Radiographic Procedures Flashcards by Gemaicca Costan

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

(A) Tangential
(B) AP axial
(C) Transthoracic lateral
(D) PA oblique scapular Y

(D) PA oblique scapular Y

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The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.
(B) in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image recorder.
(C) erect and weight-bearing.
(D) erect, with and without weights.

(A) in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image recorder.

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Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-1 should be used to demonstrate the
cervical apophyseal articulations?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 2 only

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In which of the following positions / projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

(A) Dorsoplantar projection of the foot
(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
(C) Medial oblique position of the foot
(D) Lateral foot

(B) Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

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Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of
superimposition?

(A) Radial flexion
(B) Ulnar flexion
(C) AP oblique
(D) AP 6.

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Angulation of the central ray may be required

to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
in order to project through certain articulations.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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With the patient and the x-ray tube positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-2, which of the
following will be obtained?

Intercondyloid fossa
Patellofemoral articulation
Tangential patella

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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Which of the following are part of the bony thorax?

12 thoracic vertebrae
Scapulae
24 ribs

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull, with the
central ray perpendicular to the film, are true except

(A) The orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the film.
(B) The petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
(C) The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the film.
(D) The central ray exits at the nasion.

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Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-3 is (are) true?

The tibial eminences are well visualized.
The intercondyloid fossa is demonstrated between the femoral condyles.
The femorotibial articulation is well demonstrated.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

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Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

Knee
Intervertebral joints
Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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“Flattening” of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Emphysema
(C) Pleural effusion
(D) Pneumonia

(B) Emphysema

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Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ)?

Gallbladder
Hepatic flexure
Cecum

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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The number 4 in the radiograph in Figure 2-4 represents which of the following renal
structures?

(A) Vesicoureteral junction
(B) Renal pelvis
(C) Minor calyx
(D) Major calyx

(A) Vesicoureteral junction

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During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of
average shape will usually demonstrate

anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach.
barium-filled fundus.
double-contrast body and antral portions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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The ridge that marks the bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi
is the

(A) root.
(B) hilus.
(C) carina.
(D) epiglottis.

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Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

(A) Mediolateral
(B) Lateromedial
(C) Lateral weight-bearing
(D) 30o medial oblique

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Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

The heads of the first row of phalanges
The cuboid
The cuneiforms

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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The cross-table or axiolateral projection of the hip requires the cassette to be placed
in contact with the lateral surface of the body, with the top edge slightly above the
iliac crest.
in a vertical position and exactly perpendicular to the long axis of the femoral
neck.
just above the iliac crest and adjacent to the lateral surface of the affected hip.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

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In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray directed 30o caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external
auditory meatus, which of the following is best demonstrated?

(A) Occipital bone
(B) Frontal bone
(C) Facial bones
(D) Basal foramina

(A) Occipital bone

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The best way to control voluntary motion is

(A) immobilization of the part.
(B) careful explanation of the procedure.
(C) short exposure time.
(D) physical restraint.

(B) careful explanation of the procedure.

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Figure 2-5 illustrates which of the following positions?

(A) AP
(B) Medial oblique
(C) Lateral oblique
(D) Partial flexion

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What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic examination of the sternum?

Lateral
RAO
LAO

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

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Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine?

Intervertebral foramina
Apophyseal joints
Intervertebral joints

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

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Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the (A) right main bronchus. (B) left main bronchus. (C) esophagus. (D) proximal stomach.

(A) right main bronchus.

Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral decubitus 3. AP Trendelenburg (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

What should you do if you discover while taking the patient history that a patient scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) takes Glucophage (metformin hydrochloride) daily? 1. Proceed with the exam. 2. Reschedule the exam until the patient has been off Glucophage for 48 h. 3. Instruct the patient to withhold the Glucophage for 48 h after the exam. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

28. In which of the following ways was the image seen in Figure 2-6 obtained? (A) PA, chin extended, OML forming 37o to table (B) PA, OML and central ray (CR) perpendicular to table (C) PA, OML perpendicular to table, CR 25o caudad (D) PA, OML perpendicular to table, CR 25o cephalad

Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-6 is (are) true? 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses. 2. The sphenoidal sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits. 3. The chin should be elevated more to bring the petrous ridges below the maxillary sinuses. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except (A) weight-bearing. (B) RAO. (C) LAO. (D) PA.

(A) weight-bearing.

Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel? (A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (B) Percutaneous angioplasty (C) Renal arteriography (D) Surgical nephrostomy

(B) Percutaneous angioplasty

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should the AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to film, central ray perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to film, central ray perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, central ray perpendicular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following positions is required in order to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity? (A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (C) AP Trendelenburg (D) AP supine

(B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down

Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior: 1. Trachea 2. Apex of heart 3. Esophagus (A) Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart (B) Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart (C) Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus (D) Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid? (A) Lateral wrist (B) Ulnar flexion (C) Radial flexion (D) Carpal tunnel

(B) Ulnar flexion

In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-7 made? (A) AP with perpendicular plantar surface (B) 45o lateral oblique (C) 20o medial oblique (D) 45o medial oblique

(D) 45o medial oblique

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in Figure 2-7? (A) Talus (B) Medial malleolus (C) Lateral malleolus (D) Lateral tibial condyle

(B) Medial malleolus

39. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in Figure 2-8? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Pedicles 3. Apophyseal joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

In order to better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the (A) skull is obliqued toward the affected side. (B) skull is obliqued away from the affected side. (C) central ray is angled cephalad. (D) central ray is angled caudad.

