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APPELTON QUESTIONS > PATIENT CARE > Flashcards

PATIENT CARE Flashcards

1
Q

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?

(A) Let the master answer.
(B) The thing speaks for itself.
(C) A thing or matter settled by justice.
(D) A matter settled by precedent.

A

(B) The thing speaks for itself.

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2
Q

When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine
range?

(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
(B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

A

(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL

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3
Q

The condition of slow heart rate, below 60 beats per minute (bpm), is termed

(A) hyperthermia.
(B) hypotension.
(C) hypoxia.
(D) bradycardia.

A

(D) bradycardia.

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4
Q

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be

(A) protected from injury.
(B) placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus.
(C) allowed to thrash freely.
(D) given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.

A

(A) protected from injury.

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5
Q

Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include

  1. tuberculosis.
  2. mumps.
  3. rubella.
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1 and 3 only
    (D) 1, 2, and 3
A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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6
Q

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his
airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You
should

(A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths.
(B) proceed with the Heimlich maneuver.
(C) begin external chest compressions at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute.
(D) begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 per minute.

A

(A) begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths.

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7
Q

To reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from stretcher to x-ray
table, the radiographer should

(A) pull the patient.
(B) push the patient.
(C) hold the patient away from his or her body and lift.
(D) bend at the waist and pull.

A

(A) pull the patient.

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7
Q

The least toxic contrast medium listed below is

(A) barium sulfate.
(B) metrizamide.
(C) ethiodized oil.
(D) meglumine diatrizoate.

A

(A) barium sulfate.

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8
Q
A
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9
Q

An esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following
esophageal disorders/symptoms?

  1. Varices
  2. Achalasia
  3. Dysphasia

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

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10
Q

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might indicate hypertension?

(A) 50 mmHg
(B) 70 mmHg
(C) 90 mmHg
(D) 110 mmHg

A

(D) 110 mmHg

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11
Q

All of the following statements regarding osteoarthritis are true except

(A) Osteoarthritis is a progressive disorder.
(B) Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder.
(C) Osteoarthritis involves deterioration of the articular cartilage.
(D) Osteoarthritis involves the formation of bony spurs.

A

(B) Osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder.

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12
Q

Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the
alveolar spaces, is

(A) emphysema.
(B) empyema.
(C) pneumothorax.
(D) pneumoconiosis.

A

(A) emphysema.

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13
Q

In which of the following situations should a radiographer wear protective eye gear
(goggles)?

  1. When performing an upper gastrointestinal radiography examination
  2. When assisting the radiologist during an angiogram
  3. When assisting the radiologist in a biopsy / aspiration procedure

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

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14
Q

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously
include all of the following except

(A) a warm feeling.
(B) altered taste.
(C) nausea.
(D) hypotension.

A

(D) hypotension.

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15
Q

A diabetic patient who is prepared for a fasting radiographic exam is susceptible to a
hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by

  1. shaking and nervousness.
  2. cold, clammy skin.
  3. cyanosis

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 2 only

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16
Q

Nitroglycerin is used

(A) to relieve pain from angina pectoris.
(B) to prevent a heart attack.
(C) as a vasoconstrictor.
(D) to increase blood pressure.

A

(A) to relieve pain from angina pectoris.

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17
Q

In reviewing a patient’s blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen
(BUN) ranges is considered normal?

(A) 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL
(B) 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL
(D) Up to 50 mg/100 mL

A

(C) 8 to 25 mg/100 mL

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18
Q

Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?

(A) Warming
(B) Refrigeration
(C) Storage at normal room temperature
(D) Storage in a cool, dry place

A

(A) Warming

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19
Q

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile techniques?

(A) Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms.
(B) Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level.
(C) Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face.
(D) A sterile field should not be left unattended.

A

(C) Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face.

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20
Q

While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a
chest film to check placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter. A Swan-Ganz catheter is a(n)

(A) pacemaker.
(B) chest tube.
(C) intravenous catheter.
(D) urinary catheter.

