Radiological Evaluation of C-spine Flashcards

1
Q

3 main views for C-spine

A

AP
APOM
Lateral

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2
Q

Swimmer’s lateral projection performed to assess:

A

Lower cervical segments and CT junction

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3
Q

Most diagnostic view

A

lateral

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4
Q

Oblique view assesses:

A

Neural Foramina: indicates radiculopathy

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5
Q

Flexion/Extension stress views assess:

A

instability

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6
Q

Best modality for viewing C spine Trauma

A

CT scan

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7
Q

If neurological deficit is detected in C spine what modality should be used?

A

MRI: can view bony fragments as well as injury to spinal cord, disk, and soft tissue

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8
Q

Two evidence based guidelines established by clinicians to decide whether or not to use radiographs:

A
  1. Canadian C-Spine Rule

2. National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study(NEXUS)

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9
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule requires the patient to be___ and ___

A

alert and medically stable

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10
Q

What are the 3 main questions of the C-spine rule?

A
  1. Any high risk factors that mandate radiography?
  2. Any low risk factors that allow safe assessment of ROM?
  3. Is pt. able to rotate neck actively at least 45 degrees L and R?
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11
Q

High risk factors that mandate radiography include?

A

Age over 65 years, dangerous MOI, parathesia in extremities

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12
Q

Low risk factors that mandate radiography include?

A

Tenderness over midline of Cspine, pain with normal sitting, DOMS of neck, pt not being ambulatory at time of crach

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13
Q

Canadian C-spine Rule has what sensitivity and specificity?

A

100% sensitivity and 43% specificity

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14
Q

For NEXUS, radiographs are indicated following trauma unless pt meets all five criteria:

A
  1. No post. midline cervical tenderness
  2. No evidence of intoxication
  3. Normal level or alertness and consciousness
  4. No focal neurological deficit
  5. No painful distracting injuries
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15
Q

Nexus has a specificity of __ and a sensitivity of __

A

12.9%, 99.6%

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16
Q

Evidence based guidelines point to patient having a radiograph if they meet the following criteria

A
  1. Dangerus MOI
  2. Over 65 years old
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Midline Tenderness over spine
  5. Unable to rotate neck 45 degrees L or R
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17
Q

ACR recommends that if pt meets criteria for CCR or NEXUS then this modality should be used with these 2 views

A

CT with sagittal and coronal reformatting

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18
Q

ACR recommends that if pt meets criteria for CCR or NEXUS then these two modalities should be used as complementary studies

A

CT and MRI

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19
Q

This view should be used first if the pt has had a history of trauma but has not be evaluated for trauma yet

A

Lateral: assess normal cervical alignment with series of parallel vertebral lines
-discontinuity or step offs indicate possible fracture/dislocation

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20
Q

This view is used in severe trauma cases and functions as a preliminary diagnostic screen

A

Cross-table lateral View

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21
Q

Radiology of C-spine evaluates:

A

soft tissue, vertebral alignment, joint characteristics

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22
Q

Widening retropharyngeal or retrotracheal spaces should follow these distance rules

A

6mm at 2 and 22mm at 6

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23
Q

Large IVD height indicates what kind of damage:

A

anterior tissue damage, rupture of posterior ligament

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24
Q

Small IVD height indicates what kind of problem:

