
Q

You would not usually feel haemorrhoids on a DRE, what are the exceptions to this rule

A

Prolapsed haemorrhoids

Thrombosed haemorrhoids

397
Q

What is a raised urea a sign of (usually in the absence of any rise in creatinine)?

A

An upper GI bleed

398
Q

What imaging should be done in a patient with a PR bleed?

A

Proctoscopy with/without rigid sigmoidoscopy

399
Q

Ix for acute renal bleeding

A

Proctoscopy with/without rigid sigmoidoscopy if no lesion is seen then proceed…

Colonoscopy - diagnostic + therapeutic
Mesenteric angiography - useful if bleeding is too much for colonoscopy, good for ANGIODYSPLASIAS, embolisation can be done

CT angiography - fewer complications but lacks therapeutic potential, needs contrast

Technetium-99 m-labelled red blood cell scintigraphy -

Upper GI endoscopy

400
Q

Angiography is an imaging technique which uses x-rays to look inside the arteries and veins

A

Use of contrast is contraindicated in patients with renal impairment and for kidney stones

401
Q

Name two causes of intermittent per rectal bleeds

A

Angiodysplasia

Dieulafoy lesion

402
Q

What is a Dieulafoy lesion

A

A ruptured submucosal artery mostly commonly rupturing at the oesophagogastric junction or small bowel or rectum

403
Q

What is a Dieulafoy lesion

A

A ruptured submucosal artery mostly commonly rupturing at the oesophagogastric junction or small bowel or rectum

404
Q

What are some of the modifications that can be made to treat internal haemorrhoids?

A

Lifestyle: Increased dietary fibre, good hydration, avoidance of straining

Medical: Local anaesthetic creams, steroidal creams, laxatives PRN

Surgical: rubber band ligation, Injection sclerotherapy, Infrared coagulation/photocoagulation, haemorrhoidectomy, stapled haemorrhoidopexy
Doppler-guided haemorrhoidal artery ligation and rectoanal repair

405
Q

What kind of anaemia would iron deficiency anaemia cause?

A

Microcytic anaemia

406
Q

What is a normal INR?

A

An INR of 1.1 or below is considered normal
An INR of 2-3 is considered normal for a patient on warfarin for disorders like AF

INR: International Normalised Ratio
Remember! PT is for extrinsic pathway and is the same as INR

407
Q

Where are you most likely to find colonic diverticula?

A

In the left colon and sigmoid

However, right-sided diverticula have a greater propensity to bleed

408
Q

What is the CHA₂DS₂-VASc Score used for?

A

Predicts risk of stroke in patients with AF

409
Q

How would you manage an anal fissure?

A
  1. High-fibre diet + laxatives +/- non-constipating analgesics
  2. Topical anaesthetics (lidocaine gel)
  3. GTN spray - increase blood flow + relax anal sphincter
    Topical diltiazem
  4. Botox injections
410
Q

What surgical management could be used for an anal fissure?

A

Lateral internal sphincterectomy - However, integrity of external anal sphincter must be checked with USS

Anal advancement flap

411
Q

What is the anatomical definition of ‘lower’ GI haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding that arises distal to ligament of Treitz at the duodenojejunal junction

412
Q

What are the classifications of internal haemorrhoids?

A

First degree: Bleed but do not prolapse
Second degree: Prolapse but reduce spontaneously
Third degree: Prolapse and do not reduce spontaneously but can be manually reduced
Fourth degree: Prolapse and are irreducible

413
Q

What is the difference between diverticulosis,

diverticular disease and diverticulitis?

A

Diverticulosis - Outpouching of the mucosa
Diverticular disease - When Diverticulosis starts causing pain or bleeding
Diverticulitis - When there is diverticular inflammation

414
Q

Why are colonic diverticula considered ‘false’ diverticula

A

Because they lack the outer coat of muscularis propria

In Meckel’s diverticulum the outpouching is covered by all layers of the bowel wall

415
Q

What are the known RF for colorectal carcinoma?

A
Increasing age
Male sex (For rectal carcinoma) 
Central obesity 
IBD (esp UC) 
PMH Colorectal cancer
Colorectal polyps
Colorectal irradiation 
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
Peutz-Jeghers
Juvenile polyposis
Cowden's disease
MYH-related polyposis 
Sedentary life style
416
Q

In which seven scenarios would you refer a patient to a specialist with regards to change in bowel habit?

A

40+, rectal bleeding, change in bowel habit (looser stool/more frequent stool), 6+ weeks

60+, rectal bleeding for 6+ weeks

60+ change in bowel habit for 6+ weeks

Any age RLQ abdo mass involved with large bowel involvement

Any age palpable rectal mass intraluminal

Men of any age with iron deficiency anaemia

Non-menstruating women with iron deficiency anaemia

417
Q

Remember, NSAIDs increase risk of bleeding in?