A

(C) intravenous catheter.

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21
Q

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered

(A) rectally.
(B) orally.
(C) intrathecally.
(D) through a nasogastric tube.

A

(C) intrathecally.

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22
Q

An ambulatory patient is one who

(A) is able to walk.
(B) is unable to walk.
(C) has difficulty breathing.
(D) arrives by ambulance.

A

(A) is able to walk.

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23
Q

The medical term for nosebleed is

(A) vertigo.
(B) epistaxis.
(C) urticaria.
(D) aura.

A

(B) epistaxis.

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24
Q

Which of the following must be included in the patient’s medical record or chart?

  1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders
  2. Medical history
  3. Informed consent

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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25
Q

Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

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26
Q

A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed

(A) an ampule.
(B) a vial.
(C) a bolus.
(D) a carafe.

A

(A) an ampule.

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27
Q
  1. Forms of intentional misconduct include
  2. slander.
  3. invasion of privacy.
  4. negligence.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 2 only

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28
Q

Instruments required to assess vital signs include

  1. a thermometer.
  2. a tongue blade.
  3. a watch with a second hand.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

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29
Q

An inanimate object that has been in contact with an infectious microorganism is termed
a

(A) vector.
(B) fomite.
(C) host.
(D) reservoir.

A

(B) fomite.

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30
Q

What type of precautions prevents the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form?

(A) Strict isolation
(B) Protective isolation
(C) Airborne precautions
(D) Contact precautions

A

(C) Airborne precautions

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31
Q

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed

(A) surgical asepsis.
(B) medical asepsis.
(C) sterilization.
(D) disinfection.

A

(C) sterilization.

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32
Q

Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include

  1. dysphagia.
  2. itching of palms and soles.
  3. constriction of the throat.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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33
Q

The usual patient preparation for an upper GI exam is

(A) NPO 8 h before the exam.
(B) light breakfast only on the morning of the exam.
(C) clear fluids only on the morning of the exam.
(D) 2 oz castor oil and enemas until clear.

A

(A) NPO 8 h before the exam.

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34
Q

A drug’s chemical name is called its

(A) generic name.
(B) trade name.
(C) brand name.
(D) proprietary name.

A

(A) generic name.

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35
Q

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg is usually considered

(A) hypertensive.
(B) hypotensive.
(C) average / normal.
(D) baseline.

A

(B) hypotensive.

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36
Q
A
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37
Q

In what order should the following exams be performed?

  1. Upper GI
  2. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
  3. Barium enema

(A) 3, 1, 2
(B) 1, 3, 2
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 2, 3, 1

A

(D) 2, 3, 1

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38
Q

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth
metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle exam. What should you do?

(A) Perform a left foot exam.
(B) Perform a left ankle exam.
(C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle exam.
(D) Check with the referring physician.

A

(D) Check with the referring physician.

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39
Q

All of the following statements regarding handwashing and skin care are correct except

(A) Hands should be washed after each patient examination.
(B) Faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels.
(C) Hands should be smooth and free from chapping.
(D) Any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

A

(D) Any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.

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40
Q

Which of the following body fluids is (are) potential carrier(s) of HIV?

  1. Semen
  2. Vaginal secretions
  3. Blood

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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41
Q

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health-
care provider’s and the patient’s actions contributed to an injurious outcome?

(A) Intentional misconduct
(B) Contributory negligence
(C) Gross negligence
(D) None of the above

A

(B) Contributory negligence

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42
Q

Log rolling is a method of moving patients with suspected

(A) head injury.
(B) spinal injury.
(C) bowel obstruction.
(D) extremity fracture.

A

(B) spinal injury.

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43
Q

A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which
of the following positions?

(A) Trendelenburg
(B) Fowler’s
(C) Sims
(D) Stenver’s

A

(A) Trendelenburg

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44
Q

An informed consent is required before performing which of the following exams?