A

IVD problem such as rupture of disk, extrusion of nuclear material

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25
Loss of parallelism of Cspine indicates:
fracture, dislocation, or severe degenerative changes
26
Loss of lordosis of C-spine indicates:
muscle spasm in response to underlying injury
27
Acute Kyphotic angulation of the C spine indicates:
widened interpinous space indicating rupture of post. ligaments
28
Rotation of the vertebral bodies at the C-spine indicates:
unilateral facet dislocation, hyperextension fractures, muscle spasm, or disk capsular injury
29
APOM views what the best:
Lateral masses of C1 and the dens of C2
30
Normal overhang of the lateral masses of C1 over the body of C2 is:
1-2mm; any more is abnormal
31
A widened ADI indicates:
degeneration, stretching, or rupture of the transverse ligament
32
Widening of the interspinous process space indicates:
- Fanning | - rupture of interspinous and other posterior ligamanets
33
Loss of facet joint articulation indicates:
dislocation
34
Injuries to the spinal cord are broadly classified as ___ and ___
stable and unstable
35
These injuries are protected from significant bone or joint displacement by intact posterior spinal ligaments: answer stable or unstable
Stable | ex//compression fractures, disk herniations, unilateral facet dislocations
36
These types of injuries show significant displacement initially or have potential to become displaced with movement: answer stable or unstable
Unstable | ex//bilateral facet dislocations, fracture-dislocations
37
What are the most frequently injured levels of the C-spine?
C1-C2 and C6-C7
38
Adults mostly injure what levels of the C-spine
Lower levels
39
Children more frequently injure what levels of the C spine?
Upper | They have big heads, upper spine can't handle that much weight
40
C-spine fracture has __% incidence of associated neurological injury
40%
41
C-spine is __ of all spinal cord injuries?
2/3
42
What are the two most common MOI of the C-spine?
1. Flexion/extension | 2. Loaded flexion of C-spine
43
SCIWORA Syndrome stands for:
Spinal Cord Injury Without Radiographic Abnormalities
44
SCIWORA is predominant in what populations?
Children with inherent elastic pediatric spine | -cause ligamentous injury and cartilagenous vertebral endplate fracture
45
In adults, SCIWORA presents as:
acute disk prolapse and/or excessive buckling of the ligamentum flavum
46
Two main types of fractures of the C-spine include:
Avulsion and compression/impaction fracture
47
Definition: bone fragment pulled off by violent muscle contraction or passive resistance of ligament applied against an oppositely directed force
Avulsion Fracture
48
Definition: adjacent vertebrae forced together
Compression Fracture
49
In a compression fracture: Axial compression produces __ fracture of impacted vertebral body
burst
50
In a compression fracture: flexion forces compresses impacted body into an anterior __ shape
wedge
51
In a compression fracture: extension force compresses ___ __
articular pillars
52
A wedge fracture is caused by a ___ force
hyperflexion
53
This type of fracture occurs when the IVD is axially compressed and NP is driven through the adjacent vertebral endplate
Burst Fracture | -will see posterior displacement
54
True or False:Burst fracture may be stable or unstable
True | Depends on configuration of fracture.
55
Triangular fragment of bone becomes separated anterioinferior corner of vertebral body due to avulsion from hyperextension of compression from hyperflexion
Tear drop fracture
56
What is the most severe lower cervical fractures?
Flexion teardrop
57
Fracture from compressive hyperextension force combined with lateral flexion
Articular Pillar Fracture | -stable; normally at C6
58
Avulsion fracture of SP by hyperflexion or forceful contraction of traps/rhomboids
Clay Shoveler's fracture
59
Uncommon fracture at TVP in C7; usually a result from lateral flexion forces causing an avulsion at tip of contralateral TVP
Transverse process fracture
60
Most serious and life threatening injuries
Fractures associated with dislocations
61
Transient dislocation or subluxations are often referred to as:
self-reducing dislocations | -momentarily disengage articulations but return to normal alignment once force dissipates
62
Axial fractures associated with ant dislocation of C2 on C3
Hangmans fracture
63
Complete facet joint dislocations unilaterally occur due to what type of force?
Hyperflexion and rotation force
64
Complete facet joint dislocations occur bilaterally due to what type of force?
Hyperflexion Force
65
What are the components of a unilateral facet dislocation tear?
One facet capsule and posterior ligaments
66
If there is no vertebral body subluxation, is a unilateral facet dislocation stable or unstable?
Stable injury
67
Are bilateral facet joint dislocations considered stable or unstable?
Unstable due to extensive disruption of post ligaments, facet joint capsules, annulus fibrosis and sometimes ant longitudinal ligament
68
Which type of dislocation, unilateral or bilateral, would be most likely associated with spinal cord injuries?
Bilateral
69
Hyperflexion sprains disrupt ant or post ligament complex?
Posterior; obtain stress views
70
Hyperextension sprains disrupt ant or post ligament complex?
Anterior; may result in posterior subluxation
71
What treatment would you do for sprains?
Immobilization, pain management, rehab
72
What treatment options are there for dislocations?
Reduction(traction), Immobilization
73
Acute disk herniation resulting in nerve root compression in Cspine is common or uncommon?
Uncommon: inherent anatomic protection within C spine formed by ant positioned NP, posteriorly reinforced AF, wide double layers of PLL and unconvertable joints
74
Degenerative disk disease is due to the degeneration of:
IVD
75
Degenerative joint disease is due to:
Osteoarthritic changes at synovial facet joints
76
Foraminal encroachment is due to:
diminished dimensions of IVF secondary to degenerative changes in adjacent structures
77
Spondylosis is due to:
osteophyte formation at joint margins
78
Advanced spur formation from degeneration of vertebral bodies and AF contributes to:
Spondylosis Deformans
79
Ossification along ant vertebral bodies and disk spaces contributes to
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis(DISH)
80
What age group is at risk for Degenerative disk diseases
>60 years of age
81
Intervertebral herniation of NP through endplate into spongiosa of vertebral body is called
Schmorl's nodes
82
Nitrogen gas from extracellular spaces accumulating in degenerative dehydrated fissures of disk is called:
Vacuum Phenomenon
83
Hallmark of DDD is:
decreased disk height
84
Hallmark of DJD is:
decreased joint space, subchondral sclerosis, ostephytes
85
What view would be used to see foraminal encroachment?
Oblique
86
What levels of the C-spine would you most likely find osteophytes in response to DDD
C4-C5 and C5-C6
87
Would spondylosis deformans typically show a decrease in disk height?
No
88
This type of degenerative disease typically shows a claw-like formation, cupping toward the IVD
Spondylosis deformans
89
This type of degenerative disease has an unknown etiology but is often found in diabetic pt.
DISH(Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis) | -also found in pt with growth hormones, vitamin A, retinoid derivatives, metabolic syndromes
90
In what age and gender demographic group would you typically see DISH
Age 40, male
91
3 criteria of DISH:
1. Flowing ossification of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies 2. Preservation of disk height 3. Absence of facet joint DJD