A

Diverticular disease

418
Q

What is Oliguria?

A

Reduced urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour or <400mL/day or <30ml/hour

419
Q

What is Oliguria?

A

Reduced urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour or <400mL/day or <30ml/hour

420
Q

What is anuria?

A

Complete absence of urinary output

421
Q

What are the pre-renal DDx of poor urine output (due to inadequate blood supply to the kidneys)

A

Hypovolaemia - dehydration, haemorrhage
Hypotension - sepsis, pancreatitis
Heart failure -
Reduced local perfusion of kidneys - dissecting aneurysm, renal emboli

422
Q

What are the Renal ddx of poor urine output (due to damage resulting in impaired kidney function)

A

TUBULAR: Acute tubular necrosis
Glomerulonephritis
Interstitial nephritis (Drugs, NSAIDs, antibiotics)

Vascular: 
Vasculitides
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Thrombocytic thrombocytopenic purpura
Disseminated intravascular coagulation 
Malignant hypertension
Scleroderma 

Malaria
Legionnaires’ disease
Leptospirosis

Multiple myeloma

423
Q

What are the Post-Renal DDx of poor urine output (obstruction to urinary flow)

A

Ureter - abdominal/pelvic mass
Complication of pelvic surgery
Bilateral calculi (renal stone)
Retroperitoneal fibrosis

Bladder: Neuropathic bladder
Anticholingeric or sympathomimetic drugs
Bladder stones or tumour
Utrerovaginal prolapse

Urethra: 
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Blocked catheter
Prostate cancer
Urethral stricture
Posterior urethral valve
Trauma 
Infection
424
Q

What is the average amount of fluid an adult of average would intake per 24 hours?

A

3L or 30-50 mL/kg/day

425
Q

List some nephrotoxic drugs

A
NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics 
Gentamycin
Vancomycin
426
Q

Why does haemorrhage result in a delayed drop in haemoglobin?

A

Because haemorrhage results in a loss of haemoglobin and serum in equal measure. However, haemoglobin calculated by the lab is a measure of concentration rather than actual volume

427
Q

What does a 50% increase in baseline creatinine suggest?

A

Acute Kidney Injury

428
Q

What pathology does an AKI point towards

A

renal hypoperfusion - hypovolaemia, hypotension, heart failure, reduced local perfusion of kidneys

Renal

429
Q

What is frothy urine and swollen ankles a sign of?

A

Nephrotic syndome

430
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Small areas of alveolar collapse that are common after surgery - can cause crackles

431
Q

What might you find on a USS in an individual with postrenal obstruction?

A

Dilated ureters - HYDROURETER

Dilated renal pelvis/calyces - HYDRONEPHROSIS

432
Q

What raised measure on a blood test would clinch a query hypovolaemia?

A

Raised urea

433
Q

What is the NICE recommendation for fluid maintenance?

A

Volume: 25-30 mL/kg/day
Electrolytes: 1 mmol/kg/day of K, Na, Cl
Glucose: 100 g/day

434
Q

What is the difference between acute/acute-on-chronic urinary obstruction vs chronic obstruction?

A

Acute/acute-on-chronic obstruction presents with pain

Chronic obstruction is painless

435
Q

What are the outcomes after a TWOC?

A

If patient doesn’t fail - Alpha blocker/5a reducatease inhibtor

If patient fails - alpha blocer/5a-reductase inhibitor + in-dwelling catheter and later appointment for TWOC

Fails again - possible TURP (would be done if creatinine was high)

436
Q

What is the definition of an AKI?

A

AKI is an umbrella term for pathologies which damage the kidneys like ACS

It is defined as Oliguria (urine output <0.5 mL/kg/hour)
AND rise in creatinine (>50% of baseline)

437
Q

What happens to calcium and phosphate in chronic renal failure?

A

Low calcium

High phosphate

438
Q

What are the four complications of a catether?

A

UTI - Proteus mirabilis
Urethral trauma
Urethral scarring and stricture
Bladder perforation

439
Q

What are the main complications of chronic urinary retention?

A

Bladder full of urine –> overflow –>INCONTINENCE
Urine is stationary –> bacteria can grow –> UTI
Urine is stationary –> chemicals react –> BLADDER STONES
Bladder full of urine –> rise in back pressure –> HYDROURETERS and HYDRONEPHROSIS
Hydronephrosis –> RENAL FAILURE
ACUTE-ON-CHRONIC URINARY RETENTION
BLADDER WALL HYPERTROPHY AND OUTPOUCHING

440
Q

What are the indications for dialysis in an acute setting?

