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~ ATPL/ Radio Aids > RADIO NAVIGATION SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER > Flashcards

RADIO NAVIGATION SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?
A

b. 5.96 cm.

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2
Q
  1. The VDF term meaning ‘true bearing from the station’ is:
A

c. QTE.

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3
Q
  1. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:
A

d. ± 5°.

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4
Q
  1. ATC inform a pilot that they will provide a QGH service. The pilot can expect:
A

a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome.

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5
Q
  1. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft amsl can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
A

a. 280 nm.

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6
Q
  1. The Doppler effect is:
A

d. the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and
receiver.

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7
Q
  1. The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
A

b. an inland beacon at an acute angle.

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8
Q
  1. The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:
A

c. angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference.

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9
Q
  1. The ADF error which will cause the needle to ‘hunt’ (ie oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
A

a. night effect.

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10
Q
  1. The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
A

c. +/-5°

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11
Q
  1. A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
A

d. tuning, identification and monitoring.

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12
Q
  1. The principle of operation of VOR is:
A

d. bearing by phase comparison.

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13
Q
  1. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ft amsl which he selects. He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
A

c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range.

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14
Q
  1. The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the AM modulation is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
A

a. 055°.

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15
Q
  1. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is …………… the variphase signal is ……………. and the rotation is ……………
A

d. AM, FM, anti-clockwise

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16
Q
  1. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the CDI indications will be:
A

d. 327, TO.

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17
Q
  1. An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is …………… and the CDI indications will be:
A

a. 030, TO, Fly Right

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18
Q
  1. Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both the localiser and the glidepath. The indications the pilot will see are:
A

d. fly right and fly down.

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19
Q
  1. On an ILS approach using a 3.5° glidepath, the height an aircraft, groundspeed 160 kt, should be at 3.5 nm is:
A

b. 1,050 ft.

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20
Q
  1. A category 2 ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:
A

a. below 50 ft.

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21
Q
  1. When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be:
A

b. erratic on both localiser and glidepath.

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22
Q
  1. The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath is:
A

c. +/-8° to 10 nm.

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23
Q
  1. The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:
A

a. primary CW radar.

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24
Q
  1. The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:
A

d. PRF.

25
Q
  1. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:
A

b. 75 nm.

26
Q
  1. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are:
A

c. less power required.

27
Q
  1. The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with:
A

b. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width.

28
Q
  1. A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar will be:
A

a. an area surveillance radar.

29
Q
  1. The AWR operating frequency is:
A

a. 9375 MHz.

30
Q
  1. A cloud detected at 60 nm on the AWR of an aircraft flying at FL390 just disappears from the screen when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, then the altitude of the cloud tops is:
A

c. 33,000 ft.

31
Q
  1. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:
A

a. good returns from water droplets.

32
Q
  1. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
A

b. red.

33
Q
  1. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on ………….. MHz and receives replies from the aircraft on …………….. MHz
A

a. 1030 1090

34
Q
  1. The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:
A

d. 50 ft.

35
Q
  1. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for replies on:
A

d. 1136 MHz.

36
Q
  1. A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because:
A

b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered.

37
Q
  1. The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 nm from a ground station at 1225 ft amsl. The plan range is:
A

a. 12.5 nm.

38
Q
  1. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
A

b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart.

39
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:
A

b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits.

40
Q
  1. The model of the earth used for GPS is:
A

d. WGS84.

41
Q
  1. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems (WAAS) is:
A

b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth.

42
Q
  1. The number of SV’s required to produce a 3D fix is:
A

b. 4

43
Q
  1. EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in ……………. and broadcasting these errors to receivers using …………….
A

c. SV range, geostationary satellites.

44
Q
  1. The principle error in GNSS is:
A

a. ionospheric propagation.

45
Q
  1. If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:
A

d. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken.

46
Q
  1. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
A

a. identify the satellites.

47
Q
  1. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This download will take:
A

c. 12.5 minutes.

48
Q
  1. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of ……………. SVs.
A

c. 5

49
Q
  1. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
A

b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity.

50
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ……………. to the equator with an orbital period of ……………
A

d. 55°, 12 hr.

51
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorised users is:
A

b. 1575.42 MHz.

52
Q
  1. The NAV and system data message is contained in the ……………. signal.
A

a. 50 Hz.

53
Q
  1. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:
A

a. co-located VOR/DME.

54
Q
  1. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:
A

a. 5 nm.

55
Q
  1. An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 nm from the waypoint on a 50 nm leg. The waypoint is 45 nm from the VOR/DME and the aircraft is 37 nm from the VOR/DME. The range indicated to the pilot will be:
A

a. 23 nm.

56
Q
  1. The navigation database in a FMC:
A

c. can only be read by the flight crew.

57
Q
  1. The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which:
A

d. combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the IRS.

58
Q
  1. The most accurate external reference position will be provided by:
A

b. Twin DME.

59
Q
  1. The FMC position is:
A

b. derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process.

~ ATPL/ Radio Aids (19 decks)

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