(A) Upper GI
(B) Lower GI
(C) Sialogram
(D) Renal arteriogram

A

(D) Renal arteriogram

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45
Q
  1. Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent?
  2. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
  3. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue
  4. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

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46
Q

For which of the following radiographic examinations is a consent form usually required?

  1. Angiogram
  2. GI series
  3. Skeletal survey

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 only

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47
Q

Increased pain threshold, breakdown of skin, and atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands
are all important considerations when working with which group of patients?

(A) Infants
(B) Children
(C) Adolescents
(D) Geriatric patients

A

(D) Geriatric patients

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48
Q

The advantages of using nonionic, water-soluble contrast media include

  1. cost-containment benefits.
  2. low toxicity.
  3. fewer adverse reactions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

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49
Q

A vasodilator would most likely be used for

(A) angina.
(B) cardiac arrest.
(C) bradycardia.
(D) antihistamine.

A

(A) angina.

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50
Q

According to the CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention), all of the following
precaution guidelines are true, except

(A) Airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask.
(B) Masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions.
(C) Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.
(D) Gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

A

(C) Patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.

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51
Q

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure?

  1. Pulse oximeter
  2. Stethoscope
  3. Sphygmomanometer

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

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52
Q

The patient is placed in the lithotomy position for which of the following procedures?

(A) Myelography
(B) Venography
(C) T-tube cholangiography
(D) Hysterosalpingography

A

(D) Hysterosalpingography

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53
Q

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following
positions?

(A) Dorsal recumbent with head elevated
(B) Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
(C) Lateral recumbent
(D) Seated with feet supported

A

(B) Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

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54
Q

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data
should be obtained. An example of subjective data is

(A) The patient appears to have a productive cough.
(B) The patient has a blood pressure of 130/95.
(C) The patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position.
(D) The patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

A

(C) The patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position.

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55
Q

A nosocomial infection is a(n)

(A) infection acquired at a large gathering.
(B) upper respiratory infection.
(C) infection acquired in a hospital.
(D) type of rhinitis.

A

(C) infection acquired in a hospital.

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56
Q

You and a fellow radiographer have received an unconscious patient from a motor
vehicle accident. As you perform the examination, it is important that you

  1. refer to the patient by name.
  2. make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient.
  3. reassure the patient about what you are doing.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

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57
Q

Hypochlorite bleach (Clorox) and Lysol are examples of

(A) antiseptics.
(B) bacteriostatics.
(C) antifungal agents.
(D) disinfectants.

A

(D) disinfectants.

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58
Q

Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include

  1. rickets.
  2. osteomalacia.
  3. osteoarthritis.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

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59
Q

What is the most common means of spreading infection?

(A) Improperly disposed of contaminated waste
(B) Instruments that are improperly sterilized
(C) Soiled linen
(D) Human hands

A

(D) Human hands

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60
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding a two-member team performing
mobile radiography on a patient with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus aureus)
precautions?

  1. One radiographer remains “clean”that is, he or she has no physical contact with
    the patient.
  2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure.
  3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and
    removes it from its plastic protective cover.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 and 2 only

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61
Q

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast barium enema (BE) essential for
demonstration of the condition?

  1. Polyps
  2. Colitis
  3. Diverticulosis

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

62
Q

The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified
as

(A) neurogenic.
(B) cardiogenic.
(C) hypovolemic.
(D) septic.

A

(A) neurogenic.

63
Q

The chemical agent alcohol can be used effectively as a(n)

(A) antiseptic.
(B) germicide.
(C) disinfectant.
(D) antibiotic.

A

(A) antiseptic.

64
Q

Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe

(A) an inflammatory reaction.
(B) bronchial asthma.
(C) acute chest pain.
(D) allergic shock.

A

(D) allergic shock.

65
Q
  1. What instructions might a patient receive upon completing a barium enema (BE)
    examination?
  2. Drink plenty of fluids.
  3. Take a mild laxative.
  4. Withhold fluids for 6 h.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only

A

(A) 1 and 2 only

66
Q

Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include

  1. loss of bone calcium.
  2. loss of hearing.
  3. loss of mental alertness.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 only

67
Q

The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying
sufficient blood to the heart is called

(A) tachycardia.
(B) bradycardia.
(C) angina pectoris.
(D) syncope.

