Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a radiograph?

A

An image produced by X-rays passing through an object and interacting with the photographic emulsion on a film. If a digital image is being formed, the X-rays affect a sensor or a phosphor plate.

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2
Q

What do the X-rays have an affect on in digital radiography?

A

A sensor or phosphor plate

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3
Q

Why are X-rays used in Dentistry?

A

allow us to look inside the body particularly at mineralised tissues. Teeth are mineralised (enamel more so than dentine). Caries and other dental diseases can cause demineralisation.

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4
Q

What can cause demineralisation?

A

Caries

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5
Q

What are the two main groups of radiographs?

A

Intra-oral and Extra-oral

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6
Q

Explain intra-oral radiographs

A

Film or sensor placed inside the mouth next to the area of interest and a radiation source is directed at the area from an external position.

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7
Q

What are the three main types of intra-oral radiographs?

A

Periapicals, bitewings and occlusals.

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8
Q

Explain extra-oral radiographs

A

Nothing is placed in the mouth instead both the radiation source and image receptor are positioned externally. The most common type is a DPT.

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9
Q

What is the most common type of extra-oral radiograph?

A

DPT

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10
Q

Describe the discovery of X-rays

A

November 1895, Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered X-rays. Imaged his wife’s hand December 22 1895. Paper published 28th December 1895.

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11
Q

When was the first recorded case of adverse effects of radiation?

A

March 1896, New England Journal of Medicine - reported a woman had imaging of face and after her hair began to fall out, her skin became swollen, cracked and inflamed and she felt generally unwell.

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12
Q

When were radiographs first used in Dentistry?

A

1896

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13
Q

Describe the composition of the atom

A

Nucleus containing protons and neutrons. Overall the nucleus has a positive charge.
Electrons which have a negative charge orbit the nucleus in different energy shells eg. K, L, M etc.

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14
Q

Are the number of electrons in each shell of an atom limited?

A

Yes, each shell contains a maximum number of electrons.

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15
Q

How many electrons are in the following shells? K, L, M, N, O

A
K=2
L=8
M=18
N=32
O=50
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16
Q

What is the forbidden zone in an atom?

A

Electrons can move from shell to shell but cannot exist between shells - the forbidden zone.

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17
Q

What is the binding energy?

A

Electron binding energy, also called ionization potential, is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom, a molecule, or an ion.

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18
Q

What keeps the electrons in their shells?

A

Their binding energy. This energy must be overcome to remove an electron from the atom.

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19
Q

Which electrons have the highest binding energy?

A

Electrons in the outer shells have the highest binding energy however, as they are further from the nucleus they often move out from their shells into the areas between the atoms and can form bonds to form molecules.

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20
Q

What is an isotope?

A

An atom with the same amount of protons but a different number of neutrons.

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21
Q

What is the atomic number Z?

A

The number of protons

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22
Q

What is the atomic number N?

A

The number of neutrons

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23
Q

What is the atomic mass number?

A

Z+N the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

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24
Q

What is a radioisotope?

A

An isotope with an unstable nuclei which undergoes radioactive disintegration.

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25
Q

What do protons and electrons in an atom have in common?

A

An atom contains equal numbers of protons and electrons.

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26
Q

For the symbol of an atom where is the mass number written and where is the atomic number written?

A

The mass number is at the top (Z+N)

The atomic number is at the bottom (No. of protons)

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27
Q

The atomic number of a sodium atom is 11 and its mass number is 23. Calculate the number of protons, neutrons and electrons it contains.

A
Protons = 11
Neutrons = 12
Electrons = 11
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28
Q

What is an ion?

A

A charged atom or molecule. The number of electrons does NOT equal the number of protons. eg. anion or cation

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29
Q

What is an anion?

A

An ion where there are more electrons than protons so therefore a negative charge.

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30
Q

What is a cation?

A

An ion with more protons than electrons so therefore a positive charge.

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31
Q

Name the three main radioactive emissions

A

Alpha particles, Beta particles, Gamma rays

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32
Q

Describe an alpha particle

A
2 protons and 2 neutrons (helium nucleus)
Size - Large
Charge - Positive 
Speed - Slow
Penetration - 1-2mm in tissue
Energy - 1-8MeV (mega electron volts)
Damage potential - extensive ionisation
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33
Q

Describe a beta particle

A
Electrons (fast electrons)
Size - small
Charge - negative
Speed - fast
Penetration - 1-2cm in tissue
Energy - 100keV-6MeV
Damage potential - ionisation
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34
Q

Describe gamma rays

A
Electromagnetic radiation
Size - Nil
Charge - Nil
Speed - very fast
Penetration - can pass through tissue
Energy - 1.24keV-12.4MeV
Damage potential - ionisation
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35
Q

Describe the X-rays used in dentistry

A
Do not occur naturally.
Not involved in radioactive decay.
Not particulate - no mass or weight
Very fast
No charge.
Identical to gamma rays with lower energy values.
Cause ionisation.
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36
Q

When is ionisation a problem?

A

When it occurs in living cells.
Can cause damage to tissues - eg. cataracts
Can cause damage to DNA directly or produce chemicals that do this damage - tumours or cancer.

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37
Q

What does the electromagnetic spectrum base the spectrum on?

A

The properties of different parts of the spectrum depend on the wavelength of the particular area eg. radiowaves large wavelength, Gamma rays short wavelength

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38
Q

How fast does radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum travel?

A

At the speed of light. (299,792,458m/s)

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39
Q

What mass does radiation in the EM have?

A

No mass.

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40
Q

What is a photon?

A

A packet of energy.

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41
Q

What is energy measured in?

A

Electron volts (eV) or volts (V)

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42
Q

What is frequency measured in?

A

Cycles per second or Hertz (Hz)

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43
Q

What is wavelength measured in?

A

Metres or nanometres (10 to the -9)

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44
Q

What is the wavelength of visible light?

A

400-700nm

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45
Q

What is the wavelength?

A

the distance between successive crests of a wave, especially points in a sound wave or electromagnetic wave. S-shaped.

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46
Q

What is the frequency?

A

Frequency is the number of waves that form in a given length of time. It is usually measured as the number of wave cycles per second, or hertz (Hz).

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47
Q

What is the formula for frequency?

A

Frequency (Hz) = cycles/seconds

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48
Q

What is the domestic electrical supply?

A
220/240 volts
13 amp current (usually)
50Hz
circuits can be fused at 3, 5 or 13 amps.
Cookers etc have 30 amp circuits.
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49
Q

What is the SI unit of voltage?

A

Volt

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50
Q

What is voltage?

A

the power or force that causes a current to move along a wire of for electrons to move across a gap from a cathode to an anode.

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51
Q

What is 1 volt?

A

1 volt is the potential difference between 2 points on a conducting wire, carrying a constant current of 1 amp when the power dissipated between the points is 1 watt.

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52
Q

What direction does current pass along a wire?

A

from -ve to +ve.

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53
Q

Is electricity supply in one direction?

A

No electricity supply is alternating.

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54
Q

How is current passed along a wire?

A

By the vibration of electrons.

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55
Q

Describe the conversion of energy

A

Energy is not created nor destroyed, it can only be changed from one form to another.

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56
Q

Describe the basic principle/make up of a dental radiograph.

A

X-ray source, object, receptor.

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57
Q

Name the two types of bitewings

A

Horizontal or vertical

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58
Q

Name the two types of occlusals

A

maxilla or mandible

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59
Q

Name 5 extra oral radiographic techniques

A
DPT
Lateral cephalogram
Posterior-anterior mandible
Lateral-oblique mandible
Occipito-mental views of facial bones
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60
Q

Name some of the uses of peri-apicals

A
Detect apical infection
Assess periodontal problems
Trauma - fractures of tooth or bone
Morphology pre extraction
Position/presence of unerupted teeth
Endodontics
Pre-post apical surgery
Evaluation of implants
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61
Q

Name the two different techniques of peri-apicals and their differences

A
1) Paralleling technique periapical
use holders for positioning
receptor parallel to tooth
accurate/reproducible image
2) Bisected angle periapical
can be done without holder
operator dependent 
not reproducible
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62
Q

What is the periodical technique of choice?

A

Paralleling technique

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63
Q

Explain the paralleling technique for periapicals

A

uses holders to facilitate positioning
allows accurate geometry of image
receptor parallel to tooth
X-ray beam perpendicular to tooth/receptor
minimises magnification
accurate/reproducible image
holders are bulky and may not be tolerated by all patients.
Can reduce patient dose to patient by reducing repeats and does not expose patients fingers (see bisected angle periapicals)

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64
Q

Name the two types of receptor

A

digital or film

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65
Q

Name the different parts that make up the holder

A

bite block - retains the receptor
indicator arm/rod - fits into bite block
Aiming ring - slides onto arm to establish alignment of collimator with receptor

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66
Q

Name two types of holder you can get

A

Anterior or posterior

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67
Q

What to the holders allow?

A

Accurate geometry of image

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68
Q

How is the vertical plane of the film positioned in relation to the tooth?

A

the vertical plane of the tooth should be positioned so that it is parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
Film and tooth parallel vertically

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69
Q

How is the horizontal plane of the film positioned in relation to the tooth?

A

horizontal plane must be parallel to the dental arch under examination.

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70
Q

How does distortion of an image occur?

A

If the tooth and film are not parallel

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71
Q

At what angle should the X-ray beam be in relation to the tooth/receptor?

A

At 90 degrees, right angle.

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72
Q

Name two types of distortion

A

elongation and fore-shortening

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73
Q

What can affect the image size (magnification)?

A

1) X-ray source (focal spot) to receptor distance

2) Object (tooth) to receptor distance

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74
Q

What are three things to think about when taking the X-ray?