What should the patient be instructed to remove prior to x-ray examination of the chest? 1. Dentures 2. Earrings 3. Necklaces (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the film when the patient is positioned in a (A) left lateral position. (B) 25 to 30o LAO position. (C) 25 to 30o LPO position. (D) 30 to 40o LPO position.

(B) 25 to 30o LAO position.

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture. 2. a foreign body. 3. soft tissue. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

The radiograph seen in Figure 2-9 best demonstrates the (A) descending colon. (B) rectosigmoid region. (C) splenic flexure. (D) hepatic flexure.

(D) hepatic flexure.

In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-9 taken? (A) LPO (B) RPO (C) AP axial (D) Right lateral decubitus

(A) LPO

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography? 1. The patient is often examined in the semierect position. 2. Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot. 3. Filming begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull? 1. The head is rested on the extended chin. 2. The OML is perpendicular to the film. 3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys? (A) Lateral abdomen (B) AP abdomen (C) Dorsal decubitus abdomen (D) Ventral decubitus abdomen

(B) AP abdomen

49. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated? (A) Lateral oblique foot (B) Medial oblique foot (C) Lateral foot (D) Weight-bearing foot

(B) Medial oblique foot

The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the (A) fifth thoracic vertebra. (B) T2-3 interspace. (C) T4-5 interspace. (D) costal margin.

(B) T2-3 interspace.

What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient? (A) Superior and medial (B) Superior and lateral (C) Inferior and medial (D) Inferior and lateral

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in (A) the recumbent position. (B) the erect position. (C) the anatomic position. (D) Fowler's position.

(A) the recumbent position.

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest? 1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized. 2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical. 3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the (A) femur. (B) tibia. (C) fibula. (D) mandible.

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint? (A) Medial oblique 15 to 20o (B) Lateral oblique 15 to 20o (C) Medial oblique 45o (D) Lateral oblique 45o

To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's (A) left side is elevated 40o. (B) right side is elevated 40o. (C) left side is elevated 15o. (D) right side is elevated 15o.

(A) left side is elevated 40o.

59. The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include 1. greater contrast medium sensitivity. 2. immediately available images. 3. increased resolution. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The usual patient preparation for an upper GI series is (A) clear fluids 8 h prior to exam. (B) NPO after midnight. (C) enemas until clear before exam. (D) light breakfast the day of the exam.

(B) NPO after midnight.

Which projection(s) of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum? 1. Right lateral decubitus 2. Left lateral decubitus 3. Upright (A) 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1 (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following criteria is (are) required for visualization of the greater tubercle in profile? 1. Epicondyles parallel to the film 2. Arm in external rotation 3. Humerus in AP position (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3(C) 1 and 2 only

What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination? 1. Drink plenty of fluids. 2. Take a mild laxative. 3. Increase dietary fiber. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle, with the patient in the AP recumbent position on the x-ray table? (A) 10 to 15o caudad (B) 10 to 15o cephalad (C) 25 to 30o cephalad (D) 25 to 30o caudad

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? (A) Oblique cervical spine, seated (B) AP cervical spine, recumbent (C) Horizontal beam lateral (D) Laterals in flexion and extension

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint? (A) Semilunar / trochlear notch (B) Radial head (C) Capitulum (D) Trochlea

(D) Trochlea

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the film 2. MSP perpendicular to the film 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the film (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the (A) subdural space. (B) subarachnoid space. (C) epidural space. (D) epidermal space.

(B) subarachnoid space.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left axillary portion of the ribs? (A) Left lateral (B) PA (C) LPO (D) RPO

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in Figure 2-10? 1. The patient is placed in an RAO position. 2. The midcoronal plane is about 60o to the film. 3. The acromion process is free of superimposition. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibulon joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

The pars interarticularis is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? (A) Eye (B) Front foot (C) Body (D) Neck

(D) Neck

Which of the following will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique

(D) Lateral oblique

To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during IV urography, it is helpful to 1. use a 15o AP Trendelenburg position. 2. apply compression to the proximal ureters. 3. apply compression to the distal ureters. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(A) 1 only

When the patient is unable to assume the upright body position, how should a lateral projection of the sinuses be obtained? (A) Horizontal beam lateral (B) Transthoracic lateral (C) Recumbent RAO or LAO (D) Recumbent RPO or LPO

(A) Horizontal beam lateral

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and central ray perpendicular to the film, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids (A) below the orbits. (B) in the lower one-third of the orbits. (C) completely within the orbits. (D) above the orbits.