A

(C) angina pectoris.

68
Q

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection
of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes

(A) asthma.
(B) anaphylaxis.
(C) myocardial infarction.
(D) rhinitis.

A

(B) anaphylaxis.

69
Q

The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a
contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit?

  1. Put on gown and gloves only.
  2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap.
  3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit.

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

A

(B) 2 only

70
Q

Following a barium enema (BE) examination, the patient should be given which of the
following instructions?

  1. Increase fluid and fiber intake for several days.
  2. Changes in stool color will occur until all barium has been evacuated.
  3. Contact a physician if no bowel movement occurs in 24 h

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

71
Q

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience the least discomfort in which body
position?

(A) Fowler’s
(B) Trendelenburg
(C) Recumbent
(D) Erect

A

(D) Erect

72
Q

Which statement(s) would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?

  1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking.
  2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view.
  3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

73
Q

What is the most widely used method of vascular catheterization?

(A) Doppler
(B) Moniz
(C) Grandy
(D) Seldinger

A

(D) Seldinger

74
Q

A diuretic is used to

(A) induce vomiting.
(B) stimulate defecation.
(C) promote elimination of urine.
(D) inhibit coughing.

A

(C) promote elimination of urine.

75
Q

All of the following rules regarding proper handwashing technique are correct except

(A) Keep hands and forearms lower than elbows.
(B) Use paper towels to turn water on.
(C) Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible.
(D) Carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers.

A

(C) Avoid using hand lotions whenever possible.

76
Q

Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or
cardiac arrest?

(A) Nitroglycerin
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Hydrocortisone
(D) Digitoxin

A

(B) Epinephrine

77
Q

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is

(A) in cardiac arrest.
(B) choking.
(C) having a seizure.
(D) suffering from hiccups.

A

(B) choking.

78
Q

The pulse can be detected only by the use of a stethoscope in which of the following
locations?

(A) Wrist
(B) Apex of the heart
(C) Groin
(D) Neck

A

(B) Apex of the heart

79
Q

The most effective method of sterilization is

(A) dry heat.
(B) moist heat.
(C) pasteurization.
(D) freezing.

A

(B) moist heat.

80
Q

An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient having

(A) herniated disc.
(B) aneurysm clips.
(C) dental fillings.
(D) subdural bleeding.

A

(B) aneurysm clips.

81
Q

Which of the following should be used to disinfect the area after a blood spill?

(A) Soap and water
(B) Betadine solution
(C) One part bleach to ten parts water
(D) One part alcohol to ten parts water

A

(C) One part bleach to ten parts water

82
Q

Factors that are important to evaluate when selecting contrast media include

  1. miscibility.
  2. potential toxicity.
  3. viscosity.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

83
Q

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to

  1. move quickly.
  2. address them by their full name.
  3. give straightforward instructions.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

84
Q

Medication can be administered by which of the following routes?

  1. Orally
  2. Intravenously
  3. Intramuscularly

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

85
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding the administration of a barium enema to
a patient with a colostomy, except

(A) The dressing should be removed and disposed of.
(B) The drainage pouch should be retained unless a fresh one can be provided.
(C) The colostomy tip or catheter should be selected by the radiologist.
(D) The patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip.

A

(D) The patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip.

85
Q

The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is

(A) 5 to 7 breaths/min.
(B) 8 to 12 breaths/min.
(C) 12 to 20 breaths/min.
(D) 20 to 30 breaths/min.

A

(C) 12 to 20 breaths/min.

86
Q

Because of medicolegal considerations, radiographic images are required to include all
the following information, except

(A) the patient’s name and/or identification number.
(B) the patient’s birth date.
(C) a right or left side marker.
(D) the date of the examination.

A

(B) the patient’s birth date.