A

Receptor position - horizontal and vertical
Beam alignment - horizontal and vertical
Distance

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75
Q

In what orientation should an image receptor be in the posterior region?

A

Horizontally/ Landscape

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76
Q

In what orientation should an image receptor be in the anterior region?

A

Vertically/portrait

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77
Q

Name four barriers to good positioning

A

Mouth size
Film size
Gag reflex
Digital sensor size and shape

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78
Q

Name the four most common sizes of film/PSP receptor

A

0, 1, 2, 4

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79
Q

What size film should be used for an adult bitewing (horizontal or vertical)?

A

2 only

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80
Q

What size film should be used for a child’s bitewing? under 10 and then over 10

A

Under 10 -> 0 or 1

Over 10 -> 2

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81
Q

What does the dot on a radiographic film represent?

A

Left or Right
Periapical - towards the crowns of the teeth
Bitewing - towards the palate

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82
Q

What does IRR17 and IRMER17 stand for?

A

Ionising Radiations Regulations 2017 (IRR17) and Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations 2017 (IRMER17)

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83
Q

Where in the X-ray machine are the X-rays produced?

A

The tube head is where the domestic electric supply is converted into ionising radiation so that we can produce the X-rays.

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84
Q

What is the potential difference between the cathode and the anode?

A

70kV

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85
Q

What charge does the anode have?

A

Positive

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86
Q

What charge does the cathode have?

A

Negative

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87
Q

Where is the filament?

A

At the cathode

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88
Q

What is the cathode made of?

A

It is a very fine wire made of tungsten - high mp and high tensile strength

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89
Q

Explain the workings of the cathode

A
Firstly the domestic supply current (13A) goes through a step down transformer
small current passed along it 8-10mA
electrons are excited - they vibrate
wire gets hot - may give off light
excited electrons lost from outer shells
electrons form cloud around cathode
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90
Q

What is the anode made of?

A

Small tungsten target embedded in copper

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91
Q

Explain what happens at the anode

A

-ve electrons bombard +ve anode
high energy electrons come to sudden stop or decelerate and energy form changes.
99% heat, 1% X-rays

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92
Q

Why is tungsten chosen for the anode?

A

it will give rise to X-rays in the wavelength or power required for dental imaging.

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93
Q

Explain the use of a step up transformer at the anode

A

Domestic supply is 240V so we need to increase it with a step-up transformer within the tube head again which is made out of copper coils.

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94
Q

Name the two types of X-ray spectra

A

Continuous spectra - Bremsstrahlung or breaking radiation, wide range of photon energies
Characteristic spectrum - emitted by loss of electrons from K and L shells, depends on material in anode

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95
Q

Name the other two names for a DPT

A

OPG, OPT

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96
Q

What happens during Bremsstrahlung (continuous spectrum) radiation production?

A

An electron from the cathode is attracted to the positively charged atom of tungsten in the anode. As it moves round the nucleus it loses its energy, maybe not all of it but there will then be an electron with much less energy moving off to react with other atoms, much of the energy given off is heat but you also get some Bremsstrahlung radiation produced too.

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97
Q

Name some of the features of continuous spectrum radiation (Bremsstrahlung radiation)

A

wide range of photon energies
small deflections most common - many low energy photons
little penetrating power - need filtering out
large deflections less likely - few high energy photons
Maximum photon energy directly related to kV across X-ray tube

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98
Q

Explain the reason for the wide range of photon energies in continuous spectrum radiation

A

There are multiple electrons being attracted towards the anode and so we get multiple reactions and multiple X-ray photons being produced. These all have a wide range of energies.

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99
Q

Explain the energy of photons produced in small deflections in the continuous spectrum and their effect on the body

A

when there is a small deflection around the nucleus (most common), we have low energy X-ray photons produced. They have little penetrating power and would be absorbed by the body therefore they need to be filtered out as it is absorbed radiation that gives rise to X-ray dose.

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100
Q

What gives rise to the X-ray dose?

A

The absorbed radiation

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101
Q

Explain large deflections of photons in the continuous spectrum

A

Large deflections are less likely and give rise to high energy photons, therefore there are going to be few of them produced.

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102
Q

What is the maximum photon energy produced directly related to?

A

the kV used across the X-ray tube

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103
Q

Explain how characteristic radiation is produced

A

for characteristic radiation to be produced an incident electron has a direct hit with an electron in the K shell, it knocks the K shell electron out which is called the ejected orbital electron. The initial electron may also be expelled from the atom as an inter-incident electron and it may have less energy now. The K shell is now deficient of one electron so it is unstable, therefore an electron from the L shell falls down to fill the space. However, that electron has too much binding energy so it gets rid of the excess energy as an X-ray photon. The gap in the L shell is then filled by an M shell electron and so on until you reach the outer shell.

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104
Q

What photon energy level is needed in a dental X-ray machine?

A

X-ray tube needs to be operating above 69.5kV for the characteristic spectrum to be produced.

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105
Q

If you are using a dental X-ray tube that works between 60-65kV what kind of radiation is produced?

A

only Bremsstrahlung radiation not tungsten characteristic radiation

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106
Q

X-rays are a part of what spectrum?

A

The electromagnetic spectrum

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107
Q

What two categories is the EM spectrum split into?

A

Ionising and non-ionising radiation

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108
Q

Discuss the link between energy, wavelength and ionising vs non-ionising radiation

A

the larger the wavelength the more likely we are to be talking about non-ionising radiation
as wavelength gets shorter, energy of photons increases and this is where ionising radiations form

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109
Q

Define scattering

A

random change in direction after hitting something

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110
Q

Define absorption

A

deposition of energy in tissues (represents dose)

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111
Q

Define intensity

A

number of X-ray photons in a defined area of the beam - further we are from the source, the more the intensity of photons decreases

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112
Q

Define attenuation

A

reduction in intensity of beam due to scattering and absorption

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113
Q

Define ionisation

A

removal of electron from a neutral atom to give -ve and +ve (atom) ions.

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114
Q

Define penetration

A

the ability of photons to pass through or into tissues/materials

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115
Q

Name 4 X-ray interactions

A

1) completely scattered with no loss of energy
2) absorbed with total loss of energy
3) scattered with some absorption and loss of energy (mix)
4) transmitted unchanged (no scattering, no absorption, no loss of energy)

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116
Q

What is internal scatter?

A

radiation passing down and scattered elsewhere in the patient’s body

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117
Q

What features do X-rays have in common with visible light?

A
it travels in straight lines in free space
X-ray photons form a divergent beam
can travel through a vaccum
Penetrate matter
can be absorbed
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118
Q

What features do X-rays not have in common with visible light?

A
Not detectable by human senses
produce a latent image on film emulsion
Cause ionisation
can cause biological damage 
cause certain salts to fluoresce and emit light
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119
Q

What is the radiation dose?

A

the radiation dose is the amount of radiation absorbed by the patient.

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120
Q

What kind of photons are absorbed by soft tissues?

A

Low energy photons - therefore they are the ones most likely to cause damage

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121
Q

What do different types of electromagnetic radiations properties depend on?

A

Their wavelength

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122
Q

Is biological harm limited to ionising radiation?

A

No - people believe microwaves can also be damaging and they are a type of non-ionising radiation

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123
Q

What is an image receptor?

A

the technical term for the item the X-ray image is formed on ie. film, plate or digital sensor

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124
Q

What causes fogging of a film?

A

some photons do not have enough energy to make a useful interaction with the receptor and this scatter can degrade the image.

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125
Q

When was the first permanently fixed image taken?

A

1827 and it required an exposure time of 8 hours.

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126
Q

What are the two ways we now use to capture X-ray images?

A

Film or Digital

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127
Q

What are the two sub-categories of Film X-rays?

A

Direct action film and indirect action film

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128
Q

What are the two sub-categories of Digital X-rays?

A

Solid state sensor and photo-stimulable phosphor

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129
Q

Describe a direct action film

A

Dental intra-oral. X-rays act directly on silver halide crystals in film emulsion.

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130
Q

Describe an indirect action film

A

Dental Extra-Oral. Light from intensifying screens act on silver halide crystals in film emulsion. The X-ray photons react with the intensifying screens to produce photons which expose the film to produce the image.

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131
Q

Describe how a solid state CCD or CMOS sensor works (types of digital X-ray)

A

CCD = Charge-coupled device
CMOS = complimentary metal-oxide semiconductor
They work by converting light into electrons. The info is then collected by a computer programme and made into an image.

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132
Q

Describe how a PSP works (type of digital X-ray)

A

PSP = Photostimulable phosphor plate
Latent image produced by interaction of X-rays with phosphor layer on plate. The phosphor coating is exposed to X-rays which causes a reaction with the phosphor which is known as the stable excited state.
The plate is then dropped into the vista scan unit where it is scanned by a red laser. This is then the unstable excited state. The blue light emitted is collected and converted into the image.

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133
Q

What does a vista scan tower do?

A

Scan PSP Plates

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134
Q

Name differences between PSP plates and solid state sensors

A

Phosphor plate = used with existing film holders, tolerated well by patients, plates easily damaged, relatively expensive, sensitive to background radiation
Solid state sensor = only used with its own holders, not tolerated well by patients, sensors are very expensive, easily damaged, image resolution better than PSP.

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135
Q

Describe the two sides of a PSP

A

one pale side with a phosphor coating (coating can be of various compounds eg. barium fluoride). This is the side the image is formed on.
Other side is black and shows size of film and orientation dot. This is the back of the plate.