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except (A) The right lung has two lobes. (B) The uppermost portion of the lung is the apex. (C) Each lung is enclosed in pleura. (D) The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi.

(A) The right lung has two lobes.

During atrial systole, blood flows into the right ventricle by way of what valve? (A) Pulmonary semilunar (B) Aortic (C) Mitral (D) Tricuspid

(D) Tricuspid

The PA chest radiograph seen in Figure 2-11 demonstrates 1. rotation. 2. scapulae removed from lung fields. 3. excessively high contrast. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The letter A in Figure 2-11 indicates (A) a left anterior rib. (B) a right posterior rib. (C) a left posterior rib. (D) a right anterior rib.

The letter C in Figure 2-11 indicates (A) the left cardiophrenic angle. (B) the right cardiophrenic angle. (C) the left costophrenic angle. (D) the right costophrenic angle.

(D) the right costophrenic angle.

What should be done if the patient is unable to extend his or her head sufficiently for the acanthioparietal projection (reverse Waters' method)? 1. Place a support behind the patient's shoulders. 2. Angle cephalad. 3. Angle caudad. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following are demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine? 1. Intervertebral spaces 2. Apophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The two palpable bony landmarks that are generally used for accurate localization of thehip are the (A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis. (B) iliac crest and greater trochanter. (C) symphysis pubis and greater trochanter. (D) iliac crest and symphysis pubis.

(A) anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and symphysis pubis.

The structure labeled 2 in Figure 2-12 is the (A) maxillary sinus. (B) sphenoidal sinus. (C) ethmoidal sinus. (D) frontal sinus.

Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2-12? (A) PA axial projection (Caldwell method) (B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) (C) Lateral projection (D) Submentovertical projection

(B) Parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method)

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm. 2. raises the ribs. 3. depresses the abdominal viscera. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The radiograph shown in Figure 2-13 demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus. 2. calcaneus and the cuboid. 3. talus and the navicular. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following correctly identifies the position illustrated in Figure 2-14? (A) AP axial mastoids (Towne / Grashey) (B) Axiolateral TMJ (open mouth) (C) Axiolateral mastoids (Laws) (D) Posterior profile mastoids (Stenvers)

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image recorder? (A) Coracoid (B) Coronoid (C) Olecranon (D) Glenoid

A "blowout" fracture is usually related to which of the following structures? (A) Foot (B) Elbow (C) Orbit (D) Pelvis

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when performing a double- contrast upper GI series? (A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent. (B) Patient is placed recumbent, given a small amount of high-density barium, then given a gas-producing substance. (C) Patient is given a gas-producing substance, placed recumbent, then given a small amount of high-density barium. (D) Patient is given a small amount of high-density barium, placed recumbent, then given a gas-producing substance.

(A) Patient is given gas-producing substance, then given a small amount of high-density barium, then placed recumbent.

To make the patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should 1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intraabdominal pressure. 2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm. 3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98 to 105oF) to aid in retention. (A) 2 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The pedicle is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? (A) Eye (B) Front foot (C) Body (D) Neck

(A) Eye

The position shown in Figure 2-15 is known as (A) ventral decubitus. (B) dorsal decubitus. (C) left lateral decubitus. (D) right lateral decubitus.

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition? (A) AP oblique, medial rotation (B) AP oblique, lateral rotation (C) Mediolateral (D) Lateral weight-bearing

(A) AP oblique, medial rotation

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? (A) Foramen magnum (B) Trachea (C) Pharynx (D) C4

(D) C4

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of both colic flexures? (A) LAO and RPO (B) Lateral (C) Left lateral decubitus (D) AP or PA erect

(D) AP or PA erect

What is the structure indicated by the number 6 in Figure 2-16? (A) Common hepatic duct (B) Common bile duct (C) Cystic duct (D) Pancreatic duct

(A) Common hepatic duct

What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2-16? (A) Common hepatic duct (B) Common bile duct (C) Cystic duct (D) Pancreatic duct

In order to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers (A) rest on the cassette for immobilization. (B) must be supported parallel to the film. (C) are radiographed in natural flexion. (D) are radiographed in palmar flexion.

(B) must be supported parallel to the film.

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula? (A) Retrograde pyelogram (B) Voiding cystourethrogram (C) Hysterosalpingogram (D) Myelogram

All of the following statements regarding large-bowel radiography are true except (A) The large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination. (B) Retained fecal material can simulate pathology. (C) Single-contrast studies help to demonstrate polyps. (D) Double-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions.

In the lateral projection of the knee, the 1. femoral condyles are superimposed. 2. patellofemoral joint is visualized. 3. knee is flexed about 20 to 30o. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

In order to demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the (A) central ray is directed 15 to 20o cephalad. (B) central ray is directed 15 to 20o caudad. (C) exposure is made on full exhalation. (D) patient's shoulders are rolled forward.

(A) central ray is directed 15 to 20o cephalad.