87
Q

The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called

(A) patent ductus arteriosus.
(B) coarctation of the aorta.
(C) atrial septal defect.
(D) ventricular septal defect.

A

(D) ventricular septal defect

88
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding the proper care of a patient with a
tracheostomy?

  1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason.
  2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated.
  3. Never suction for longer than 15 s, permitting the patient to rest in between.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

89
Q

Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in the

  1. gums.
  2. nailbeds.
  3. thorax.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

90
Q
  1. Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?

(A) Intravenous pyelogram
(B) Myelogram
(C) Lymphangiogram
(D) Computed tomography (CT)

A

(B) Myelogram

91
Q

When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should

(A) remove clothing from the injured arm first.
(B) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first.
(C) always remove clothing from the left arm first.
(D) always cut clothing away from the injured extremity.

A

(B) remove clothing from the uninjured arm first.

92
Q

A patient is usually required to drink a barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate
which of the following structure(s)?

  1. Pylorus
  2. Sigmoid
  3. Duodenum

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only

A

(B) 1 and 3 only

93
Q

Protective or “reverse” isolation is required in which of the following conditions?

  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Burns
  3. Leukemia

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

94
Q

When caring for a patient with an IV, the radiographer should keep the medication

(A) 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein.
(B) 18 to 20 in below the level of the vein.
(C) 28 to 30 in above the level of the vein.
(D) 28 to 30 in below the level of the vein.

A

(A) 18 to 20 in above the level of the vein.

95
Q

Radiographs are the property of the

(A) radiologist.
(B) patient.
(C) health-care institution.
(D) referring physician.

A

(C) health-care institution.

96
Q

When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is
important to

(A) place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder.
(B) place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder.
(C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder.
(D) clamp the Foley catheter.

A

(C) place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder.

97
Q

Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of pathogenic microorganisms without
necessarily killing them are called

  1. antiseptics.
  2. germicides.
  3. disinfectants.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 only

98
Q

Local anesthetics are likely to be used in all of the following radiographic examinations
except
(A) lower-extremity arteriography.
(B) arthrography.
(C) myelography.
(D) postoperative or T-tube cholangiography.

A

(D) postoperative or T-tube cholangiography.

99
Q

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection?

  1. Antecubital vein
  2. Basilic vein
  3. Popliteal vein

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 and 2

100
Q

When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is required that
the number of compressions per minute, compared to that for an adult,

(A) remain the same.
(B) double.
(C) decrease.
(D) increase.

A

(D) increase.

101
Q

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals
may be found guilty of

(A) invasion of privacy.
(B) slander.
(C) libel.
(D) defamation.

A

(A) invasion of privacy.

102
Q

Involuntary patient motion can be caused by

  1. post-traumatic shock.
  2. medication.
  3. the temperature of the room.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

103
Q

Symptoms of shock include

  1. rise in blood pressure.
  2. increase in pulse rate.
  3. restlessness and apprehension.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

104
Q

Which of the following blood pressure measurements indicates shock?

(A) Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg
(B) Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
(C) Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg
(D) Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

A

(A) Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

105
Q

All of the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true, except

(A) Oxygen is classified as a drug and must be prescribed by a physician.
(B) Rate of delivery and mode of delivery must be part of a physician order for oxygen.
(C) Oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed by the patient.
(D) None of the above; they are all true.

A

(D) None of the above; they are all true.

106
Q

The medical abbreviation meaning “three times a day” is

(A) tid.
(B) qid.
(C) qh.
(D) pc.

A

(A) tid.

107
Q

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for patient consent to be
valid?

  1. The patient must sign the consent form before receiving sedation.
  2. The physician named on the consent form must perform the procedure.
  3. All the blanks on the consent form must be filled in before the patient signs the
    form.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

108
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily
    while in the recumbent position?
    (A) Dyspnea
    (B) Apnea
    (C) Orthopnea
    (D) Oligopnea
A

(C) Orthopnea

109
Q

An intravenous urogram requires the patient to remain in one position for an
extended period of time. What can be done to make the patient as comfortable as
possible?

