Radiology in Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

x-rays: are they safe?

A
  • “All-or-none” phenomenon
  • Location of irradiation
  • Amount of radiation
  • Timing (during pregnancy) of exposure
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2
Q

harmful effects of ionizing radiation

A
  • Cell death and birth defects (Teratogenesis)
  • Carcinogenesis
  • Genetic effects
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3
Q

HDR and Carcinogenesis: weak data

A
  • Unclear risk, probably very small
  • At 10-20 mGy, 1/2000 develop childhood leukemia
    • Background risk is 1/3000
  • Non-irradiated siblings also have higher risk of leukemia
  • Termination of pregnancy should not be based on exposure to typical dosing
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4
Q

genetic effects of radiation

A
  • May increase frequency of natural mutations, not create de novo mutations
  • No increased risk of genetic disorders has been noted in any human population at any dose
  • “Little or no evidence exists for estimating the frequency or magnitude of genetic effects on future generations”
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5
Q

nuclear medicine and pregnancy

A
  • “Tagging” a chemical agent with a radioisotope
  • Fetal exposure depends on radioisotope’s physical and biochemical properties
    • Tc 99m – used in brain, bone, renal, CV scans
      • Exposure < 0.5 rads
    • VQ Scans – Tc 99m for perfusion, 127Xe or 133Xe for ventilation
      • Exposure ~ 50 mrad (0.05 rads)
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6
Q

MRI contrast agents

A
  • Gadolinium and iron oxide based agents are most commonly used
  • Gadolinium is associated with nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF), especially in “free” form
    • AKA nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy (NFD)
    • Disease of fibrosis of the skin and internal organs
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7
Q

safety of ultrasound in pregnancy

A
  • Sound waves, not ionizing radiation
  • No reports of adverse fetal effects
  • FDA arbitrarily limits energy exposure
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8
Q

indications for first trimester ultrasound

A
  • Confirm fetal viability and dates
  • Rule out ectopic pregnancy
  • Diagnose multifetal pregnancy
  • Guidance for removal of IUD
  • Rule out molar pregnancy
  • Guidance for chorionic villous sampling
  • Nuchal translucency testing
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9
Q

pregnancy dating

A
  • Error of ultrasound:
    • ≤ 8-6/7 weeks: 5 days
    • 9 to 15-6/7 weeks: 7 days
    • 16 to 21-6/7 weeks: 10 days
    • 22 to 27-6/7 weeks: 14 days
    • 28 to term: 21 days
  • Assessment of fetal growth patterns linked to ultrasound error
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10
Q

pregnancy with IUD

A
  • Higher risk of ectopic
  • 50-60% risk of miscarriage if left inside uterus
  • String retraction hampers removal
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11
Q

ectopic pregnancy and ultrasound

A
  • Most ectopic pregnancies are tubal
  • Presentation: 7-8 weeks
  • Clinical triad: Pain, bleeding, amenorrhea
  • Ultrasound cannot definitively rule OUT an ectopic pregnancy, but can rule IN an intrauterine pregnancy
  • Other less common sites: cornual, cervical
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12
Q

molar pregnancy and ultrasound

A
  • Molar gestation – neoplastic placental growth
  • Fetus present (partial) or absent (complete)
  • Inheritance: uniparental disomy
  • Lab: high levels of HCG
  • Symptoms: hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism
  • US: “Snowstorm” or “Grape-like” clusters
  • High incidence of fetal CNS anomalies
  • Uniparental disomy – both chromosomes come from dad or both come from mom
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13
Q

CVS and ultrasound

A
  • Biopsy of placental tissue at 10-13 weeks
  • Diagnoses chromosomal or genetic disorders for which DNA testing is available
  • Ultrasound guides needle/catheter into placental tissue
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14
Q

fetal nuchal translucency

A
  • 11.5 and 14.5 weeks
  • Abnormal edema associated with chromosomal and fetal structural abnormalities
    • Down syndrome
    • Fetal anomalies mostly cardiac
  • If pt has test that shows nuchal translucency that is greater than 3, this is BAD
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15
Q

1st trimester cystic hygroma

A
  • Commonly associated with Downs, trisomy 18, and turner syndrome
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16
Q

2nd trimester ultrasound uses

A
  • Assessing gestational age
  • Multifetal pregnancy detection
  • Screening for fetal anomalies
  • Placental localization and evaluation
  • Amniotic fluid evaluation
  • Guidance for amniocentesis
17
Q

components of a 2nd trimester ultrasound

A
  • Gestational age / fetal growth
  • Fetal position
  • Fetal number
  • Placental location
  • Amniotic fluid volume
  • Uterine evaluation – fibroids, anomalies
  • Cervical evaluation
  • Fetal anatomy
18
Q

placenta

A
  • Where is it?
    • Anterior
    • Posterior
    • Fundal
    • Covering the cervical os
  • Is it abnormal?
    • Molar pregnancy
    • Has it separated?
    • Abruptio placenta
19
Q

placenta previa

A
  • Higher incidence in assisted reproductive technologies (insemination, IVF)
20
Q

placental location and appearance

A
  • Placenta previa
    • Complete, partial or marginal
    • Common in 2nd (5%) and rare in 3rd trimester (0.5%)
    • Higher incidence in multiparas, elderly, previous cesarean section or abortion
  • May detect retroplacental or retromembranous clot – abruptio placenta
  • If placenta is within 2 cm of the os, the possibility of bleeding is 50%
21
Q