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136
Q

Explain the production of an image on PSP plates

A

Phosphor layer exposed to X-rays
X-ray energy stored in electrons of phosphor crystals (trapped signal) - latent image
plate inserted into scanner
phosphor layer scanned by red laser
stored energy released as blue light
light detected by photodetector and sent to signal digitiser (ADC = Analogue to digital converter)
ADC converts light to digital signal - each pixel assigned numerical value according to intensity
Numerical values represent different shades of grey which are used in image.

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137
Q

After a PSP plate has been used how is it cleared to be re-used?

A

After a PSP plate has been scanned and image obtained there is still residual trapped energy in phosphor electrons after scanning. Image on plate is erased by exposing phosphor to bright light (releases any remaining trapped energy in phosphor electrons).
Plates then ready to re-use.

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138
Q

Name the four layers in a Charge coupled device detector

A

Front to back

Front cover, scintillator layer, silicon wafer, back cover

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139
Q

Describe the role of the 4 layers in a CCD detector

A

Front cover
Scintillator layer - converts X-ray energy to light
Silicon Wafer - converts light into electrical signal
Back cover - often incorporates a cable to carry signal to PC (or wireless)

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140
Q

What is the scintillator layer in a CCD detector made of?

A

either caesium iodide or gadolinium oxysulphide

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141
Q

Describe how CCD creates X-ray image

A

X-rays hit scintillator layer (caesium iodide or gadolinium oxysulphide)
reaction gives off light which hits photosensitive cells in silicon wafer layer
electrons within each cell (pixel) are released and these form a charge (voltage) which its converted into an image by the computer.
Each cell is connected to its neighbour and the signal converted to the image is from a line of neighbouring cells.

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142
Q

Describe the difference between CCD and CMOS

A

CMOS is very similar to CCD
Only difference is that the photocells are electrically isolated therefore a signal (voltage) is sent from each individual cell (pixel) rather than a line of cells (pixels).

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143
Q

What is an issue with digital images?

A

There is no orientation dot. With many radiographs it can get confusing and be easy to look at an image in the wrong orientation.

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144
Q

Which has better image quality - CCD or CMOS?

A

CCD but CMOS catching up

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145
Q

Which is cheaper to manufacture - CCD or CMOS?

A

CMOS

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146
Q

Which has been around longest - CCD or CMOS?

A

CCD

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147
Q

Which uses less power - CCD or CMOS?

A

CMOS

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148
Q

Name some advantages of digital imaging

A

No chemicals, faster processing, easy archiving, easy image transfer, image manipulation, dose reduction

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149
Q

Name some disadvantages of digital imaging

A

expensive-damage, reduction in resolution due to pixel size, archiving-back up, easy image transfer-security issues, image manipulation, dose reduction-shorter exposure=drop in image resolution

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150
Q

What kind of exposure have you given if the image is too dark?

A

High exposure, too much radiation given

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151
Q

What kind of exposure have you given if the image is too pale?

A

Low exposure, not enough radiation

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152
Q

Can radiographs be stored as just one copy?

A

No, there must be some form of back-up to allow access to images in case something goes wrong, eg. CD, DVD, remote hard drive

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153
Q

What archive system does DDH use to store radiographs?

A

PACS - Picture Archiving and Communication System

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154
Q

Explain how PACS works

A

Most NHS hospitals in Scotland subscribe to a company called Carestream to provide PACS. In Tayside, images are initially uploaded to the local PACS and then national PACS server which is in Livingstone. Therefore you can access them anywhere in Scotland as long as the hospital uploads to PACS.

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155
Q

What unique accession number on PACS do DDH images start with?

A

T113H

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156
Q

What size of digital receptor is used for anterior mouth periapicals in adults?

A

0 or 1

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157
Q

What size of digital receptor is used for posterior mouth periapicals in adults?

A

2

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158
Q

What size of digital receptor is used for occlusals?

A

4

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159
Q

What size of digital receptor is used for periapicals in all regions for children?

A

0 or 1

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160
Q

What size do solid state CCD or CMOS receptors tend to come in?

A

Tend to come in size 2 only. Can make X-raying anterior teeth more difficult due to the size of receptor.

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161
Q

Who is the man who claimed he was “immune” to radiation and also has many patents to his name relating dentistry?

A

Dr Edmund Kells - Dentist in New Orleans
Prolific inventor - eg. surgical aspirator, 40+ patents
1885 employed first female dental assistant
Supported conservative cavity prep
suggested “saving” pulp-less teeth
1st to take radiographs in America
Noticed adverse effects of radiation on hands of other dentists but claimed he was immune. He later suffered changes to skin and lost a number of fingers to surgery and developed a tumour on his hand.

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162
Q

Regarding the biological effects of radiation, define deterministic effects (non stochastic)

A

Those we know WILL occur

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163
Q

Regarding the biological effects of radiation, define non-deterministic effects (stochastic)

A

Those which MAY occur

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164
Q

Explain deterministic effects of radiation and the threshold dose

A

Deterministic effects definitely occur with specific doses
Threshold dose - below this the effect does not occur
SOMATIC effects
Radiotherapy - use of somatic effects in positive way

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165
Q

Name the two types of deterministic effects and what they involve

A

1) Acute - radiation sickness 2-10Sv whole body irradiation. Death >10Sv whole body irradiation
2) Chronic - hair loss, cataracts, sterility, obliterative endarteritis

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166
Q

Explain non-deterministic effects of radiation including examples of somatic and genetic effects

A

non-deterministic effects of radiation occur at random.
There is no threshold dose.
Damage affects patient and future children.
Amount of damage not related to dose.
Somatic effects - development of malignancy
Genetic effects - congenital abnormality which may include malignancy.
For genetic effects to occur reproductive organs need to be exposed to radiation.

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167
Q

Which type of radiation effects are we likely to have in dentistry?

A

Non-deterministic - this is the issue.

We do not expose patients to sufficient radiation to reach threshold dose.

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168
Q

In the UK what % of all X-ray examinations are taken by the GDP?

A

estimated 26%

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169
Q

In 2008 how many dental radiographs were taken?

A

20.5 million

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170
Q

What are the three factors that affect the dose of radiation?

A

1) Type of radiation (we only use X-rays)
2) Tissue being irradiated (diff tissues diff sensitivity)
3) Age of the patient

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171
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a bitewing/periapical?

A

0.0003-0.022mSv

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172
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a DPT?

A

0.0027-0.038mSv

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173
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a maxillary occlusal?

A

0.008

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174
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a lateral cephalometric?

A

0.0022-0.0056

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175
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a craniofacial CBCT?

A

0.03-1.1

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176
Q

What is the typical effective dose in mSv for a CT mandible and maxilla?

A

0.25-1.4

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177
Q

What is the recommended dose limit per annum for a dentist?

A

1mSv (same as general public)

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178
Q

What is the recommended dose limit per annum for a classified worker?

A

20mSv

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179
Q

What is the recommended dose limit per annum for a non-classified worker?

A

6mSv

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180
Q

What is the recommended dose limit per annum for the general public?

A

1mSv

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181
Q

What does ALARP stand for regarding the dose limits for patients?

A
As 
Low
As 
Reasonably 
Practicable
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182
Q

Will there be people who die as a result of their exposure to radiation in dentistry?

A

Although the risks from ionising radiation in dentistry are low, there are still a number of people who will die yes.

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183
Q

What is the estimated risk of developing fatal malignancy from X-ray Examination using a dental intra-oral 70kV, D speed, round?

A

1 in 1 million

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184
Q

Explain the link between age and the risk of developing adverse effects from radiation

A

The younger a patient is, the greater the risk of developing adverse effects.

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185
Q
Provide the multiplication factor for risk of cancer by ages
<10
10-20
20-30
30-50
50-80
>80
A
<10 = 3
10-20 = 2
20-30 = 1.5
30-50 = 0.5
50-80 = 0.3
>80 = negligible
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186
Q

What percentage of the estimated average UK dose is made up from medical and dental?

A

15%

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187
Q

Name some foods that are radioactive

A

Brazil nuts, butter beans, bananas, potatoes, carrots, red meat, avocado, beer, water, peanut butter - mainly from radioactive potassium

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188
Q

What does BED stand for?

A

Banana equivalent dose

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189
Q

What is 1 banana equivalent to as the percentage of average daily exposure?

A

1%

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190
Q

In terms of BED, how many BED make up the average daily exposure?

A

100 BED

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191
Q

How many BEDs are there in a Chest CT scan?

A

Chest scan = 70,000 BED = 7mSv

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192
Q

What two things must we weigh up every time we need to take a radiograph?

A

the information vs the radiation dose to the patient

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193
Q

Provide some practical means of dose reduction

A

avoid unnecessary radiographs
use of selection criteria
film speed - preferably use F speed
kV of machine - higher the kV, lower the dose
Rectangular collimation - keeps dose lower than round beam
Collimated DPT viewer - restricts beam to area of interest
Regular servicing of machines

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194
Q

Does a higher or lower kV of machine produce a lower dose of radiation?

A

The higher the kV of the machine, the lower the radiation dose to the patient.

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195
Q

Explain intensity and the inverse square law

A

The further away we are from the source, the less likely we are to be exposed to many X-ray photons.
The intensity of radiation is proportional to 1/(distance squared)
ie. you double the distance then you have quarter the intensity across the area

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196
Q

What is the controlled area?

A

The area around the patient and the X-ray tube where only the patient should be present, the rest of the controlled area should be considered a no go zone.

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197
Q

How large is the controlled area for X-ray machines operating at less than 70kV?

A

The controlled area is 1.5m in radius for X-ray machines operating at less than 70kV. It also extends in the primary beam for as long as it would take for the intensity of the radiation to be almost minimum.

198
Q

Where should the operator of the machine stand if they need to be in the line of the main beam?

A

Behind a protective barrier with the red button that makes the exposure also behind the barrier.

199
Q

What is the recommended controlled area at DDH?