A

ACUTE RENAL FAILURE (Oliguria or Anuria with deranged renal function)

With

Severe hyperkalaemia >6.5mM (Despite max med)
Severe acidosis pH <7.2
Severe pulmonary oedema
Urea >30 mM and creatinine >1000microM
Uraemic encephalopathy
441
Q

What are the DDx of Polyuria?

A

Diabetes mellitus (think steroids and Cushing’s syndrome)
Diuretics (medication, caffeine, alcohol, lithium)
Heart failure
Hypercalcaemia
Hyperthyroidism
Primary polydipsia
Hypokalaemia
Hyperuricaemia
Diabetes insipidus - Chronic renal failure/hypercalcaemia due ot bone mets

442
Q

What are LUTS symptoms

A
FREQUENCY: How many times 
URGENCY: 
HESITANCY 
TERMINAL DRIBBLING
INCOMPLETE VOIDING
443
Q

What Ix should you do in a patient who presents with polyuria?

A

Capillary blood glucose - look for DM
Urinalysis - UTI, DM (glucosuria, keotnuria)
Fasting plasma glucose - Diabetes mellitus
Urine osmolality
Electrolytes
Urea, creatinine, eGFR
Serum calcium - check hypercalcaemia and bone mets
Thyroid function tests - hyperthyroidism

444
Q

List some of the causes of central/cranial diabetes insipidus

A
Head injury 
Pituitary tymours
Craniopharyngiomas
Metastases 
Surgery 
Vascular lesion 
Meningitis
445
Q

List some of the causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Renal damage due to low potassium, high calcium
Drugs like lithium
Pyelonephritis
Hydronephrosis

446
Q

What is the test to differentiate between cranial and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A
A water deprivation test 
1. 24 hour urine collection is more than 3 hours
2. Weigh patient throughout
3. Deprive water
4. Give Desmopressin (ADH analogue)
CRANIAL DI --> Normal urine osmolality
NEPHROGENIC DI --> Low urine osmolality
447
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Fasting plasma glucose >7mM
Plasma glucose >11.1mM 2 hours after 75g of glucose
A1C >48mmol/mol

448
Q

LEARNING POINT: Hypercalcaemia can cause constipation as well as polyuria

A

LEARNING POINT: A high calcium should be followed up with an ALP which will be high in bone metastasis and low in multiple myeloma

Multiple myeloma can be investiagted using a serum and urine electrophoresis where you will look for paraprotein

449
Q

Primary polydipsia is most common in which patients?

A

Schizophrenics

450
Q

Which patients will you see DKA in ?

A

Undiagnosed type-1 diabetics
Non-compliant type-1 diabetics
Ill type-1 diabetics

451
Q

List the Ddx of a Groin Lump

A
Indirect inguinal hernia
Direct inguinal hernia
Femoral hernia
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Saphena varix (dilated great saphenous vein) 
Psoas abscess/bursa
Lipoma
Sebaceous cyst
Neuroma
Femoral aneurysm/pseudoaneurysm
Ectopic testis
Undescended testis
Hydrocele of cord
452
Q

What are the two main risks of hernias?

A

Bowel obstruction - interruption to bowel flow

Bowel strangulation - blood supply to a part of bowel is compromised

453
Q

What questions do you need to ask about a groin lump?

A

How long have you had it?
Is the lump always there or does it every go away?
Has the lump gotten bigger, smaller or stayed the same?
Is the lump painful?
Are there any other lumps?
Has there been abdominal pain?
Have you been straining/had a chronic cough?
Have you been doing any heavy lifting?
Have you had any recent operations to the groin?
Have you had any trauma or infection in the lower limb or groin?

454
Q

What are the B symptoms of Lymphoma?

A
Weight loss
Night sweats
Fever
Anorexia
Pruritis - itchy skin
455
Q

THE NECK OF THE SWELLING IS IMPORTANT TO LOOK OUT FOR IN A HERNIA

Where will the neck be for an inguinal hernia?

A

Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle

456
Q

Where will the neck be for a femoral hernia?

A

Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle

457
Q

Describe a simple bedside examination that can be done to differentiate between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia

A

First, reduce the hernia through the superficial inguinal ring
Second, place a finger over the deep ring (the midpoint of the inguinal ligament)
Third, get the patient to cough
IF THE HERNIA REAPPEARS IT IS A DIRECT HERNIA

458
Q

LEARNING POINT: Inguinal hernias are more common than femoral hernias

A

LEARNING POINT: Femoral hernias are more common in women than men. They are more likely to strangulate due to narrower neck

459
Q

For which hernias should patients never wear a truss?