Examination of the pars petrosae in the posterior profile position (Stenvers method) requires 1. the use of the IOML. 2. the MSP to be rotated 45o. 3. that the head rest on the forehead, nose, and chin. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the (A) position of the organ. (B) size and shape of the organ. (C) diverticula. (D) gastric or bowel mucosa.

(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.

The sigmoid colon is located in the (A) left upper quadrant (LUQ). (B) left lower quadrant (LLQ). (C) right upper quadrant (RUQ). (D) right lower quadrant (RLQ).

(B) left lower quadrant (LLQ).

Which of the following would be obtained with the position illustrated in Figure 2-17? 1. Splenic flexure and descending colon 2. Hepatic flexure and ascending colon 3. Hepatic flexure and descending colon (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(A) 1 only

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Biliary tract calculi 2. Patency of the biliary ducts 3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

With the patient positioned as illustrated in Figure 2-18, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? (A) Patella (B) Patellofemoral articulation (C) Intercondyloid fossa (D) Tibial tuberosity

Which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 4 in Figure 2-19? (A) Maxillary sinus (B) Coronoid process (C) Zygomatic arch (D) Coracoid process

(A) Maxillary sinus

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction 3. Presurgical patients (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures? 1. Esophagus 2. Pylorus 3. Ilium (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The radiograph seen in Figure 2-20 was made in what position? (A) PA (B) RAO (C) LPO (D) Right lateral

Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina? (A) Number 1 (B) Number 2 (C) Number 3 (D) Number 4

(D) Number 4

Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-21 will best demonstrate the lumbar apophyseal joints closest to the film? (A) Number 1 (B) Number 2 (C) Number 3 (D) Number 4

(A) Number 1

The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the (A) coronal plane 45o to the film. (B) midsagittal plane 45o to the film. (C) coronal plane 70o to the film. (D) midsagittal plane 70o to the film.

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Transthoracic lateral (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to 1. suppress filling of the superficial veins. 2. coerce filling of the deep veins. 3. outline the anterior tibial vein. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous, glandular breast tissue? (A) A postpubertal adolescent (B) A 20 year old with one previous pregnancy (C) A menopausal woman (D) A postmenopausal 65 year old

(A) A postpubertal adolescent

Which of the following positions / projections of the skull will result in the most shape distortion? (A) 0o PA (B) 23o Caldwell (C) 37o Towne / Grashey (D) 25o Haas

Which of the following examinations require(s) special identification markers in addition to the usual patient name and number, date, and side marker? 1. IVP 2. Tomography 3. Abdominal survey (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is most likely to be the correct routine for a radiographic examination of the forearm? (A) PA and medial oblique (B) AP and lateral oblique (C) PA and lateral (D) AP and lateral

(D) AP and lateral

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the (A) costal margin. (B) umbilicus. (C) xiphoid tip. (D) fourth lumbar vertebra.

(D) fourth lumbar vertebra.

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process? (A) Avulsion fracture (B) Torus fracture (C) Comminuted fracture (D) Compound fracture

(A) Avulsion fracture

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? (A) Distal interphalangeal joints (B) Proximal interphalangeal joints (C) Metacarpals (D) Radial styloid process

(D) Radial styloid process

The scapular Y projection of the shoulder demonstrates 1. an oblique projection of the shoulder. 2. anterior or posterior dislocation. 3. a lateral projection of the shoulder. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following projection(s) require(s) that the shoulder be placed in internal rotation? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral humerus (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The fifth metacarpal is located on which aspect of the hand? (A) Medial (B) Lateral (C) Ulnar (D) Volar

(A) Medial

With the patient's head in a PA position and the central ray directed 20o cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? (A) Symphysis (B) Rami (C) Body (D) Angle

(B) Rami

During intravenous (IV) urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate 1. filling of obstructed ureters. 2. the renal pelvis. 3. the superior calyces. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the (A) median sagittal plane. (B) midcoronal plane. (C) sagittal plane. (D) transverse plane.

(B) midcoronal plane.

In order to demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45o (A) toward the affected side. (B) away from the affected side. (C) with the arm at the side in the anatomic position. (D) with the arm in external rotation.

(A) toward the affected side.

Which of the following is (are) accurate criticism(s) of the open-mouth projection of C1-2 seen in Figure 2-22? 1. The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table. 2. The neck should be flexed more. 3. The neck should be extended more. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. extrinsic spinal cord compression resulting from disk herniation. 2. post-traumatic swelling of the spinal cord. 3. internal disk lesions. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of the barium-filled, high and transverse stomach? (A) Place the patient in a 35 to 40o RAO position. (B) Place the patient in a lateral position. (C) Angle the central ray 35 to 45o cephalad. (D) Angle the central ray 35 to 45o caudad.

Which of the following is recommended in order to better demonstrate the tarso- metatarsal joints in the dorsoplantar projection of the foot? (A) Invert the foot (B) Evert the foot (C) Angle the central ray 10o posteriorly (D) Angle the central ray 10o anteriorly

The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is (A) red marrow. (B) yellow marrow. (C) cortical tissue. (D) cancellous tissue.