A

2m or behind appropriate shielding

200
Q

What does the size of the controlled area depend on?

A

the kV of the machine

201
Q

What is direct action film used for?

A

Intra oral radiographs

202
Q

What are the layers in a direct film packet?

A

Outer plastic wrapping - keeps dry, saliva free, protects from light damage (fogging), indicates orientation (white side towards X-ray tube)
Black paper - protects from light leakage, stiffens and supports film, prevents crimp/pressure marks
Lead foil - mix of lead and aluminium, absorbs X-rays, prevents back scatter, distinct pattern embossed in lead
Film - direct action - multiple layers in itself

203
Q

What are the layers within the direct action film itself? from the inner layer to the outside

A

Base - plastic (polyester or cellulose), blue anti glare
Adhesive layer on both sides of that
Emulsion layer on both sides of that
Protective outer layer of Gelatin

204
Q

What is the emulsion made of in direct action films?

A

Silver halide crystals suspended in gelatin.
Silver bromide, silver iodide or a combination.
Gelatin allow even distribution of crystals and absorbs liquid readily to allow processing.

205
Q

What is the function of the adhesive layer in direct action films?

A

To stick the emulsion to the base.

206
Q

What is the superheat in direct action films?

A

An additional protective layer of gelatin.

207
Q

Describe image formation in direct action films

A

The X-ray photon hits silver halide crystal within emulsion. Silver halide crystal becomes sensitised. Latent image formed (not visible to naked eye but made so by chemical reactions in processing).

208
Q

What is the main reaction during image processing with direct action films?

A

The reduction of silver bromide crystals to black metallic silver.

209
Q

What is the film speed?

A

The sensitivity of film to X-rays. The exposure required to produce a given amount of blackening (optical density) on an image.

210
Q

What is film speed dependent on?

A

Size of crystals in the emulsion. Larger the crystals the faster the film speed. Faster the film speed the lower the amount of X-rays required to produce an image.

211
Q

Describe the link between silver halide crystal size in emulsion and the film speed

A

The larger the crystals the faster the film speed.

212
Q

Name two types of X-ray produced using indirect action film

A

DPT and Lateral Cephalogram

213
Q

Which type of film indirect or direct contains intensifying screens?

A

Indirect action films

214
Q

Which type of film indirect or direct contains intensifying screens inside a cassette?

A

Indirect action films

215
Q

For indirect action films, the X-rays that hit the screen are in direct proportion with what?

A

The light produced

216
Q

What are the layers in an indirect film intensifying screen? Outside to inside

A

Base - polyester
Reflective layer
Phosphor layer - fluorescent phosphors, emit light when excited by X-rays
The light produced is in proportion with the energy of the X-ray photon
Supercoat - protects phosphor layer from damage

217
Q

What are the layers in an indirect film intensifying screen? Outside to inside

A

Base - polyester
Reflective layer
Phosphor layer - fluorescent phosphors, emit light when excited by X-rays
The light produced is in proportion with the energy of the X-ray photon
Supercoat - protects phosphor layer from damage

218
Q

Discuss the intensifying screens used in indirect action films regarding image quality and dose

A

They allow a reduction in exposure and therefore a reduced dose to the patient BUT
also a reduction in the detail of the image.

219
Q

Discuss film handling and damage

A

Radiographic film susceptible to damage by pressure marks, bends and crimps. Pressure sensitises the silver halide crystals. Handle with care, hold corners/outside.

220
Q

In what conditions do you store film?

A

Cool but not too cool, Dry but not too dry.
Away from radiation - X-rays and heat
Stock rotation to prevent using old film

221
Q

What is image processing?

A

Converting the latent image into a visible image

222
Q

What is the overall process of film processing?

A

the reduction of the exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver and then making this image permanent.

223
Q

What are the three methods of film processing?

A

Manual, instant and automatic

224
Q

Name the five stages of image processing

A

Develop - make latent image visible
Wash - stop development and remove dev from film (only in manual processing)
Fix - make image permanent
Wash - stop fix and remove residual fixer
Dry - easier handled, prevent damage

225
Q

Name the components of the automatic processor

A

Feed in roller, developer rack, fixer rack, wash rack, dryer.

226
Q

What developing agents are used in the development of a radiographic film image?

A

Phenidone and hydroquinone

227
Q

What happens when you are developing a film?

A

The sensitised silver halide (iodide/bromide) crystals are acted upon by phenidone and hydroquinone which involves the chemical reduction of silver bromide to silver plus bromide. Silver is then in the form of black metallic silver. Giving blackening of the film.

228
Q

Name two developing agents

A

Phenidone and hydroquinone

229
Q

Name the activator that controls the activity of the developing agent in development of film

A

Calcium carbonate

230
Q

Name the restrainer that stops the developer working on unexposed crystals in film development

A

Potassium bromide

231
Q

Name the preservative that slows down oxidation in the development of film

A

sodium sulphite

232
Q

What is the solvent in development of film

A

Water

233
Q

Each developer has an optimum what

A

working temperature

234
Q

Name the three things that the action of the developing agent on silver halide crystals is very dependent on

A

1) Time - too long = dark, too short = light
2) Temperature - too hot = dark, too cold = light
3) Concentration - too strong = dark, too weak = light

235
Q

What does fixing do?

A

Makes the image permanent

236
Q

What do fixing agents do?

A

change unexposed silver halide crystals to soluble compound so that they can be washed away.
Acid maintains the pH and neutralises the developer.

237
Q

During fixing name the

1) Clearing agent
2) Acidifier
3) Hardener
4) Preservative
5) Solvent

A

1) ammonium thio-sulphate
2) acetic acid (maintains pH)
3) aluminium chloride
4) sodium sulphite
5) water

238
Q

What happens if an image is over-fixed?

A

the image will be removed

239
Q

What happens if an image is under-fixed?

A

It will appear to have a green tinge and will not archive well.

240
Q

If you are manually washing a film when do you do this? and also what does the washing do?

A

Between development and fixing and then again between fixing and drying.
It stops the action of the developer and reduces carry over. Removes unexposed silver halide crystals made soluble by fixer.

241
Q

If you are washing a film automatically when does this happen? and what does it do?

A

only between fixing and drying

removes unexposed silver halide crystals once made soluble by the fixer.

242
Q

What is the effect of insufficient washing?

A

Film will feel tacky. May also have a green or silvered appearance. Will not archive well - it will deteriorate.

243
Q

What does drying the film do?

A

Ensures it is dry before being handled and also reduces the possibility of damage to emulsion.

244
Q

Name the advantages and disadvantages of automatic film processing

A
Consistent
less operator dependent 
temperature controlled
time controlled
less chance of damaging film
245
Q

Name the advantages and disadvantages of manual film processing

A

very operator dependent
if done well can be as good as automatic
temp must be monitored
time must be accurate

246
Q

Name the advantages and disadvantages of instant film processing

A
chemicals in pouch attached to film
very quick
no large amount of chemicals to dispose of 
convenient
films do not archive well
247
Q

What does COSHH stand for?

A

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

248
Q

What is the potential health effect of the acidifier acetic acid?

A

skin sensitisation

249
Q

What is the potential health effect of gluteraldehyde?

A

allergic contact dermatitis

250
Q

What is the potential health effect of the developing agent hydroquinone?

A

Occupational asthma

251
Q

What is the potential health effect of potassium hydroxide?

A

Persistent cough

252
Q

What is the potential health effect of the preservative sodium sulphite?

A

COPD

253
Q

What is the potential health effect of the developing agent phenidone?

A

Possible carcinogen

254
Q

What is the potential health effect of ammonium sulphate or aluminium sulphate?

A

Headaches

255
Q

What is classed as adequate ventilation for image processing?

A

10 or more room volumes per hour

256
Q

What PPE should be worn when processing images?

A

Goggles, respirator, chemical resistant apron, chemical resistant gloves (not latex)

257
Q

How can we tell if a substance is hazardous?

A

Look at the packaging for the warning signs.

258
Q

What can bitewings be used for?

A

detecting caries, monitoring caries, assessing periodontal status, assessing existing restorations

259
Q

Discuss features of a horizontal bitewing

A

long axis of film horizontal
usually one done on each side
image 4 to 8 usually
image crowns and 1/3 roots

260
Q

Discuss features of a vertical bitewing

A

long axis of film vertical
2 done on each side
image the premolars and molars
will image more of root than horizontal bitewing

261
Q

What is a horizontal bitewing used for?

A

Caries assessment

Perio assessment

262
Q

What is a vertical bitewing used for?

A

caries assessment

perio assessment - when you need to see more of the root and supporting bone.

263
Q

What are the positioning requirements when taking a bitewing radiograph?

A

1) Film and object (tooth) parallel
2) Film close to object
3) X-ray beam perpendicular to object and film

264
Q

How do we achieve good positioning when taking bitewings?

A

Always use a holder

265
Q

What are the two types of holder used for bitewings and discuss their features

A

1) Rigid plastic - holds film accurately, assists X-ray tube positioning, uncomfortable
2) Paper tab - comfortable, X-ray tube positioned by eye, inaccurate positioning

266
Q

What is a pitfall of horizontal bitewings?

A

Horizontal overlap - sometimes difficult to avoid, crowding or tilting of teeth
acceptable if less than half of enamel superimposed
can miss carious lesions
must show EDJ and dentinal half of enamel

267
Q

What is a pitfall of vertical bitewings?

A

mis-positioning of X-ray beam

268
Q

Describe the source to object and object to receptor distances

A

long source to object distance

short object to receptor distance

269
Q

Where does the dot on the film go?

A

always to the palate

270
Q

What size of receptors are used for bitewings (V or H) in adults and children (under 10 then over 100?