A

Irreducible hernia

460
Q

How can you divide your differentials for inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

Infective and Neoplastic

Systemic and Local

461
Q

Causes of systemic infective inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

HIV

TB

462
Q

Causes of local infective inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

Non-specific lymphadenopathy from groin/lower limb infection/STD

463
Q

Causes of systemic neoplastic inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

Lymphoma

Leukaemia

464
Q

Causes of local neoplastic inguinal lymphadenopathy?

A

Metastases from primary in lower limb, external genitalia or perianal region

465
Q

Which hernia is more common in women than men?

A

Femoral hernias

466
Q

Which hernia is most common in women?

A

Indirect inguinal hernias (most common in men too)

467
Q

What are three reasons why an hernia is irreducible?

A
  1. It is INCARCERATED - The hernia is stuck in the abnormal position
  2. It is OBSTRUCTED - The neck of the hernia creates an obstruction to the passage of flow through the bowel
  3. It is STRANGULATED - The bowel has become so constricted by the neck of the hernial sac the blood supply is compromised and it will necrose rapidly from ischaemia
468
Q

What lies in the inguinal canal?

A

Male canal - ilioinguinal nerve and spermatic cord

Female canal - ilioinguinal nerve and round ligament

469
Q

What is a herniotomy?

A

Surgical excision of a hernial sac

470
Q

What is herniorrhapy?

A

Repair of a hernia using locally available tissues

471
Q

What is a hernioplasty?

A

Repair of a hernia using synthetic material such as a mes

472
Q

What is an important question to ask to screen for testicular cancer?

A

Do the testis feel heavy at all?

473
Q

When examining a scrotal mass what 4 key things do you want to touch on?

A

Can you get above the mass? No - inguinoscrotal hernia

Can you palpate the testis seperately from the swelling/lump?

Does the scortum transilluminate? - IT WILL GLOW IF FULL OF FLUID

Is the mass tender?

474
Q

Scrotal mass - can’t get above it?

A

Inguinoscrotal hernia

475
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, not seperate from testis, transilluminable?

A

Hydrocele

476
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, not seperated from testis, not transilluminable, tender?

A

Torsion
Orchitis
Epididymoorchitis
Acute haematocele

477
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, not seperated from the testis, mass is not transilluminable, not tender

A

Cancer
Chronic haematocele
Gumma

478
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, seperate from testis, transilluminable

A

Epididymal cyst

Acute idiopathic scrotal oedema

479
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, seperate from testis, not transilluminable, tender

A

Acute epididymitis

Torsion of hydatid of Morgagni

480
Q

Scrotal mass - can get above it, seperate from testis, transilluminable, non-tender?

A

TB epididymitis

Post vasectomy sperm granuloma

481
Q

What is the single biggest risk factor for testicular tumor?

A

History of undescended or maldescended testes

482
Q

What are the two most common type of testicular tumor?

A

OLDER SERGEANTS Seminomas - men 30-50s

YOUNGER TROOPER Teratomas - men 20-30s

483
Q

Are varicoceles more on the right or left?

A

Idiopathic varioceles are more common on the left

484
Q

In men <35 with epididymo-orchitis which bacterium is the most likely source of infection?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

485
Q

In men >35 with epididymo-orchitis which bacterium is the most likely source of infection?

A

E.coli

486
Q

What two things must be established for any patient who presents with acute limb weakness?

A

The time course

Where the neurological lesion is

487
Q

What does sudden onset (seconds-minutes) weakness imply?

A

Trauma - fracture

Vascular insult - stroke, TIA

488
Q

What does subacute onset (hours to days) weakness suggest?

A
Progressive demyelination (Guillan-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis)
Slowly expanding haematoma - Subdural haematoma
489
Q

What does chronic onset (weeks to months) weakness suggest?

A

Slow growing tumour

Motor neuron disease

490
Q

What are the DDx for sudden onset limb weakness?

A
Ischaemic stroke
TIA
Haemorrhagic stroke
Hemiplegic migraine
Todd's palsy (post seizure paralysis) 
Hypoglycaemia

Spinal disc prolapse
Spinal cord transection
Spinal cord infarction

Vertebral fracture

Acute limb ischaemia
Traumatic nerve injury

491
Q

What are the DDx for subacute limb weakness?

A

Multiple sclerosis
Haematoma
Tumour
Abscess

Transverse myelitis

Guillain-Barre syndome
Poliomyelitis

Botulism
Tetanus

492
Q

What are the DDx for gradual onset limb weakness?

A

Spinal canal stenosis
Vitamin B12 deficiency

Diabetes mellitus
Vasculitis

Myasthenia gravis
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Myositis

493
Q

Questions to ask of a patient with acute limb weakness?

A

Onset and how long it has been going on for?
Any speech disturbance?
Any visual disturbance?
Any headache?
Any seizures or loss of consciousness?
Any neck or back pain? (indicates spine pathology)
Any trauma?
RF?
Have you had a stroke or TIA in the past?
Do you have atrial fibrillation?
Do you smoke? Has anyone in the family every had a stroke? Do you have high blood pressure? Do you have diabetes mellitus? Do you have high cholesterol?