(B) yellow marrow.

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? (A) Patient AP with 30 to 35o angle cephalad (B) Patient AP with 30 to 35o angle caudad (C) Patient AP with 0o angle (D) Patient lateral, coned to L5

(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35o angle cephalad

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis? (A) Ischial tuberosity (B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter (C) Anterior superior iliac spine (D) Anterior inferior iliac spine

(B) Most prominent part of the greater trochanter

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in (A) sonography. (B) computed axial tomography (CAT). (C) magnetic resonance (D) nuclear medicine.

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed (A) eversion. (B) inversion. (C) abduction. (D) adduction.

(D) adduction.

In which of the following positions was the radiograph in Figure 2-23 probably made? (A) AP recumbent (B) PA recumbent (C) PA upright (D) AP Trendelenburg

(B) PA recumbent

Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)? 1. Cervical 2. Thoracic 3. Lumbar (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the film. 2. The MSP is perpendicular to the film. 3. The central ray enters 2 in superior to the external auditory meatus (EAM). (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? (A) Fifth metacarpal (B) First metacarpal (C) Distal radius (D) Distal ulna

(B) First metacarpal

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in the asthenic patient? (A) LAO (B) RAO (C) LPO (D) Erect

(A) LAO

The ileocecal valve is normally located in which of the following body regions? (A) Right iliac (B) Left iliac (C) Right lumbar (D) Hypogastric

(A) Right iliac

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position. 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2

Which of the following structures is (are) most likely to be demonstrated in a right lateral decubitus position of a double-contrast BE? 1. Lateral wall of the descending colon 2. Medial wall of the ascending colon 3. Lateral wall of the ascending colon (A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? (A) AP axial (B) Lateral (C) Parietoacanthial (D) Submentovertical (SMV)

(D) Submentovertical (SMV)

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph in Figure 2-24? 1. The coracoid process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib. 2. This projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation. 3. This projection is performed to evaluate possible shoulder dislocation. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(A) 1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Intertubercular groove (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations? (A) IVP (B) Retrograde pyelogram (C) Myelogram (D) Arthrogram

In Figure 2-25, which of the following is represented by the number 1? (A) Pedicle (B) Lamina (C) Spinous process (D) Superior articular process

(B) Lamina

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. The sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical. 2. The sternum is seen lateral without rotation. 3. Ten anterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions? (A) Scapular Y (B) AP scapula (C) Medial oblique elbow (D) Lateral oblique elbow

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized. 2. talofibular joint is visualized. 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except (A) lateral rectum. (B) AP axial rectosigmoid. (C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen. (D) RAO and LAO abdomen.

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses? (A) Erect (B) Recumbent (C) Oblique (D) Trendelenburg

(A) Erect

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Patient PA, knee flexed 40o, central ray directed caudad 40o to the popliteal fossa 2. Patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, central ray directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Patient PA, patella parallel to film, heel rotated 5 to 10o lateral, central ray perpendicular to knee joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The scapula pictured in Figure 2-27 demonstrates 1. its posterior aspect. 2. its costal surface. 3. its sternal articular surface. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

In Figure 2-27, which of the following is represented by the number 2? (A) Acromion process (B) Scapular spine (C) Coracoid process (D) Acromioclavicular joint

In Figure 2-27, which of the following is represented by the number 12? (A) Vertebral border (B) Axillary border (C) Inferior angle (D) Superior angle

(D) Superior angle

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula. 2. following inversion or eversion injuries. 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15o caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits. 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally. 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5o cephalad in order to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space? (A) Lateral femoral condyle (B) Medial femoral condyle (C) Patella (D) Tibial eminence

(B) Medial femoral condyle

The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low, midline stomach and gallbladder is the (A) asthenic. (B) hyposthenic. (C) sthenic. (D) hypersthenic.

(A) asthenic.

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the LUQ? 1. Stomach 2. Spleen 3. Cecum (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those (A) nearest the film. (B) furthest from the film. (C) seen medially. (D) seen inferiorly.

(B) furthest from the film.

Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses? (A) Parietoacanthial (B) PA axial (C) Lateral (D) True PA

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed. 3. patient may be examined in the erect position. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements are true regarding Figure 2-28? 1. The radiograph was made in the RAO position. 2. The central ray should enter more inferiorly. 3. The sternum should be projected onto the right side of the thorax. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

To better visualize the knee joint space in the radiograph in Figure 2-29, the radiographer should (A) flex the knee more acutely. (B) flex the knee less acutely. (C) angle the CR 5 to 7o cephalad. (D) angle the CR 5 to 7o caudad.

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral disk spaces 2. C3-7 cervical bodies 3. Apophyseal joints (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

That portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the (A) diaphysis. (B) epiphysis. (C) metaphysis. (D) apophysis.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML. 2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits. 3. The frontal sinuses are visualized. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Tracheostomy and intubation are effective techniques used to restore breathing when there is (are) (A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx. (B) crushed tracheal rings due to trauma. (C) lower respiratory pathway closure due to inflammation and swelling. (D) respiratory pathway obstruction below the larynx.