A

Adults - 2 only
Child over 10 - 2
Child under 10 - 0 or 1

271
Q

What does the use of rectangular collimation do?

A

Can reduce the dose to the patient by up to 50%

272
Q

What does complying with appropriate legislation do?

A

Helps to minimise risks.

273
Q

What is the difference between a guideline and legislation?

A

A guideline advocates good practice and expert opinions - often contains “should”
Legislation HAS to be followed - often contains “must”

274
Q

What is the RPA?

A

Radiation Protection Advisor
must have one appointed
must consult them when planning new surgery, radiation overdose etc.
They establish controlled area.
Name and contact details should be in radiation protection file.
RPA and Medical Physics expert can be the same person

275
Q

What is the RPS?

A

Radiation Protection Supervisor
usually dentist or senior member of staff
must be adequately trained
to ensure compliance with IRR2017 and local rules

276
Q

What information should be in the written local rules for a practice?

A

Name of RPS and MPE
Name of person with legal responsibility for compliance - usually employer
Controlled areas - identified + described
Contingency arrangements (must be rehearsed)
Details + results of dose investigation levels
Name of RPA and contact details
Personal Dosimetry arrangements
Arrangements for pregnant staff
Reminder of IRR17 obligations
Must be displayed where X-ray equipment is

277
Q

For IR(ME)R 2017 what two positions must be appointed?

A

Medical physics expert (MPE) and RPA (Radiation Protection Advisor)
They are not always the same person

278
Q

What do MPEs have an enhanced role in?

A

Advising on IR(ME)R compliance and they need to be involved in development and review of all dental procedures.

279
Q

What are the four “roles” in radiography?

A

Employer
Referrer
Practitioner
Operator

280
Q

Which of the four roles in dental radiography must be entitled and what does this mean?

A

The referrer, practitioner and operator. They must be entitled by their operator to undertake that role. It must be within their scope of practice and they must be trained and competent to undertake the role.

281
Q

What kind of written procedures must the employer produce?

A

Entitlement of duty holders
identification of the patient
demonstrate staff training and competence
quality assurance of procedures/documentation
clinical audit

282
Q

What kind of protocols for taking radiographs must the employer produce?

A

Appoint RPA/MPE and RPS

Have and ensure staff read the LOCAL RULES

283
Q

What other duties does the employer have?

A

establish recommendations for selection criteria
establish recommendations for radiation dose levels
ensuring critical evaluation of every image is carried out, including where appropriate factors relating to patient dose.

284
Q

Discuss the selection criteria 1 for taking radiographs

A

All radiographic exposures must be justified

285
Q

What is the selection of radiograph based on?

A

The patient’s history and examination - it should be based on presence of disease and rate of progression and diagnostic accuracy of the imaging technique.

286
Q

Should the decision not to take a radiograph be recorded?

A

Yes, the decision on whether to take radiographs or to not take radiographs should always be documented in the patient’s records.

287
Q

What does the selection criteria help to do?

A

It helps to overcome the wide variation in practice and minimise or prevent any inappropriate radiographic examinations.

288
Q

Discuss the selection criteria 2 for taking radiographs

A

“descriptions of clinical conditions derived from patient signs, symptoms and history that identify patients who are likely to benefit from a particular radiographic technique”

ie. which radiograph should we take in a particular clinical situation

289
Q

What should the clinical evaluation of a radiograph include?

A

All radiographs must be clinically evaluated and findings recorded in the patients records.
They may include the quality of the radiograph - is it diagnostic or not, and any unusual factors relating to exposure or dose to the patient. Even if everything is normal it should be documented.

290
Q

What is the “referrer”?

A

A registered medical practitioner or other health professional who is ENTITLED in accordance with the employer’s procedures to refer individuals for medical exposure to a practitioner.

291
Q

What are the duties of the referrer?

A

Supply sufficient info to practitioner to allow exposure to be justified.
State that there is a net benefit to the patient
Signed request form, given details to allow correct identification of patient.

292
Q

What is the “practitioner”?

A

Registered health care professional. In dental practice this usually means a registered dentist to take responsibility for an individual medical exposure
Practitioner has big role in justification

293
Q

What are the kind of things to consider when deciding whether a radiograph is justified?

A

will exposure cause change to prognosis or management of patient?
are other radiographs/reports available?
does radiograph requested relate to history and exam of patient?
have risks and benefits been assessed?
could other techniques with lower dose be utilised?

294
Q

What can a dental nurse do in terms of radiography?

A

With no additional registration qualification they have limited entitlement as an operator - can process radiographs either conventionally or digitally
With additional qualification they can take radiographs on “prescription” of another dental registrant

295
Q

What term does IR(ME)R not use that the GDC do regarding radiography?

A

“Prescription” of radiographs

296
Q

What can a dental hygienist/therapist do in terms of radiographs?

A

According to GDC they can prescribe radiographs and take, process and interpret various film views in GDP.
Qualified for limited entitlement as referrer, operator and practitioner but this must be clarified with employer.

297
Q

What can a clinical dental technician do in terms of radiographs?

A

They can take and process radiographs and other images related to providing removable dental appliances. This assumes entitlement as an operator.
Patients with natural teeth or implants would need to be seen by a dentist before the CDT can start treatment.

298
Q

What can the dentist do in terms of radiographs?

A

They can do everything that other DCP can do. Eligible to be entitled as referrer, operator and practitioners for all dental related radiography.

299
Q

Who can take radiographs in GDP?

A

The dentist, dental hygienist or therapist, suitably qualified dental nurse, a clinical dental technician

300
Q

A clinical evaluation of a radiograph is a duty of which key role?

A

The Operator

301
Q

Which person is the only person that can “report” on all aspects of a radiograph?

A

The dentist

302
Q

Regarding the radiographic roles someone can undertake, what kind of information must be recorded?

A

Record of: training, competence in areas of - referrer duties, operator duties, practitioner duties. Signed by duty holder and employer you are ENTITLED by.

303
Q

As part of IR(ME)R how often should X-ray units be tested?

A

Preferably annually but minimum of every 3 years. Must include representative patient doses and routine maintenance by clinicians and manufacturer/supplier must be carried out.

304
Q

What should people have a knowledge of the radiographic recommendations for? eg. Caries.

A

Caries - depending on risk factors
Perio disease - depending on severity and site
Ortho assessment - possibly only from specialists
Oral surgery
Should be evidence based or specialist opinion

305
Q

Explain the info regarding comforters/carers in IR(ME)R17

A

Anyone offering assistance to a patient during examination. Their potential dose from procedure must be quantified and taken into account when justifying examination. Will need to give informed consent.

306
Q

What do you do if the dose given is greater than intended?

A

inform the patient of any dose much greater than intended. Good practice and duty of candour legislation. Also should inform the referrer.

307
Q

Should routine use of X-rays in a generalised approach be done?

A

No this is unacceptable an individual approach/prescription is required.

308
Q

What does interpretation of radiographs depend on?

A
Knowledge of:
how image is acquired
anatomy 
disease process 
Understand effects of: positioning, exposure, processing and for digital imaging - the computer algorithms and computer factors.
309
Q

When can carious lesions be detected radiographically?

A

When there is significant demineralisation. Must be distinguishable from enamel and dentine.

310
Q

Can you tell if a lesion is active or arrested from a radiograph?

A

No

311
Q

What type of radiograph is considered the gold standard for caries detection?

A

Bitewings - usually horizontal

Paralleling periapicals can be used

312
Q

When should you consider using vertical bitewings?

A

If there is periodontal bone loss as well as possible caries.

313
Q

What should you be able to see in a bitewing?

A

Crowns of teeth and coronal portion of roots
contact points with little/no overlap
alveolar bone crest
distinguish enamel from dentine
pulp chamber
any overhangs or deficiencies in restorations

314
Q

What can be mistaken for caries?

A

cervical burnout or translucency
visual perception - contrast below restoration
air/lip shadow in premolar region
dentine surrounding radio-opaque zone under amalgam
radiolucent restorations

315
Q

Name some limitations of caries diagnosis

A

Overlap, technique, anatomy, exposure factors, 2D image

316
Q

What cone should be used for bitewings and paralleling periapicals?

A

Long cone should be used - a near parallel beam

317
Q

How often should a high risk child have bitewings taken?

A

6 monthly

318
Q

How often should a moderate risk child have bitewings taken?

A

Annually

319
Q

How often should a low risk child have bitewings taken?

A

12-18 months (deciduous)

320
Q

How often should bitewings be taken for permanent teeth?

A

24 months

321
Q

Describe the trabecula pattern of the mandible

A

thick, close together, horizontally aligned

322
Q

Describe the trabecula pattern of the maxilla

A

finer, more widely spaced, no obvious alignment

323
Q

What are the three most important features in the peri-radicular region and in peri-radicular disease?

A

Radiolucent line representing PDL
radiopaque line representing lamina dura
Trabecula pattern and density of surrounding bone

324
Q

How can key features of radiographs such as the PDL, lamina dura and trabecula pattern be lost or limited?

A

Contrast, resolution or superimposition

325
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of initial acute inflammation?

A

No apparent changes OR
possible widening of periodontal ligament space
loss of lamina dura at apex
further inflammatory spread = perio bone loss

326
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of initial chronic inflammation?

A

no bone destruction seen OR

dense sclerotic bone periodically (sclerosing osteitis)

327
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of chronic inflammation - long standing?

A

circumscribed, well defined, radiolucent area periapically with sclerotic bone surrounding
radiolucency sometimes described as rarefying osteitis

328
Q

What to multiple radiolucencies enhance the appearance of?

A

The IDC

329
Q

What is the basis for taking a perfect paralleling periapical?

A

Think of a well taken bitewing as the basis for a perfect paralleling periapical.