494
Q

LEARNING POINT: A headache is unusual in stroke or TIA

A

LEARNING POINT: Sudden-onset terrible headache - SAH

Unilateral headache before limb weakness - hemiplegic migraine

gradual-onset headache before limb weakness - intracranial mass, subdural haemorrhage

495
Q

What happens to plantars in UMN lesions?

A

They are upwards (Babinski reflex)

496
Q

What do you see in UMN vs LMN?

A

Clonus in UMN

Wasting in LMN

497
Q

Where is the lesion in a receptive dysphasia (where the patient can speak almost fluently but can’t understand)

A

Wenicke’s area (temporal lobe)

498
Q

Where is the lesion in expressive dysphasia (where the patient can comprehend language but cannot find words or speak fluently)

A

Brocas area (frontal lobe)

499
Q

What kind of lesion when eyes deviate away from weak side?

A

Cortical lesion

500
Q

What kind of lesion when eyes deviate towards weak side?

A

Brain-stem lesion

501
Q

In a weak limb with LMN signs what do sensory signs indicate?

A

Sensation present –> nerve root/peripheral nerve lesion

Sensation absent –> NMJ, muscular lesion

502
Q

In a weak limb with UMN signs what do sensory signs indicate?

A

Anterior spinal artery infarct spares dorsal column - light touch, vibration, position sense or proprioception

BUT temperature and pain won’t be felt

503
Q

How much is the MRC scale out of for limb strength?

A

it is out of 5

504
Q

How do you differentiate UMN facial weakness and LMN facial nerve palsy?

A

UMN facial weakness - sparing of forehead wrinkling and blink
It will be completely lost for LMN lesion

505
Q

What is dysarthria?

A

Difficulty speaking

506
Q

What are the two types of strokes?

A

Ischaemic (80%) or haemorrhagic (20%)

507
Q

What are the DDx for a lesion in the cerebral cortex

A

Stroke
Cerebral mass (tumour, abscess)
Hemiplegic migraine
Hypoglycaemia

508
Q

Learning point:
In the organisation of the motor homunculus
The lower limbs are more medial
The upper limbs and face are more lateral

A

Learning point: The medial motor cortex is supplied by the ANTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY

The rest of primary motor cortex is supplied by the MIDDLE CEREBRAL ARTERY

509
Q

List the Ix for a stroke

A

CT head scan (however, it can take up to 24 hours for infarction to be apparent on CT)
FBC
Blood glucose - for hypoglycaemia
Blood clotting - For patients on warfarin, eclude haemophilia or coagulopathy
ECG - looking for AF

510
Q

What are the 2nd line Ix for an ischaemic stroke or TIA?

A

Carotid Doppler ultrasonography - look for sources of atheromas
ECG

511
Q

How should patients with stroke be assessed for disability?

A

GCS
Swallowing - otherwise risk of aspiration and/or NG tube
Speech and Language -
Visual fields - to avoid tripping/things placed outside field of vision
Gait - if they cannot walk they need prophylaxis for DVT and pressure sores

512
Q

How do you manage a patient after the acute phase of the stroke?

A
RF reduction
Drug prophylaxis - 
daily antiplatelets (clopidogrel)
daily statin 
daily ACEi/thiazide diuretics to lower BP
discharge with community care
follow-up by GP
513
Q

How do you manage haemorrhagic stroke?

A

neurosurgical and neurocritcal care evaluation
admission to neuroscience ICU or stroke unit
airway protection
aspiration precaution

514
Q

How long does it take for TIAs to resolve?

A

80% within 1 hour and 100% within 24 hours

515
Q

What Ix is needed to determine stenosis of the carotid arteries

A

Doppler ultrasound of the carotids

listening for carotid bruits is not sensitive enough

516
Q

Name some causes of cord compression

A
Space occupying lesion 
Tumour
Abscess
Cyst
Haematoma
517
Q

What is another name for rapid afferent pupillary defect?

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

518
Q

INO stands for

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

519
Q

What are the two visual defects associated with multiple sclerosis?

A

Optic neuritis

Ineternuclear ophtalmoplegia

520
Q

What are the Ix for Multiple Sclerosis?

A
MRI- brain
MRI - spine
FBC
Metabolic panel
TFTs
B12
CSF evaluation - looking for oligoclonal bands
Evoked potentials test
521
Q

What are the grade in the MRC scale for power?