amniotic fluid assessment

A
  • Increased: Polyhydramnios
    • Diabetes
    • Upper GI tract obstruction
    • Chromosomal abnormalities
    • Muscular lesions affecting swallowing
  • Decreased: Oligohydramnios
    • Rupture of the membranes
    • Absent fetal renal tissue or lower urinary tract obstruction
    • Intrauterine growth restriction
22
Q

uterine evaluation during obstetical sonography

A
  • Overall shape and size
  • Presence of anomalies
    • Uterus didelphys (including double cervix)
    • Uterine septa, bicornuate uterus
  • Presence of tumor – leiomyoma
23
Q

cervical evaluation during 2nd trimester

A
  • Normal cervical length: > 2.5 cm
  • Borderline area: 2.0-2.5 cm
  • Abnormally short: < 2.0 cm
  • Normal shortening process during gestation
  • Most helpful evaluation between 18-22 weeks
  • Funneling
  • “Hourglassing” membranes
  • Placement of cervical cerclage
24
Q

fetal anatomic survey

A
  • Systematic survey for fetal anomalies
  • Performed usually between 16 and 22 week
  • CNS
  • Cardiopulmonary
  • Gastrointestinal
  • Genitourinary
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Umbilical cord
  • Fetal exterior
25
Q

fetal anatomy: CNS and Spine

A
  • Cerebral ventricles
  • Posterior fossa and cerebellum
  • Cavum septum pellucidum
  • Cranium
    • Encephalocele
    • Hypo- and hypertelorism
  • Spina bifida
    • Myelocele
    • Myelomeningocele
26
Q

cardiopulmonary assessment

A
  • 4 chamber heart, outflow tracts
  • Echogenic foci
  • Cardiac masses – myxoma, rhabdomyoma
  • Pulmonary evaluation
    • Diaphragmatic herniation
    • Masses:
      • Cystic adenomatoid malformations (CCAM)
      • Bronchopulmonary sequestration
    • Effusions
27
Q

gastrointestinal assessment

A
  • GI tract obstruction
    • Absence of stomach “bubble”
      • Tracheo-esophageal fistula
    • “Double bubble”
      • Duodenal atresia
    • Anal atresia
  • Ascites
  • “Echogenic” bowel – brightness = bone brightness
    • Trisomy 21
    • Cystic fibrosis
    • Intrauterine bleeding
    • Intrauterine infections – CMV, toxoplasmosis
28
Q

genitournary assessment

A
  • Normal anatomy
    • Kidneys and bladder seen
    • Ureters and urethra not seen
  • Abnormal:
    • Dilated renal pelvis – obstructive, “flaccid”
    • Obstructions: UPJ, UVJ, urethral (bladder outlet), hydronephrosis
    • Renal, ovarian cysts
    • Hypospadias, penile anomalies
    • Cystic renal changes
29
Q

umbilical cord assessment

A
  • Number of vessels
    • 2 vessel cord associated with chromosomal, skeletal, GU tract abnormalities – up to 50%
  • Insertion site into abdomen
    • Defects
      • Gastroschisis
      • Omphalocele
30
Q

musculoskeletal assessment

A
  • Calvarium
  • Long bones
    • Presence or absence
    • Length
    • Bowing
    • Fractures
  • Digits – Number and orientation
  • Abnormalities: - skeletal dysplasias, spondylolystheses, ichythyoses
31
Q

fetal exterior/integument assessment

A
  • Craniofacial
    • Cleft lip and palate
    • Cystic hygroma
  • Teratomas
    • Sacrococcygeal
32
Q

3rd trimester assessment

A
  • Fetal growth
    • Biometry
    • Fluid assessment: AFI
  • Fetal well-being
    • Biophysical profile
    • Doppler studies
  • Fetal pulmonary maturity studies
    • LBC, SA Ratio, LS ratio, PG level
33
Q

macrosomia greater than 90th percentile for GA

A
  • Often associated with diabetes
  • CPD/Shoulder dystocia
  • US widely used to estimate fetal weight
  • Cesarean section recommended for:
    • 4750 gm (non-diabetic)
    • 4250 gm (diabetic)
34
Q

fetal growth assessment: IUGR <10th percentile for GA

A
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • Renal disease and hypertension
  • Connective tissue diseases – lupus
  • Perinatal infections – CMV, toxoplasmosis, etc.
  • Thrombophilia – clotting abnormalities
  • Placental abnormalities
35
Q

fetal well-being by ultrasound: fluid assessment

A
  • Amniotic fluid volume is an indicator of fetal renal output
  • Decreased amniotic fluid is associated with increased rate of perinatal mortality
36
Q

biophysical profile

A
  • Excellent predictor of fetal well being
  • 4 ultrasound parameters + NST
    • Fetal breathing
    • Fetal tone
    • Fetal movement
    • Amniotic fluid volume (2 cm pocket)
  • 2 points for each normal parameter
  • Normal: ≥ 7 points
37
Q

MRI and pregnancy

A
  • Magnets alter energy state of hydrogen protons
  • May be helpful in diagnosis of fetal CNS defects and IUGR
  • May also help in detecting placenta accreta
  • Some agencies advise against use in 1st trimester but no reports of adverse effects