330
Q

Describe how a paralleling periapical should be taken

A

film is parallel to long axis of the tooth
X-ray beam at 90 degrees to film and tooth
long cone should be used - a near parallel beam

331
Q

What are the advantages of paralleling periapicals?

A

Accurate images
Positioning devices determine the angulations
reproducible on different visits by different operators
relative positions of film, teeth and x-ray beam are always maintained

332
Q

How does cervical burnout happen?

A

The X-ray photons overpenetrate or burn out the thinner tooth edge and create the radiolucent area that mimics cervical caries

333
Q

What do selection criteria assist with?

A

Designed to assist the clinician and patient in making decisions about appropriate healthcare for certain specific circumstances

334
Q

What is the recommended type of radiograph for perio disease with uniform pocketing <6mm?

A

Horizontal bitewings

335
Q

What is the recommended type of radiograph for perio disease with pocketing >6mm?

A

Vertical bitewings supplemented with parallel periapical views if perio-endo lesion suspected

336
Q

What is the recommended type of radiograph for perio disease with irregular pocketing?

A

Bitewings +/- paralleling periapicals

337
Q

What is the recommended type of radiograph for perio disease in anterior teeth?

A

paralleling periapicals

338
Q

What do you do if there are film faults?

A

Assess the fault and categorise it. Is the film diagnostic? use bright light to assess dark films. consider repeat exposure if not diagnostic

339
Q

What has been considered the gold standard for assessing periodontal disease?

A

full mouth periapical films

340
Q

Name two radiographic challenges

A

difficult to take paralleling films of mobile teeth

difficult to use film holders and bite blocks if opposing teeth are missing

341
Q

describe the basics of the bisecting angle technique (example of a distorted view)

A

film/image receptor is placed as close to tooth as possible
usually in contact with crown but be distance from root apex
long axis of tooth and film form an angle which is mentally bisected
X-ray tube head positioned so that beam is at 90 degrees to bisecting angle
Length of image should be equal to length of tooth - laws of similar triangles

342
Q

What are some reasons for using a bisecting angle view radiograph?

A

to separate the roots of teeth, overcome superimposition, assessing root fractures, localising unerupted teeth, diagnosing apical pathology(when parallel technique can’t be used) and when it’s okay to have a distorted view.

343
Q

What distorted view radiograph do we use when we want a bigger view than in bisecting angle view?

A

Consider using an occlusal view eg. oblique occlusal view

344
Q

What is an oblique occlusal view radiograph?

A
modified bisecting angle technique 
mandible and maxilla 
anterior and lateral 
shows teeth from crown to apex 
distortion often occurs
superimposition away from central area
easy for patients
345
Q

When would you request an oblique occlusal radiograph

A

When an area is too large to be imaged by a periapical
for patients who retch
children who cannot tolerate periapicals
parallax views - help assess relative position of pathology or unerupted teeth

346
Q

Describe mandibular occlusal views

A

oblique and true occlusal views
anterior oblique is often called 45 degrees
film and long axis of incisors are at 90 degrees
bisected angle of 45 degrees
beam is angled at 90 degrees to the bisecting plane and therefore hits the film at 45 degrees

347
Q

Describe the angulation of the beam in a mandibular true occlusal and what they can be used for

A

X-ray beam at 90 degrees to film
Teeth look like buttons
Often taken to check for submandibular duct calculi

348
Q

What do we mean by localisation?

A

finding the exact position of a structure that cannot be seen clinically. Overcoming limitations of 2D images.

349
Q

What angle are mandibular teeth to the occlusal plane (especially in the anterior region)?

A

90 degrees

350
Q

What are some indications for radiographic localisation techniques?

A
assessing buccal-palatal r-ship of unerupted teeth to dental arch
position of foreign bodies
expansion/destruction of bone
position of salivary calculi
separating multiple roots for RCT
assessing the displacement of fractures
351
Q

What are parallax views?

A

Two views/radiographs taken of the same object with a change in angulation of beam. Usually taken to determine buccal/palatal position of non-visible object. Can be horizontal or vertical

352
Q

What is quality assurance?

A

an organised effort by staff to ensure that the diagnostic images produced are of sufficiently high quality to consistently provide adequate diagnostic information at the lowest possible cost and the least possible exposure to the patient.

353
Q

What factor in radiography is impossible to eliminate?

A

Human error

354
Q

What can human error be reduced by?

A

Introducing simple systems, SOP
improving working environment
encourage reporting - without blame

355
Q

Who does IR(ME)R 2017 protect?

A

the patient

356
Q

Who does IRR 2017 protect?

A

staff and public but also deals with patient protection in relation to equipment

357
Q

How do we do QA? and what information is recorded in QA programme?

A

Set up and participate in quality assurance programme.
Named person, details of procedures involved, frequency of procedures involved, frequency procedures carried out, frequency records are audited, all of this must be in writing.

358
Q

What do we look at in QA?

A

image quality, X-ray equipment, processing (film and digital), working procedures, training, audit.

359
Q

How do we ensure high quality images?

A

Audit the images we produce:

1) image quality rating system
2) film reject analysis

360
Q

How often are the image quality rating system results collated and analysed?

A

monthly, quarterly or at least every 6 months

361
Q

What are two categories in QA of radiographs?

A
Diagnostically Acceptable (A) -  no errors or minimal errors in either patient preparation, exposure, positioning, image processing or image reconstruction and of sufficient image quality to answer the clinical question
Not Acceptable (N) - errors in either patient prep, exposure, positioning, image processing or image reconstruction which render the image diagnostically unacceptable
362
Q

What are the targets in terms of QA and diagnostically acceptable and unacceptable radiographs?

A

Acceptable: Digital = no less than 95%, film = no less than 90%
Unacceptable: Digital = no greater than 5%, film = no greater than 10%

363
Q

What is classed as image quality rating 1?

A

Excellent - no errors of patient preparation, exposure, positioning, processing or film handling

364
Q

What is classed as image quality rating 2?

A

Diagnostically acceptable - some errors in patient prep, exposure, positioning, processing or handling which do not detract from the diagnostic utility

365
Q

What is classed as image quality rating 3?

A

Unacceptable - errors in patient prep, exposure, positioning, processing or handling which render the radiograph diagnostically unacceptable

366
Q

What are the radiography QA targets in terms of image quality ratings 1, 2 and 3?

A

1 > 70%
2 <20%
3 < 10%

367
Q

What do you do for reject film analysis?

A

Collect all rating 3 films, at end of each month assess these and categorise faults - eg. exposure, positioning, processing etc. Act on this, repeat every month and compare results

368
Q

Describe the IQRS audit cycle

A

assess>grade(1,2,3)>results(analyse)>feedback>back to start

369
Q

How should digital PSP films be stored?

A

cool and not too humid, avoid direct sunlight and UV, preferably in light protection/cross infection barrier envelope. If not used for more than 24hrs after plate erased (exposure to light) it should be erased again.

370
Q

Describe what sensitometry is and how it works

A

It is a daily check of the developer as when the developer begins to be exhausted the images become paler.
Step wedge used and when it is radiographed it will produce an image showing “steps” of blackening from pale grey to dark grey/black.
Do this and process it in fresh chemistry - makes standard reference film.
Expose step wedge film daily. Check films for any obvious changes in densities ie. drop of one step from reference film.

371
Q

What causes fogging of a film?

A

light entering daylight loading system/darkroom.
Safelight - filter unsuitable for film or too close to work surface (1.5m)
Test - coin test

372
Q

Explain the coin test

A

Open intra-oral x-ray packet and remove film while hands are in glove box or in darkroom under safelight conditions.
Place coin on film for specific amount of time (eg. 5 mins or average working time), remove coin and process film. Check the processed film for light fogging, repeat test for every different type and speed of film in practice.
Helps to assess safelights and identify if there is light leakage causing fogging of films.

373
Q

How do you QA assess solid state sensors?

A

visual check for physical change weekly and radiographic monthly

374
Q

How do you QA assess PSP?

A

visual check weekly and radiographic monthly

375
Q

How do you QA assess digital systems?

A

Radiograph monthly

376
Q

Name three extra-oral images relating to the mandible

A

DPT
Postero-anterior mandible
Lateral-oblique mandible

377
Q

Name three extra-oral images relating to maxilla and cranium

A

Lateral cephalogram (skull)
Occipito-mental view (0, 10 and 30 degrees) (face)
Sialography

378
Q

What does the mental region mean in terms of radiography?

A

Referring to the region of the mandible between the mental foramina.

379
Q

What direction does the beam travel in in the following views - AP, PA, OM

A

AP - beam pointing to front of patient
PA - beam pointing to back of patient
OM - beam entering the patient at the occiput and exiting between the mental foramen

380
Q

Where is the radiographic base line?

A

line from out canthus of the eye to EAM - represents the base of the skull

381
Q

What is the Frankfurt plane?

A

Inferior orbital border (IOB) to upper border of the EAM - also known as the anthropological base of skull.

382
Q

What is the maxillary occlusal plane?

A

ala of nose to tragus of ear.

383
Q

Increasing the field of the beam in skull radiography does what to the scatter?

A

Increase in the field of the beam causes more scatter to be produced. This adds to the background fog.

384
Q

Why is there more scatter produced in skull radiography?

A

As the field of X-rays required to cover the entire skull is much larger, more scatter will be produced. If left unchecked this will add to background fog and produce a greyer image lacking in contrast.

385
Q

What is an anti-scatter grid and what does it do?

A

It is made of narrow strips of lead alternating with plastic. It stops photons scattered in the patient from reaching the film and avoids degrading the image and reducing contrast while allowing the straight high energy photons to pass through . They can be fixed or moving/oscillating depending on the equipment, sometimes with fixed ones you may get stripes caused by the strips of lead, moving ones do not have this issue.