A

Grade 5 - normal
Grade 4 - move against gravity/resistance by examiner
Grade 3 - move against gravity
Grade 2 - movement only if gravity is eliminated
Grade 1 - flicker is perceptible in muscle
Grade 0 - no movement

522
Q

What are some of the contraindications to thrombolysis for treatment of ischaemic strokes

A

Onset cannot be confirmed as within 4.5 hours
Acute intracranial hemorrhage on CT scan
Seizure at onset of stroke
Symptoms of SAH
Stroke or serious head injury in the last 3 months
Major surgery or serious trauma within 2 weeks
Previous intracranial hemorrhage
Intracranial neoplasm
AV malformation or aneurysm
GI or urinary tract haemorrhage in last 3 weeks
LP in the preceding week
Platelets <100x10^9
INR >1.7
Glucose <2.7 mmol/L or >22mmol/L
Positive pregnancy test
Rapidly improving neurological signs
SBP >185 mmHg, diastolic BP>110 mmHg
Suspected acute pericarditis in addition to stroke

523
Q

What is the reference range for an INR?

A

An INR >4.5 is at risk of haemorrhage

INR <2 risk of thromboembolism

524
Q

List some causes of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Multiple sclerosis

Penetrating trauma to the spine or spinal fractures km

525
Q

Name site of lesion for FULL BODY HEMIPARESIS

A

Contralateral cerebral motor cortex

Contralateral corona radiata, internal capsule or pons

526
Q

Name site of lesion for LIMB HEMIPARESIS

A

Contralateral cerebral motor cortex
Contralateral corona radiata, internal capsule or pons
Ipsilateral spinal lateral motor tract (cervical disc prolapse)

527
Q

Name site of lesion for isolated limb weakness

A

Contralateral motor cortex
Peripheral nerve root
Peripheral nerve

528
Q

Name site of lesion for paraparesis?

A

Bilateral cerebral motor cortex
BIlateral motor spinal tracts (Cord compression)
Cauda equina (lumbar intervertebral disc prolapse)
Bilateral lumbosacral plexus (Guillain-Barre syndrome)

529
Q

Name site of lesion for tetraplegia

A

Bilateral motor tracts of cervical spinal cord

Peripheral nerves

530
Q

Name site of lesion for proximal muscle weakness

A
Neuromuscular junction (myastenia gravis, Eaton-Lambert syndrome) 
Muscles or secondary to other conditions (hyperparathyroidism) or drugs (statins)
531
Q

What are the risk factors for gout?

A
Thiazide diuretics
Heavy, excessive alcohol use
Chronic renal failure
Chemotherapy
Previous history of gout 
History of renal stones
532
Q

What are the risk factors for septic arthritis?

A

Immunosuppresion: Diabetes, HIV, on steriods

Prosthetic joints

533
Q

How would you approach examining a painful joint?

A

Examine one joint above and one joint below

Then LOOK FEEL AND MOVE

534
Q

What is the difference between articular and periarticular conditions?

A

Articular - diffusely inflamed joint and pain on passive as well as active movement (pain all the time)
Periarticular - one point of tenderness and worse on active movement more than passive

535
Q

What 3 nail conditions is associated with psoriasis?

A

Pitting
Onycholysis
Subungal hyperkeratosis

536
Q

What is uveitis?

A

Inflammation of the middle layer of the eye,
Painful red eye with diminished vision
Irregularly shaped pupil

537
Q

What are some signs of pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Clubbing

Fine crackles at the end of inspiration

538
Q

LEARNING POINT: Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with inflammatory arthropathies (like RA) and methotrexate

A

DON”T FORGET

RA - METHOTREXATE - PULMONARY FIBROSIS

539
Q

What investigation should you to exclude septic arthritis?

A

Arthrocentesis

540
Q

What findings are possible from arthrocentesis?

A

Gout - urate crystals, negatively birefringent, needle-shaped
Pseudogout: Calcium pyrophosphate crystals, positive birefringent and rhomboid
Infection: cloudy, raised WCC, raised neutrophils, bacteria on a microscope
Haemoarthrosis: Blood
Fracture: Presence of fat globules
Just white cells - inflammatory
Normal asspirate - trauma or osteoarthritis

541
Q

What kind of inflammatory arthropathies are there?

A
Reactive arthritis 
Enteric arthopathy
Rheumatoid arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
Rheumatic fever
542
Q

What are the following antibodies used to detect?

A

Rheumatoid factor - RA
Anticyclic citrullinated peptid antibodies - RA
Antinuclear antibody - SLE

543
Q

Where are the two most common sites for flare up of gout?

A

The big toe - podagra

The knee

544
Q

High does aspirin is sometimes contraindicated in patients with gout, why?

