Radiological Evaluation of C-spine Flashcards

1
Q

3 main views for C-spine

A

AP
APOM
Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Swimmer’s lateral projection performed to assess:

A

Lower cervical segments and CT junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most diagnostic view

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Oblique view assesses:

A

Neural Foramina: indicates radiculopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Flexion/Extension stress views assess:

A

instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Best modality for viewing C spine Trauma

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If neurological deficit is detected in C spine what modality should be used?

A

MRI: can view bony fragments as well as injury to spinal cord, disk, and soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Two evidence based guidelines established by clinicians to decide whether or not to use radiographs:

A
  1. Canadian C-Spine Rule

2. National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study(NEXUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Canadian C-Spine Rule requires the patient to be___ and ___

A

alert and medically stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 main questions of the C-spine rule?

A
  1. Any high risk factors that mandate radiography?
  2. Any low risk factors that allow safe assessment of ROM?
  3. Is pt. able to rotate neck actively at least 45 degrees L and R?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

High risk factors that mandate radiography include?

A

Age over 65 years, dangerous MOI, parathesia in extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Low risk factors that mandate radiography include?

A

Tenderness over midline of Cspine, pain with normal sitting, DOMS of neck, pt not being ambulatory at time of crach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Canadian C-spine Rule has what sensitivity and specificity?

A

100% sensitivity and 43% specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For NEXUS, radiographs are indicated following trauma unless pt meets all five criteria:

A
  1. No post. midline cervical tenderness
  2. No evidence of intoxication
  3. Normal level or alertness and consciousness
  4. No focal neurological deficit
  5. No painful distracting injuries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nexus has a specificity of __ and a sensitivity of __

A

12.9%, 99.6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Evidence based guidelines point to patient having a radiograph if they meet the following criteria

A
  1. Dangerus MOI
  2. Over 65 years old
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Midline Tenderness over spine
  5. Unable to rotate neck 45 degrees L or R
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ACR recommends that if pt meets criteria for CCR or NEXUS then this modality should be used with these 2 views

A

CT with sagittal and coronal reformatting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ACR recommends that if pt meets criteria for CCR or NEXUS then these two modalities should be used as complementary studies

A

CT and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This view should be used first if the pt has had a history of trauma but has not be evaluated for trauma yet

A

Lateral: assess normal cervical alignment with series of parallel vertebral lines
-discontinuity or step offs indicate possible fracture/dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This view is used in severe trauma cases and functions as a preliminary diagnostic screen

A

Cross-table lateral View

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Radiology of C-spine evaluates:

A

soft tissue, vertebral alignment, joint characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Widening retropharyngeal or retrotracheal spaces should follow these distance rules

A

6mm at 2 and 22mm at 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Large IVD height indicates what kind of damage:

A

anterior tissue damage, rupture of posterior ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Small IVD height indicates what kind of problem:

A

IVD problem such as rupture of disk, extrusion of nuclear material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Loss of parallelism of Cspine indicates:

A

fracture, dislocation, or severe degenerative changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Loss of lordosis of C-spine indicates:

A

muscle spasm in response to underlying injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute Kyphotic angulation of the C spine indicates:

A

widened interpinous space indicating rupture of post. ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Rotation of the vertebral bodies at the C-spine indicates:

A

unilateral facet dislocation, hyperextension fractures, muscle spasm, or disk capsular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

APOM views what the best:

A

Lateral masses of C1 and the dens of C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Normal overhang of the lateral masses of C1 over the body of C2 is:

A

1-2mm; any more is abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A widened ADI indicates:

A

degeneration, stretching, or rupture of the transverse ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Widening of the interspinous process space indicates:

A
  • Fanning

- rupture of interspinous and other posterior ligamanets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Loss of facet joint articulation indicates:

A

dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Injuries to the spinal cord are broadly classified as ___ and ___

A

stable and unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

These injuries are protected from significant bone or joint displacement by intact posterior spinal ligaments: answer stable or unstable

A

Stable

ex//compression fractures, disk herniations, unilateral facet dislocations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

These types of injuries show significant displacement initially or have potential to become displaced with movement: answer stable or unstable

A

Unstable

ex//bilateral facet dislocations, fracture-dislocations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the most frequently injured levels of the C-spine?

A

C1-C2 and C6-C7

38
Q

Adults mostly injure what levels of the C-spine

A

Lower levels

39
Q

Children more frequently injure what levels of the C spine?

A

Upper

They have big heads, upper spine can’t handle that much weight

40
Q

C-spine fracture has __% incidence of associated neurological injury

A

40%

41
Q

C-spine is __ of all spinal cord injuries?

A

2/3

42
Q

What are the two most common MOI of the C-spine?

A
  1. Flexion/extension

2. Loaded flexion of C-spine

43
Q

SCIWORA Syndrome stands for:

A

Spinal Cord Injury Without Radiographic Abnormalities

44
Q

SCIWORA is predominant in what populations?