  1. Place a pillow under the patient’s head.
  2. Place a support cushion under the patient’s knees to relieve back strain.
  3. Place a radiopaque pad on the entire table prior to the start of the examination.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

110
Q

While in your care for a radiologic procedure, a patient asks to see his chart. Which
of the following is the appropriate response?

(A) Inform the patient that the chart is for health-care providers to view, not the patient.
(B) Inform the patient that you do not know where the chart is.
(C) Inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart, but that he should request to
view it with his physician, so that it is properly interpreted.
(D) Give the patient the chart and leave him alone for a few minutes to review it.

A

(C) Inform the patient that he has the right to see his chart, but that he should request to
view it with his physician, so that it is properly interpreted.

111
Q

Skin discoloration due to cyanosis may be observed in the

  1. gums.
  2. nailbeds.
  3. thorax.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

112
Q

If extravasation occurs during an intravenous injection of contrast media, correct
treatment includes which of the following?

  1. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.
  2. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops.
  3. Apply warm, moist heat.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

113
Q

The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the

  1. sternum.
  2. ribs.
  3. diaphragm.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

`(B) 1 and 2 only

114
Q

Ingestion of a gas-producing powder or crystals is usually preliminary to which of the
following examinations?

  1. Oral cholecystogram
  2. Double-contrast GI
  3. Intravenous urogram

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

A

(B) 2 only

115
Q

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast
medium. What type of drug should be readily available?

(A) Analgesic
(B) Antihistamine
(C) Anti-inflammatory
(D) Antibiotic

A

(B) Antihistamine

116
Q

The diameter of a needle is termed its

(A) bevel.
(B) gauge.
(C) hub.
(D) length.

A

(B) gauge.

117
Q

Which of the following parenteral routes is most often used for administration of
contrast agents in the radiology department?

(A) Subcutaneous
(B) Intravenous
(C) Intramuscular
(D) Intradermal

A

(B) Intravenous

118
Q

.Which of the following exams require(s) restriction of the patient’s diet?

  1. GI series
  2. Abdominal survey
  3. Pyelogram

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

119
Q
  1. Which of the following imaging procedures do not require the use of ionizing radiation
    to produce an image?
  2. Ultrasound
  3. Computed axial tomography
  4. Magnetic resonance imaging

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 3 only

120
Q

You receive an ambulatory patient for a GI series. As the patient is seated on the x-
ray table, he feels faint. You should

  1. Lay the patient down on the x-ray table.
  2. Elevate the patient’s legs or place the table slightly Trendelenburg.
  3. Leave quickly and call for help.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

121
Q

You receive an ambulatory patient for a GI series. As the patient is seated on the x-
ray table, he feels faint. You should

  1. Lay the patient down on the x-ray table.
  2. Elevate the patient’s legs or place the table slightly Trendelenburg.
  3. Leave quickly and call for help.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

122
Q

Examples of COPD include

  1. bronchitis.
  2. pulmonary emphysema.
  3. asthma.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

123
Q

If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury, the radiographer should

  1. apply pressure to the bleeding site.
  2. call the emergency department for assistance.
  3. apply a pressure bandage and complete the examination.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(A) 1 and 2 only

124
Q

A patient who is diaphoretic has

(A) pale, cool, clammy skin.
(B) hot, dry skin.
(C) dilated pupils.
(D) warm, moist skin.

A

(A) pale, cool, clammy skin.

125
Q

When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special container
using what procedure?

(A) Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle.
(B) Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle.
(C) Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.
(D) Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.

A

(D) Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.

126
Q

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following
situations?
1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation
2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination
3. Discussing a patient’s condition with a third party
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

127
Q

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to

  1. let them bring a toy.
  2. tell them it will not hurt.
  3. be cheerful and unhurried.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

128
Q

Chest drainage systems should always be kept

(A) above the patient’s chest.
(B) at the level of the patient’s chest.
(C) below the level of the patient’s chest.
(D) none of the above; the position of the chest drainage system is not important.