(A) respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx.

In order to demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that (A) the glabellomeatal line is vertical. (B) the acanthiomeatal line is vertical. (C) a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical. (D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

(D) a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

Which of the following is recommended to demonstrate small amounts of air within the peritoneal cavity? (A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up (B) Lateral decubitus, affected side down (C) AP Trendelenburg (D) AP supine

(A) Lateral decubitus, affected side up

For the average patient, the central ray for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter (A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface. (B) midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen. (C) at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest. (D) perpendicular to the level of L2.

(A) midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface.

Which of the following is an important consideration in order to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand? (A) Oblique the hand no more than 45o. (B) Use a support sponge for the phalanges. (C) Clench the fist to bring the carpals closer to the film. (D) Utilize ulnar flexion.

(A) Oblique the hand no more than 45o.

Involuntary motion can be caused by 1. peristalsis. 2. severe pain. 3. heart muscle contraction. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? (A) AP knee (B) Lateral knee (C) Tangential patella (D) "Tunnel" view

In what position was the radiograph in Figure 2-30 made? (A) Flexion (B) Extension (C) Left bending (D) Right bending

(A) Flexion

The structure labeled 1 in Figure 2-30 is the (A) intervertebral disk space. (B) apophyseal joint. (C) intervertebral foramen. (D) spinous process.

(B) apophyseal joint.

When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demonstrate (A) the adrenal glands. (B) the renal surfaces. (C) kidney mobility. (D) the bladder neck.

AP erect left and right bending films of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 in of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate (A) spondylolisthesis. (B) subluxation. (C) scoliosis. (D) arthritis.

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? (A) AP (B) Lateral oblique (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral

In the posterior profile projection (Stenvers method) of the petrous pyramids, the 1. central ray is directed 12o cephalad. 2. MSP is 45o to the film. 3. head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle? (A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins (B) Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules (C) Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles (D) Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries

(A) Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) Medial oblique (D) Lateral oblique

Which of the following will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? (A) AP recumbent, affected shoulder (B) AP recumbent, both shoulders (C) AP erect, affected shoulder (D) AP erect, both shoulders

(D) AP erect, both shoulders

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position. 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation. 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is (A) cephalad. (B) caudad. (C) proximal. (D) medial.

With the patient PA, MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37o angle with the film, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as (A) asphyxia (B) aspiration (C) atelectasis (D) asystole

(B) aspiration

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla. 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct. 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made (A) on normal inspiration. (B) on inspiration, second breath. (C) on expiration. (D) during shallow breathing.

Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true? 1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female. 2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female. 3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. stent placement 3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line) (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

The structure(s) best demonstrated on an AP axial projection of the skull with the central ray directed 40 to 60o caudally is (are) the (A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina. (B) petrous pyramids. (C) occipital bone. (D) rotundum foramina.

(A) entire foramen magnum and the jugular foramina.

Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n) (A) esophagram. (B) upper GI series. (C) small-bowel series. (D) ERCP.

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart is called (A) hypertension. (B) elasticity. (C) pulse. (D) pressure.

The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate (A) the duodenal loop. (B) filling of the duodenal bulb. (C) hiatal hernia. (D) hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

Which of the following would be the best choice for a right shoulder exam to rule out fracture? (A) Internal and external rotation (B) AP and tangential (C) AP and AP axial (D) AP and scapular Y

(D) AP and scapular Y

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine? (A) Open-mouth projection (B) Moving mandible AP (C) Flexion and extension laterals (D) Right and left bending AP

Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter? (A) Nephrotomography (B) Retrograde urography (C) Cystourethrography (D) IV urography

(B) Retrograde urography

The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the central ray be directed 1. 15o cephalad. 2. 2 in superior to the pubic symphysis. 3. midline at the level of the lesser trochanter. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only

(A) 1 only

Which of the following would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees? (A) AP recumbent (B) Lateral recumbent (C) AP erect (D) Medial oblique

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation? (A) AP (B) Lateral (C) 30o RPO (D) 45o LPO

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the images seen in Figure 2- 31? 1. Image A is positioned in internal rotation. 2. Image B is positioned in internal rotation. 3. The greater tubercle is better demonstrated in image A. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

When the patient is recumbent and the central ray is directed horizontally, the patient is said to be in the (A) Trendelenburg position. (B) Fowler's position. (C) decubitus position. (D) Sims position.

Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux? (A) Intravenous urogram (B) Retrograde pyelogram (C) Voiding cystourethrogram (D) Nephrotomogram

The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh (A) adducted 25o from the horizontal. (B) abducted 25o from the vertical. (C) adducted 40o from the horizontal. (D) abducted 40o from the vertical.

(D) abducted 40o from the vertical.