A

Because ti can cause hyperuricaemia by impairing urate excretion

545
Q

What is the triad of reactive arthritis (a.k.a Reiter’s syndrome)

A

Uveitis - Can’t see
Urethritis - Can’t pee
Arthritis - Can’t climb a tree

It is usually after either gastroenteritis or sexually transmitted urethritis

546
Q

What are the likely infective organisms in native joints ?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Mycobacterium tuberculosis - immunosuppresed

Neisseria gonorrhoeae - STD

Salmonella - sickle cell disease

547
Q

What is the likely infective organisms in a prostehtic joint?

A

Staphyloccus epidermidis

548
Q

What are the radiographic features of osteoarthritis?

A

L - Loss of joint space
O - Osteophyte formation
S - Subchondral sclerosis
S - Subchondral cysts

549
Q

List DDx of unilateral acutely swollen calf

A
DVT
Cellulitis
Ruptured Baker's cyst
Muscular strain (torn gastrocnemius)
Septic arthritis (knee, ankle)
Allergic response 
Compartment syndrome
550
Q

List DDx of bilateral swollen legs?

A
Right heart failure
Lymphoedema
Venous insufficiency
Pregnancy 
Vasodilators (Calcium channel blockers
Hypoalbuminaemia: from nephrotic syndrome, liver failure, malabsorption/malnutrition or sepsis
Pelvic tumor compressiong the IVC
Fluid overload
551
Q

Key features of venous ulcers

A

Moderately painful
Better when eleveated
Present late because they are not painful

Associated with: 
varicose veins
stasis eczema 
heavy legs 
swelling around ulcer
552
Q

What are some of the indications of peripheral vascular disease?`

A

Claudication
Impotence
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

553
Q

What are some RF for hypercoagulable blood you have to screen for in patients?

A

Have you had any falls or damage recently?
Have you undergone any major surgery in the last 3 months?
Have you been pregnant or given birth recently?
Do you have any inflammatory bowel disease?
Do you have cancer?
Is the patient obese?
Are you on the OCP or HRT?
Has anyone in the family every had clots in the legs?
Have you ever had clots in your legs before?

554
Q

When screening for cellulitis or septic arthritis what kinds of questions would you ask?

A

Have you had any cuts, insect bite or other wounds to your leg

555
Q

LEARNING POINT: Cellulitis can spread fairly quickly along the affected limb whereas other pathologies are likely to remain confined in the short term

A

LEARNING POINT: Radiotherapy or surgery can lead to lymphoedema
Low grade pyrexia is possible with DVT

556
Q

Where are you most likely to find pressure ulcers?

A

Heel

Malleoli

557
Q

How will the different ulcers look like?

A

Venous - Irregular, sloping, white

Arterial - Well defined, deep, punched out edges

Neuropathic and pressure - Raised callous edges

558
Q

What are some causes of a raised D-dimer

A
PE
DVT
Cellulitis
ACS
Atrial fibrillation
Pneumonia
Vasculitis
Sickle cell crises
Superficial phlebitis
Malignancies 
DIC
559
Q

What is Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)?

A

It measured to exlcude arterial disease as a cause of the ulcer

It’s measured using a sphygmomanometer and portable Doppler probe

ABPI = ratio of ankle systolic pressure: brachial systolic pressure

ABPI <0.8 - ulcer is mixed venous and arterial and compression will make an arterial ulcer worse

560
Q

Why is it important to know FBC in any patient with ischaemic related pathology?

A

Anaemia will make the iscahemia worse

561
Q

List some of the features of compartment syndrome

A

A tense, shiny swollen limb (calf more than a joint)
Painful to passive movement
Progression to neurovascular compromise

Can lead to Volkmann’s contracture)

562
Q

What are the 6P’s of acute limb ischaemia?

A
Pale
Paralysed
Paraesthesia
Painful 
Pulseless
Perishingly cold
563
Q

What is the appropriate management for a venous ulcer?

A

Give her enough nutrition

Encourage patients to move around/lose weight

Elevate the leg

Give compression bandages

Graduated class I or II elastic stockings

Varicose vein surgery

564
Q

List some diseases which make blood more likely to clot

A

Malignancy
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Polycythaemia

565
Q

List some drugs which make blod more likely to clot

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill
HRT
Heparin - caused heparin induced thrombocytopenia

566
Q

What are the risks of percutaneous angioplasty?

A

Infection
Haemorrhage
Haematoma
Adverse reaction to the analgesia

Thrombosis/embolisaition
Perforation of artery
Aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm
Reaction to contrast dye

567
Q

List some features of venous insufficiency

A

Lipodermatosclerosis
Haemosiderin staining
Atrophie blanche
Venous eczema

568
Q

What are the side effects of warfarin?

A
HAEMORRHAGE
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, rash 
Purple toes and skin necrosis
Hepatic dysfunction 
Jaundice
Pancreatitis
569
Q

What percentage of the population has a patent foramen ovale?