A

(C) below the level of the patient’s chest.

129
Q

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to

  1. elevate the head slightly with a pillow.
  2. perform the exam in the Trendelenburg position.
  3. place a support under the knees.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 3 only

130
Q

If the radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was
supposed to have an elbow exam, which of the following charges may be brought
against the radiographer?

(A) Assault
(B) Battery
(C) False imprisonment
(D) Defamation

A

(B) Battery

131
Q

Which ethical principle is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide
what will or will not be done to them?

(A) Autonomy
(B) Beneficence
(C) Fidelity
(D) Veracity

A

(A) Autonomy

132
Q

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a

(A) defibrillator.
(B) cardiac monitor.
(C) crash cart.
(D) resuscitation bag.

A

(A) defibrillator.

133
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which of the
following body fluids should be treated as if they contained pathogenic microorganisms?

  1. Any fluid containing blood
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid
  3. Synovial fluid

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

134
Q

Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock?

  1. Pallor and weakness
  2. Increased pulse rate
  3. Fever

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(B) 1 and 2 only

135
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis can result from the inhalation of dust particles; this is
characteristic of

(A) cystic fibrosis.
(B) chronic asthma.
(C) pneumoconiosis.
(D) pleural effusion.

A

(C) pneumoconiosis.

136
Q

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include

  1. sneezing.
  2. dyspnea.
  3. asthma attack.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

136
Q

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed

(A) an intravenous push.
(B) an infusion.
(C) a bolus.
(D) parenteral.

A

(B) an infusion.

137
Q

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and
Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes

  1. the generic name.
  2. contraindications.
  3. the usual dose.

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

138
Q

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

(A) coxa plana.
(B) osteochondritis.
(C) talipes.
(D) muscular dystrophy.

A

(C) talipes.

139
Q

When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer,
the type of contrast medium that should be used is

(A) thin barium sulfate suspension.
(B) thick barium sulfate suspension.
(C) water-soluble iodinated media.
(D) oil-based iodinated media.

A

(C) water-soluble iodinated media.

140
Q

Where is the “sterile corridor” located?

(A) Just outside the surgical suite
(B) Immediately inside each operating room door
(C) Between the draped patient and the instrument table
(D) At the foot end of the draped patient

A

(C) Between the draped patient and the instrument table

141
Q

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most
communicable?

(A) Latent period
(B) Incubation period
(C) Disease phase
(D) Convalescent phase

A

(C) Disease phase

142
Q

Examples of nasogastric tubes include

  1. Swan-Ganz.
  2. Salem-sump.
  3. Levin.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 2 and 3 only

143
Q

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include

  1. Clean from the most contaminated to the least contaminated area
  2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward
  3. Clean from the top down

(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(C) 1 and 3 only

144
Q

In classifying intravenous contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in
solution per kilogram of water defines

(A) osmolality.
(B) toxicity.
(C) viscosity.
(D) miscibility.

A

(A) osmolality.

145
Q

Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator?

(A) Epinephrine
(B) Lidocaine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Verapamil

A

(A) Epinephrine

146
Q

Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include

  1. increased urination.
  2. sweet-smelling breath.
  3. extreme thirst.

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

A

(D) 1, 2, and 3

147
Q

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause
fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an
infection by

(A) droplet contact.
(B) a vehicle.
(C) the airborne route.
(D) a vector.

A

(D) a vector.

148
Q

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient
information with an individual who is not involved with the patient’s care?

  1. The right to considerate and respectful care
  2. The right to privacy
  3. The right to continuity of care

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

A

(B) 2 only

149
Q

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become
permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is

(A) bronchial asthma.
(B) bronchitis.
(C) emphysema.
(D) tuberculosis.

A

(C) emphysema.

150
Q

Blood pressure is measured in units of

(A) mmHg.
(B) beats per minute.
(C) oF.
(D) L/min.

A

(A) mmHg.

APPELTON QUESTIONS (2 decks)

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