Which of the following precaution(s) should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician. 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided. 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

Prior to the start of an IV urogram, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder. 2. Review the patient's allergy history. 3. Check the patient's creatinine level. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette. 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible. 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

The radiograph pictured in Figure 2-32 may be used to evaluate 1. polypoid lesions. 2. the lateral wall of the descending colon. 3. the posterior wall of the rectum. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the (A) cisterna magna. (B) individual intervertebral disks. (C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. (D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture? (A) Pyelonephrosis (B) Nephroptosis (C) Hydronephrosis (D) Cystourethritis

Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing breast exposure during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of a high-speed imaging system 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography? (A) Synarthrodial (B) Diarthrodial (C) Amphiarthrodial (D) Cartilaginous

(B) Diarthrodial

Which of the following describes correct centering for the lateral position of a barium- filled stomach? (A) Midway between the vertebrae and the left lateral margin of the abdomen (B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen (C) Midway between the midsagittal plane and the right lateral margin of the abdomen (D) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the posterior surface of the abdomen

(B) Midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen

In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical. 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia. 3. calcaneus is well visualized. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Which of the following describe(s) the correct placement of mammographic markers? 1. In the mediolateral projection, they are placed along the upper border of the breast. 2. In the craniocaudal projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast. 3. In the oblique projection, they are placed along the lateral aspect of the breast. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed (A) 20 to 25o caudad. (B) 20 to 25o cephalad. (C) 30 to 35o caudad. (D) 30 to 35o cephalad.

(A) 20 to 25o caudad.

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by thE (A) pulmonary artery. (B) pulmonary veins. (C) superior vena cava. (D) thoracic aorta.

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70o (rather than the desired 90o). How should the central ray be directed? (A) Perpendicular to the film (B) Parallel to the floor (C) 20o caudad (D) 20o cephalad

(B) Parallel to the floor

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? (A) Pneumothorax (B) Atelectasis (C) Pulmonary embolism (D) Hypoxia (A) Barium examinations (B) Spine radiography (C) Skull radiography (D) Emergency and trauma radiography

(D) Emergency and trauma radiography

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? (A) Pneumothorax (B) Atelectasis (C) Pulmonary embolism (D) Hypoxia

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenalmucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder? (A) Insulin (B) Cholecystokinin (C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (D) Gastrin

(B) Cholecystokinin

The axiolateral position (Law method) of examining the mastoids uses which of the following? 1. OML 2. MSP parallel to the tabletop 3. 15o caudad angulation (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located (A) high, transverse, and lateral. (B) low, transverse, and lateral. (C) high, vertical, and toward the midline. (D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.

(D) low, vertical, and toward the midline.

With which of the following is zonography associated? 1. Thick tomographic cuts 2. Long exposure amplitude 3. Less blurring than with pluridirectional tomography because a narrow exposure angle is used (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured posterior tibia (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Mammography of the augmented breast is best accomplished using (A) the Cleopatra method. (B) the Eklund method. (C) magnification films. (D) the cleavage view.

(B) the Eklund method.

Which of the following articulates with the base of the first metatarsal? (A) First cuneiform (B) Third cuneiform (C) Navicular (D) Cuboid

(A) First cuneiform

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery. 2. common carotid arteries. 3. vertebral arteries. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? (A) Appendicitis (B) Intussusception (C) Regional enteritis (D) Ulcerative colitis

(B) Intussusception

Which of the following are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in Figure 2- 33? 1. Apophyseal articulations 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. Inferior articular processes (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) recommended when positioning the patient for a lateral projection of the chest? 1. The patient should be examined upright. 2. The shoulders should be depressed. 3. The shoulders should be rolled forward. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

Which of the following is represented by the number 3 in Figure 2-34? (A) Inferior vena cava (B) Aorta (C) Gallbladder (D) Psoas muscle

(B) Aorta

Which of the following bones participates in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

All of the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except the (A) femoral neck. (B) pubic symphysis. (C) greater trochanter. (D) iliac crest. —————————————————————————

(A) femoral neck.

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the (A) lateral projection. (B) PA axial (Caldwell method) projection. (C) parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection. (D) AP axial (Grashey / Towne method) projection.

Which of the following examinations require(s) ureteral catheterization? 1. Retrograde pyelogram 2. Cystourethrogram 3. Cystoscopy (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 only

All of the following may be determined by oral cholecystography except (A) liver function. (B) ability of the gallbladder to concentrate bile. (C) emptying power of the gallbladder. (D) pancreatic function.

(D) pancreatic function.

The medial oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the 1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa. 2. radial head free of superimposition. 3. coronoid process free of superimposition. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the central ray should be directed (A) parallel to C4. (B) perpendicular to C4. (C) 15o cephalad to C4. (D) 15o caudad to C4.

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? (A) AP (B) 90o mediolateral (C) 45o internal rotation (D) 45o external rotation

If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head (A) 15o toward the side being examined. (B) 15o away from the side being examined. (C) 30o toward the side being examined. (D) 30o away from the side being examined.

(A) 15o toward the side being examined.

Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LAO position? (A) Hepatic flexure (B) Splenic flexure (C) Sigmoid colon (D) Ileocecal valve

(B) Splenic flexure

Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 is used for the SMV (Schüller method) projection of the skull? (A) Line 1 (B) Line 2 (C) Line 3 (D) Line 4

In Figure 2-35, which of the localization lines is used for the lateral projection of the skull? (A) Line 1 (B) Line 2 (C) Line 3 (D) Line 4

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? (A) Spondylitis (B) Spondylolysis (C) Spondylolisthesis (D) Spondylosis

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the central ray is directed (A) 1/2 in posterior to the anterior nasal spine. (B) 3/4 in posterior to the glabella. (C) 3/4 in distal to the nasion. (D) 1/2 in anterior to the EAM.

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the (A) AP projection. (B) lateral projection. (C) medial oblique projection. (D) lateral oblique projection.

(B) lateral projection.

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left apophyseaarticulations of the lumbar vertebrae? (A) LPO (B) RPO (C) Left lateral (D) PA

(A) LPO

Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the (A) lateral projection of the facial bones. (B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method). (C) posteroanterior projection with a 15o caudal angle. (D) Sweet's localization method.

(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to demonstrate 1. pneumothorax. 2. foreign body. 3. atelectasis. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate (A) humeral dislocation. (B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears. (C) osteoarthritis. (D) acromioclavicular joint separation.

(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.

What angle is formed by the median sagittal plane and the film in the parietoorbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal? (A) 90o (B) 37o (C) 53o (D) 45o

Peripheral lymphatic vessels are located using (A) ethiodized oil. (B) blue dye. (C) a tiny scalpel. (D) water-soluble iodinated media.

(B) blue dye.

Which of the following is located at the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae? (A) Manubrium (B) Jugular notch (C) Sternal angle (D) Xiphoid process

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body. 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated. 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the (A) transverse processes. (B) vertebral arches. (C) laminae. (D) pedicles.

(D) pedicles.

All of the following are mediastinal structures except the (A) esophagus. (B) thymus. (C) heart. (D) terminal bronchiole.

(D) terminal bronchiole.

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) and the central ray directed through the patient's open mouth? (A) Frontal (B) Ethmoidal (C) Maxillary (D) Sphenoidal

(D) Sphenoidal

To better demonstrate the ribs below the diaphragm 1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation. 2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation. 3. perform the exam in the recumbent position. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Which of the following projections of the calcaneus is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the film, and the central ray directed 40o caudad? (A) Axial plantodorsal projection (B) Axial dorsoplantar projection (C) Lateral projection (D) Weight-bearing lateral projection

(D) Weight-bearing lateral projection

(B) Axial dorsoplantar projection

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. respiratory phase. 2. body habitus. 3. patient position. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 to 20o caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. In order to achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to (A) 10 to 15o caudal. (B) 25 to 30o caudal. (C) 15 to 20o cephalic. (D) No change in angulation is necessary.

(A) 10 to 15o caudal.

The patient positioned for an operative cholangiography is in a (A) 15 to 20o LPO. (B) 15 to 20o RPO. (C) 45o LPO. (D) 45o RPO.

(B) 15 to 20o RPO.

When performing tomography, it is of paramount importance that the radiographer 1. properly apply immobilization. 2. provide adequate radiation protection whenever possible. 3. obtain and check a scout film. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a 1. torn meniscus. 2. Baker's cyst. 3. torn rotator cuff. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(A) 1 and 2 only

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the film. 2. metatarsals are superimposed. 3. talofibular joint should be visualized. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency. 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity. 3. uterine position. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with spot film and tilt table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

All of the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true, except (A) For radiography of the kidneys, the central ray should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. (B) If a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than the standard PA projection. (C) Chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. (D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

(D) Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

Operative cholangiography may be performed to 1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm. 2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla. 3. examine the patency of the biliary tract. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the (A) hepatic flexure. (B) splenic flexure. (C) transverse flexure. (D) sigmoid flexure.

(B) splenic flexure.

T-tube cholangiography is performed (A) preoperatively. (B) during surgery. (C) postoperatively. (D) with a Chiba needle.

Arthrography requires the use of 1. general anesthesia. 2. sterile technique. 3. fluoroscopy. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

The contrast media of choice for use in myelography are (A) ionic non-water-soluble. (B) ionic water-soluble. (C) nonionic water-soluble. (D) gas.

Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins? (A) Aortofemoral arteriogram (B) Upper-limb venogram (C) Lower-limb venogram (D) Renal venogram

(B) Upper-limb venogram

Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph? 1. A ring when performing hand radiography 2. An antishock garment 3. A pneumatic splint (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25o RPO position with the central ray entering 1 in medial to the elevated ASIS? (A) Left sacroiliac joint (B) Right sacroiliac joint (C) Left ilium (D) Right ilium

(A) Left sacroiliac joint

Which of the following are appropriate techniques for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts. 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient. 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? (A) Closed (B) Compound (C) Compression (D) DepressedAnswers and Explanations

(D) DepressedAnswers and Explanations