A

10%
This is significant because of the 35% of the people who get thromboembolic strokes where the origin is not know, 20% have a patent formane ovale which allows a thrombus from the veins to get into the systemic circulation

570
Q

LEARNING POINT: D-dimer is SENSITIVE not SPECIFIC for DVT

Even if D-dimer is negative but pre-test probability is high you would still do the scan

A

What that means if that if there is a DVT then the D-dimer will LIKELY be raised (NOT ALWAYS) however, it being raised does not SPECIFICALLY INDICATE that the patient has a DVT
D-dimer is useful for excluding DVT is the Wells score is low. It should be used in conjunction with the Wells score

571
Q

What is the target INR range for a patient with a DVT?

A

2-3

572
Q

What is the target INR for a patient with an arterial thromboembolism or with DVT already on oral anticoagulants?

A

3-4

573
Q

Which organism most likely causes cellulits?

A

Staphylococcus pyogenes

Staphylococcus aureus

574
Q

List the DDx for a leg ulcer

A
Venous ulcer
Mixed arterial/venous ulcer
Arterial (atherosclerotic) ulcer
Pressure ulcer
Neuropathic ulcer
Lymphoedema ulcer
Traumatic ulcer 
Malignant ulcer 
Vasculitic ulcer
Infective ulcer
Hameolytic anameia
575
Q

How do the different types of ulcer differ in terms of pain?

A

Venous ulcers - LESS painful when elevated and drained of blood, only 30% are painful
Arterial ulcers - MORE painful when elevated and drained
Neuropathic ulcers - loss of sensation, NOT PAINFUL
Pressure ulcers - Tender to touch, not inherently painful

576
Q

How do the different ulcers differ in terms of when they present?

A

Arterial ulcer - present early due to pain
Neuropathic pain - present late due to lack of sensation
Venous ulcer - presents late, long, recurrent history
Pressure ulcer - develop rapidly
LONG HISTORY: Marjolin ulcer (squamous cell carcinoma)

577
Q

Key features of venous ulcers

A

Moderately painful
Better when eleveated
Present late because they are not painful

Associated with: 
varicose veins
stasis eczema 
heavy legs 
swelling around ulcer
578
Q

What are some of the indications of peripheral vascular disease?`

A

Claudication
Impotence
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

579
Q

Where are you most likely to find a venous ulcer?

A

On the GAITER AREA (side of the leg above the ankle)

Especially medial side

580
Q

Where are you most likely to find an arterial ulcer?

A

The ball of the foot
Between the toes
Between the tips of toes
Lateral malleolus

581
Q

Where are you most likely to find a neuropathic ulcer?

A

Pressures areas of the foot

Beneath the metatarsal heads

582
Q

How will the different ulcers look like?

A

Venous - Irregular, sloping, white

Arterial - Well defined, deep, punched out edges

Neuropathic and pressure - Raised callous edges

583
Q

What Ix do you perform for a patient with an ulcer?

A

Bloods: FBC, Fasting lipids - to assess atherosclerosis

Capillary gluocse: Assessing whether she has capillary gluocse

Urinalysis:

Venous duplex ultrasound

Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)

Swabbing

584
Q

What is Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)?

A

It measured to exlcude arterial disease as a cause of the ulcer

It’s measured using a sphygmomanometer and portable Doppler probe

585
Q

Why is it important to know FBC in any patient with ischaemic related pathology?

A

Anaemia will make the iscahemia worse

586
Q

Why would an arterial duplex ultrasonography of a patient’s lower limbs be done?

A

It is used to assess how patent his arteries are and whether there is potential for revascularisation

587
Q

What are the 6P’s of acute limb ischaemia?

A
Pale
Paralysed
Paraesthesia
Painful 
Pulseless
Perishingly cold
588
Q

What is the appropriate management for a venous ulcer?

A

Give her enough nutrition

Encourage patients to move around/lose weight

Elevate the leg

Give compression bandages

Graduated class I or II elastic stockings

Varicose vein surgery

589
Q

What are the surgical interventions for treating varicose veins?

A
  1. Avulsion/phlebectomy - small incisions are made along the varicose vein and they are then pulled out
  2. Stripping - small incisions are made at the ends of the veins and a hook and wire is used to pull them out
  3. Radiofrequency ablation - high-energy radio veins are used to seal the vein from within
590
Q

What are the general risks of any procedure?

A

Infection
Haemorrhage
Haematoma
Adverse reaction to the analgesia

591
Q

List some features of venous insufficiency

A
Venous guttering
Lipodermatoscelrosis
Haemosiderin staining
Atrophie blanche
Venous eczema
592
Q

Which factors can impair ulcer healing?

A

Diabetes mellitus
Anaemia
Smoking
Malnutrition