386
Q

In skull radiography what angle should the radiographic baseline be at in relation to the film?

A

90 degrees

387
Q

In a facial view what angle should the radiographic baseline be at in relation to the film?

A

45 degrees

388
Q

In a facial view what angle should the median sagittal plane be at in relation to the film?

A

90 degrees

389
Q

Name three things to consider when positioning a patient for an extra-oral radiograph

A

1) position of patient relative to film
2) position of x-ray beam relative to patient
3) angle of beam relative to patient/film

390
Q

In an OM (occipital-mental) radiograph, what angle would be used to look at the orbital margins?

A

10 degrees

391
Q

In an OM (occipital-mental) radiograph, what angle would be used to look at the zygomatic arches and maxillae?

A

30 degrees

392
Q

Explain the positioning of the patient for a PA mandible radiograph

A

patient faces film, nose and forehead touching film holder, radiographic baseline at 90 degrees to film (horizontal). Aim centre of beam at midline of patient at height of mid ramps (roughly below the occiput).

393
Q

How do we find the midline of a patient?

A

Looking at front of patient the midline is generally between the eyes. (nose unreliable as often deviate)
From the back look for external occipital protuberance.

394
Q

In what situation would a PA mandible radiograph be requested?

A

Fractures, cysts, good visualisation of posterior body and ramps, limited view of head/neck of condyle, midline can be obscured by spine, requested along with DPT.

395
Q

Why is a PA mandible preferred to a DPT?

A

Reduced magnification of facial structures (remember always want object as close to receptor as possible)
Reduced dose to eyes.

396
Q

What are the indications to request a lateral oblique mandible view radiograph?

A

Fracture of body, ramps and condyle, pathology eg. cysts, assessment of wisdom teeth, dental assessment in special needs patient, caries in children who will not tolerate bitewings

397
Q

Why do we need a lateral oblique mandible view and what is seen?

A

If a lateral mandible view was taken (not obliquely) the two halves of the mandible would be superimposed making it difficult to examine. Taking it obliquely allows you to separate the rami to image one side at a time. you must oblique the mandible in the vertical plane to achieve full separation of the rami. Will only receive useful info from rami closest to receptor.

398
Q

Describe how an extra oral x-ray is taken in isocentric positioning using a skull unit

A

Patient supine, position patient for area to be imaged, rotate machine to horizontal plane, angle 25 degrees towards head, tilt patients head towards the film

399
Q

Describe how an extra oral x-ray is taken in vertical angulation using dental tube (Lateral oblique)

A

Patient holds cassette parallel to area being examined. Tube head positioned beneath lower border of body of the mandible on side not under examination. Aim tube towards teeth under exam, angle tube head slightly upwards. This will project the opposing body of the mandible up and therefore away from the area of interest.

400
Q

Describe how an extra oral x-ray is taken in horizontal angulation using dental tube (lateral oblique)

A

patient holds cassette parallel to area being examined. tube head positioned aiming along occlusal plane below ear towards the maxillary and mandibular teeth to be examined. Aims through the radiographic keyhole.

401
Q

What is the radiographic keyhole?

A

The triangular space between the back of the ramps and the cervical spine

402
Q

What is a disadvantage of the vertical angulation for a lateral oblique radiograph?

A

angulation can cause vertical distortion of teeth

maxillary teeth are not always shown clearly

403
Q

What is a disadvantage of the horizontal angulation for a lateral oblique radiograph?

A

X-ray beam may not pass directly between the contact points of the teeth therefore causing overlapping on film.

404
Q

What are cephalometric radiographs used for?

A

Orthodontics to assess the relationships of the teeth to the jaws and the jaws to the rest of the facial skeleton. Can only be done with Cephalostat. Visualises soft and hard tissue

405
Q

Describe the positioning of the patient for a lateral cephalopods radiograph

A

mid sagittal plane parallel to film/receptor, Frankfort plane horizontal, centre of X-ray beam aimed at EAM, teeth in occlusion and ear rods used to give standardised positioning.

406
Q

Which type of radiograph do you provide the patient with lead protection?

A

A lateral cephalogram. The exposure factors and consequent dose is slightly higher. The lead protection is a thyroid shield as the thyroid is one of the more radiosensitive anatomical structures.

407
Q

What does the magnification rod on a ceph film represent?

A

Ceph films should have a magnification rod shown on the image to allow for the calculation of any magnification that has occurred.

408
Q

In a lateral ceph how are you able to see the soft tissues present if the exposure is so great?

A

Aluminium filter.
Positioned over anterior part of face, designed to attenuate beam in anterior facial region which allows visualisation of bone and soft tissue on one film, despite the relatively high exposure factors needed for the facial bones. If digital - soft tissues made visible by software.

409
Q

Regarding beam size, what can you do to it to reduce the dose?

A

Reduce beam size to reduce dose.

Some units have the facilities to collimate the beam to help to reduce the dose.

410
Q

What three angulations are occipito-mental views taken at?

A

0 degrees, 10 degrees and 30 degrees

411
Q

Describe the positioning of the patient during an OM view radiograph

A

Patient faces film holder, nose and chin touch holder, radiographic baseline at 45 degrees to film, aim centre of X-ray to midline of patient through base of nose, angle beam at 10 or 30 degrees to feet.

412
Q

In an occipital-mental view radiograph, what does increasing the angulation do?

A

Projects dense bones of skull base down away from facial structures. Improves view of zygomatic arch, gives diff perspective.

413
Q

What are the possible reasons for a pale image being produced?

A

Wrong exposure selection, not enough time in developer, developer temp too low, incorrect dilution of developer

414
Q

Name 5 ways that faults in radiographs can be prevented

A

Sensitometry, routine processor maintenance, topping up developer when needed, appropriate exposure selection, regularly check X-ray tube output

415
Q

What are the possible reasons for a dark image being produced?

A

Too high an exposure, processing faults, developer too hot, too much time in developer, dilution of developer too concentrated

416
Q

What can cause a yellow tinted image to be produced?

A

Insufficient fixing during processing

Think time, temp, dilution

417
Q

When thinking about faults (of processing images) what are three main factors to consider?

A

Time, temp and dilution

418
Q

A splash of developer causes what on an image?

A

Dark spots

419
Q

A splash of fixer causes what on an image?

A

Clear spots

420
Q

What can cause staining on images?

A

residual chemicals that are not properly washed away.

421
Q

How is a mark caused by static electricity discharge?

A

Caused by static electricity discharging on the film and it often resembles lightning or a tree. Can be caused when a film is pulled quickly from the packet when the atmosphere is dry.

422
Q

What can a straight white line on a radiograph be caused by?

A

The white line artefact is caused by a spec of dust on the sensor in the processing tower which has blocked the transfer of data from one line of pixels.

423
Q

When looking at faults in images what are the main things to think about?

A

Positioning, artefacts, correct film size selection.

424
Q

If you can see the embossed pattern of the lead foil on an image what has gone wrong?

A

The film packet is back to front.

425
Q

What is a tomogram?

A

A radiograph showing a slice or section of tissue in focus. Multiple tomograms of sequential planes would build up to give 3D images eg. CT

426
Q

What is the simplest form of tomography?

A

Linear tomography

427
Q

Which extra oral view is a form of tomography?

A

DPT

428
Q

Explain the movement of tube and film for a DPT

A

Film and tube move in opposite directions, only structures within a certain slice (focal trough) are sharp on image and objects further from the trough are more blurred.

429
Q

Explain the movement of tube and film for narrow beam tomography

A

synchronised movement of tube head and film/sensor, rotate around patient in horizontal plane, circular path, single centre of rotation, focal trough is an arch of circle, limited use in dentistry as the dental arch is not part of a circle

430
Q

What shape is the dental arch?

A

elliptical shape

431
Q

what shade is the focal trough in a DPT?

A

Horse shoe shaped - narrow anteriorly, wider posteriorly

432
Q

What are the disadvantages of intensifying screens?

A

Light is emitted in all directions
light affects larger area of film than a single photon
image quality (fine quality) is not as good as direct action film

433
Q

What can indirect action films and intensifying screens be replaced by?

A

Phosphor plates

Solid state sensors/CCD

434
Q

Discuss some of the basics of a DPT radiograph

A

patient should be positioned so that focal trough corresponds to dental arch as much as possible
X-ray tube head moves behind patient from R to L
Receptor moves in front from L to R
Bite block used to bring mandible into same focal trough as maxilla
Only a narrow section exposed at any one time OR rotating sensor receives info constantly

435
Q

Name some advantages of a DPT

A

minimal discomfort
images teeth and facial bones
shows vertical height of mandible and IDC
shows maxillary sinus walls
dose is reduced compared to full mouth of intra-orals
shows both sides on one radiograph

436
Q

What are some clinical indications for a DPT?

A

lesion not clear on intra-orals, gross disease, symptomatic third molars, Orthodontic treatment, mandibular fractures, disease of TMJ, implant planning or review

437
Q

Name some disadvantages of a DPT

A

lack of fine detail, superimposition of other soft and hard tissues, air shadows, exposure time up to 16 seconds, magnification of image due to object/receptor distance, requires patient co-operation

438
Q

Describe the patient’s position in a DPT

A

remove metal jewellery, glasses etc. patient stands with spine straight holding handles, bites incisors edge to edge in groove on bite block, light beam markers, head immobilised, tongue to roof of mouth, stand still

439
Q

describe the beam and angulation for a DPT

A

beam fan shaped and angled up at approx 8 degrees to horizontal. Different part of film exposed to film at any time.

440
Q

Is a lead apron required for a DPT?