A

Children with inherent elastic pediatric spine

-cause ligamentous injury and cartilagenous vertebral endplate fracture

45
Q

In adults, SCIWORA presents as:

A

acute disk prolapse and/or excessive buckling of the ligamentum flavum

46
Q

Two main types of fractures of the C-spine include:

A

Avulsion and compression/impaction fracture

47
Q

Definition: bone fragment pulled off by violent muscle contraction or passive resistance of ligament applied against an oppositely directed force

A

Avulsion Fracture

48
Q

Definition: adjacent vertebrae forced together

A

Compression Fracture

49
Q

In a compression fracture: Axial compression produces __ fracture of impacted vertebral body

A

burst

50
Q

In a compression fracture: flexion forces compresses impacted body into an anterior __ shape

A

wedge

51
Q

In a compression fracture: extension force compresses ___ __

A

articular pillars

52
Q

A wedge fracture is caused by a ___ force

A

hyperflexion

53
Q

This type of fracture occurs when the IVD is axially compressed and NP is driven through the adjacent vertebral endplate

A

Burst Fracture

-will see posterior displacement

54
Q

True or False:Burst fracture may be stable or unstable

A

True

Depends on configuration of fracture.

55
Q

Triangular fragment of bone becomes separated anterioinferior corner of vertebral body due to avulsion from hyperextension of compression from hyperflexion

A

Tear drop fracture

56
Q

What is the most severe lower cervical fractures?

A

Flexion teardrop

57
Q

Fracture from compressive hyperextension force combined with lateral flexion

A

Articular Pillar Fracture

-stable; normally at C6

58
Q

Avulsion fracture of SP by hyperflexion or forceful contraction of traps/rhomboids

A

Clay Shoveler’s fracture

59
Q

Uncommon fracture at TVP in C7; usually a result from lateral flexion forces causing an avulsion at tip of contralateral TVP

A

Transverse process fracture

60
Q

Most serious and life threatening injuries

A

Fractures associated with dislocations

61
Q

Transient dislocation or subluxations are often referred to as:

A

self-reducing dislocations

-momentarily disengage articulations but return to normal alignment once force dissipates

62
Q

Axial fractures associated with ant dislocation of C2 on C3

A

Hangmans fracture

63
Q

Complete facet joint dislocations unilaterally occur due to what type of force?

A

Hyperflexion and rotation force

64
Q

Complete facet joint dislocations occur bilaterally due to what type of force?

A

Hyperflexion Force

65
Q

What are the components of a unilateral facet dislocation tear?

A

One facet capsule and posterior ligaments

66
Q

If there is no vertebral body subluxation, is a unilateral facet dislocation stable or unstable?

A

Stable injury

67
Q

Are bilateral facet joint dislocations considered stable or unstable?

A

Unstable due to extensive disruption of post ligaments, facet joint capsules, annulus fibrosis and sometimes ant longitudinal ligament

68
Q

Which type of dislocation, unilateral or bilateral, would be most likely associated with spinal cord injuries?

A

Bilateral

69
Q

Hyperflexion sprains disrupt ant or post ligament complex?

A

Posterior; obtain stress views

70
Q

Hyperextension sprains disrupt ant or post ligament complex?

A

Anterior; may result in posterior subluxation

71
Q

What treatment would you do for sprains?

A

Immobilization, pain management, rehab

72
Q

What treatment options are there for dislocations?

A

Reduction(traction), Immobilization

73
Q

Acute disk herniation resulting in nerve root compression in Cspine is common or uncommon?

A

Uncommon: inherent anatomic protection within C spine formed by ant positioned NP, posteriorly reinforced AF, wide double layers of PLL and unconvertable joints

74
Q

Degenerative disk disease is due to the degeneration of:

A

IVD

75
Q

Degenerative joint disease is due to:

A

Osteoarthritic changes at synovial facet joints

76
Q

Foraminal encroachment is due to:

A

diminished dimensions of IVF secondary to degenerative changes in adjacent structures

77
Q

Spondylosis is due to:

A

osteophyte formation at joint margins

78
Q

Advanced spur formation from degeneration of vertebral bodies and AF contributes to:

A

Spondylosis Deformans

79
Q

Ossification along ant vertebral bodies and disk spaces contributes to

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis(DISH)

80
Q

What age group is at risk for Degenerative disk diseases

A

> 60 years of age

81
Q

Intervertebral herniation of NP through endplate into spongiosa of vertebral body is called

A

Schmorl’s nodes

82
Q

Nitrogen gas from extracellular spaces accumulating in degenerative dehydrated fissures of disk is called:

A

Vacuum Phenomenon

83
Q

Hallmark of DDD is:

A

decreased disk height

84
Q

Hallmark of DJD is:

A

decreased joint space, subchondral sclerosis, ostephytes

85
Q

What view would be used to see foraminal encroachment?

A

Oblique

86
Q

What levels of the C-spine would you most likely find osteophytes in response to DDD

A

C4-C5 and C5-C6

87
Q

Would spondylosis deformans typically show a decrease in disk height?

A

No

88
Q

This type of degenerative disease typically shows a claw-like formation, cupping toward the IVD

A

Spondylosis deformans

89
Q

This type of degenerative disease has an unknown etiology but is often found in diabetic pt.

A

DISH(Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis)

-also found in pt with growth hormones, vitamin A, retinoid derivatives, metabolic syndromes

90
Q

In what age and gender demographic group would you typically see DISH

A

Age 40, male

91
Q

3 criteria of DISH:

A
  1. Flowing ossification of at least 4 contiguous vertebral bodies
  2. Preservation of disk height
  3. Absence of facet joint DJD