A

Current guidelines state no justification for use of lead aprons, does not protect from internal scatter. Interferes with image on DPT as can be projected onto image and may also catch the tube as it rotates.

441
Q

What does collimation do?

A

Limits field size.

442
Q

Explain the DPT projections

A

Projection changes as machine rotates
left side of image - lateral projection of RHS of mandible and spine
Central portion - acquired with tube behind patient and sensor in front so its a PA projection
right side of image - lateral projection of LHS of mandible and spine

443
Q

What are ghost images and what do they cause?

A

Images of a structure on one side which are projected onto another side eg. angle or ramus of mandible, hard palate, foreign bodies (earring, surgical clips)
They are always seen at a higher level than the real structure because the beam is pointing upwards at an angle of 8 degrees.

444
Q

In what situation is it impossible to bring the mandible forwards to create an edge to edge incisor relationship?

A

If a patient has a class III incisor relationship

445
Q

Discuss DPT and caries diagnosis effectiveness

A

Not the gold standard, frequently requested when strong gag reflex, poor fine detail, overlap, superimposition of anatomy/air

446
Q

CBCT stands for what and was developed by who?

A

Cone Beam Computerised Tomography, developed by Sir Geoffrey Newbold Hounsfield

447
Q

What is the quantitative measure of radio density on CT scans?

A

Hounsfield Scale
Air = -1000HU
Water = 0HU
Cortical bone = +1000HU

448
Q

does CBCT have a high or low kV tube?

A

High kV tube - 120kV, much higher than dental machines.

449
Q

What type of scan does a tomographic image produce?

A

Tomographic image - looks at slice of tissue and these slices can be stacked together to form the 3D images.

450
Q

In CBCT the volume of a pixel is what?

A

Voxel

451
Q

Name some uses for CBCT in the head and neck

A

Intracranial - bleed, infarct, tumour
Trauma
Evaluation of osseous lesions
Salivary glands
Neoplasia (benign/malignant) - primary tumour, metastases
Orthognathic assessment and treatment planning
Implant planning

452
Q

Name some advantages of CBCT

A

Not subject to same magnification and distortion as plain radiographs
Multi-planar (manipulate, reconstruct images) - avoids superimposition
Images bone and soft tissue

453
Q

Name some disadvantages of CBCT

A

Patient dose, artefacts (metallic objects, amalgam in head and neck produce pattern), may require intravenous contrast to distinguish tissues, expensive, interpretation more difficult

454
Q

Dentascan is a software mainly used for what?

A

Dentascan - software available mainly for implant planning.

455
Q

When and where was the first NHS CT scanner used?

A

In Atkinson Morley Hospital Wimbledon 1st Oct 1971. Brain/head only.

456
Q

What decade was DPT introduced?

A

1960s

457
Q

Why would you use CBCT?

A

Lower radiation dose than medical grade CT, overcomes issues of 2D imaging, should only be used if info gained will impact patient care, some machines have a large field of view and are usually in hospital departments.

458
Q

Explain what a positioning or scout view is and why it is used in CBCT

A

Prior to the scan an initial positioning view is usually taken to ensure that the area of interest is in the field of view. This is a very short exposure with the tube and receptor at opposite sides of the patient. The image produced is a lateral one with R and L superimposed.

459
Q

Explain the set up and action of taking a CBCT

A

patient either seated or lying supine depending on machine. X-ray tube and flat panel receptor opposite eachother and rotate around patient at same time. Receptor sends signal to computer where an image will appear on screen. X-ray beam is cone-shaped and area of interest is inline go path of beam for whole rotation, passing through structures in full 360 degrees.

460
Q

What are the three planes?

A

Axial - through horizontally
Sagittal - front to back
Coronal - through shoulder to shoulder

461
Q

Name some indications for a CBCT

A

Localisation of unerupted tooth
assessment of resorption from unerupted tooth
cleft palate patients
orthognathic surgery assessment
Few indications for restorative dentistry - only if conventional radiographs are unhelpful. Periapical lesions, root canal anatomy, perforations, dental trauma, dental anomalies

462
Q

Explain the types of surgeries CBCT can he useful for

A

Assessment of third molars to IDC, assessment of third molar morphology, implant assessment, pathology involving jaws, TMJ bone surfaces, facial fractures

463
Q

What kind of FOV do dental practices use for CBCT machines?

A

Small FOV

464
Q

What affects the dose of a radiograph?

A

Scan times, volume size-FOV, type of equipment used, part of maxillofacial region being imaged.

465
Q

Name some advantages of CBCT

A

multi-planar reformatting -MPR- allows image to be viewed from all directions
Geometrically accurate, fast scanning time, compatible with other software, good spatial resolution, lower radiation dose than medical CT

466
Q

Name some disadvantages of CBCT

A

Patients must be still to avoid artefacts, soft tissues not imaged well, radio-dense materials like restorations and RF material produce beam hardening artefacts- streak artefacts, images can be difficult to interpret

467
Q

Can anyone take a CBCT scan?

A

No, additional training is required for the referrer, practitioner, operator

468
Q

What are four other imagining modalities?

A

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), Ultrasound, Nuclear medicine (radio-isotope scanning), Combination of modalities including PET

469
Q

What are the advantages of a CT?

A

Images soft and hard tissues, differentiate different tissues, head injury (can see bone and brain), speed (compared MRI), multi-planar, cost and availability usually cheaper

470
Q

What are the disadvantages of a CT?

A

Patient radiation dose, dose for head around 2mSv, often requires intravenous contrast to distinguish tissues, artefact, expensive in comparison with plain radiography

471
Q

How do the size of voxels affect the image quality?

A

Small voxels result in a higher resolution image

472
Q

Time wise, what affect do small size voxels have?

A

Small size voxels requires longer scan time which results in higher dose.

473
Q

Explain the theory behind MRI scans

A

involves protons (water), magnetic field, radio frequency pulses - patient is placed in a magnetic field, the water protons align in this field, another magnetic field is applied at an angle and then removed, the protons oscillate/resonate back to their original position, this resonance is measured by the computer.

474
Q

What are the advantages of MRI?

A

no ionising radiation, excellent for viewing soft tissue and also cancellous bone (changes in marrow, infection, infiltration cortex breach), multi-planar

475
Q

What do T1 and T2 weighted radiographs for MRI?

A

T1 weighted - water dark
T2 weighted - water bright
Generally T1 for anatomy, T2 for pathology.

476
Q

What are the disadvantages of MRI?

A

Multiple contradictions - pacemakers, artificial heart valves, surgical clips particularly intra-cerebral aneurysm clips, 1st trimester pregnancy
FB with eyes/orbit. Danger of strong magnetic field (might clear bank card!), units need to be away from car parks and facilities, availability and cost of scanning (waiting lists), scan times can be long and noisy, claustrophobia

477
Q

How can MRI scans be used for assessing the TMJ?

A

MRI shows the soft tissues of the joint well, disc can be seen, normal disc is bow tie shaped, often difficult to image, scanned in open and closed positions, takes a long time and patients complain of the noise.

478
Q

Describe ultrasound scanning, what it is and its use

A

high frequency sound waves >13MHz, transducer placed on skin sound waves bounce off tissues and back to the probe, cannot travel beyond hard tissues, limited use around the jaws

479
Q

What are the advantages of ultrasound scanning?

A

no ionising radiation, no harmful effects, ideal for superficial soft tissue structures, multi-planar, operator dependent, real time images, blood flow, can be used to guide fine needle aspirate or biopsies.

480
Q

What are the disadvantages of ultrasound scanning?

A

operator dependent, difficult to interpret, superficial tissues, cannot penetrate bone

481
Q

Name some uses for ultrasound scanning

A

Neck swelling - tissue of origin, solid/cystic, characteristics (benign/malignant?
Salivary glands - neoplasm, HIV, Sjogrens syndrome, calculi in salivary glands or ducts
Blood flow - carotid artery disease, r-ship to lesion and lesion supply, guidance for biopsy/drainage.

482
Q

What does radioisotope scanning involve?

A

inject isotopes which are unstable and defat emitting radioactive particles (a, b) or radiation
Isotope selected according to tissue to be imaged. Radioactive compound concentrated in target tissue indicating: increased activity (hotspot), reduced/no activity (cold spot)
radioactive emissions detected by gamma camera

483
Q

Explain the features of the radioisotope Technetium

A

99mTc
short half life (6 hours) ensures lower patient dose. Easily available, can be bound easily to diff substances, red blood cells, taken up by thyroid and salivary glands.
MDP - Methylene diphosphonate - bone

484
Q

What can you image using radioisotope scanning in the head and neck?

A

salivary gland function, condylar growth in mandibular asymmetry, thyroid, bone metastases, osteomyelitis

485
Q

What are the problems with nuclear medicine imaging?

A

Poor resolution, appearances not specific and may not be able to distinguish between different pathological processes, radiation dose.

486
Q

Describe the uses and features of a PET CT

A

Positron emission tomography combined with CT
Images are acquired with both technologies at the same time and superimposed on each other. The radioactive contrast can be given orally, inhaled or into a vein, depending on what is being investigated. Shows up where areas are more active than normal, scans do not have as much fine detail as CT alone.

487
Q

What are the uses of PET CT?

A

Diagnose cancer, cancer staging, radiotherapy planning, assess how effective treatment has been, to distinguish between active disease and scarring following treatment

488
Q

What is film speed?

A

The exposure required to produce an optical density of 1.0 above background fog. Thus, the faster the film, the less the exposure required for film blackening and therefore the lower the dose to the patient.

489
Q

In bisecting angle periapicals how does fore-shortening occur?

A

Vertical angulation too large

490
Q

In bisecting angle periapicals how does elongation occur?

A

Vertical angulation too small