RADIO NAVIGATION SPECIMEN EXAMINATION PAPER Flashcards
- Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?
b. 5.96 cm.
- The VDF term meaning ‘true bearing from the station’ is:
c. QTE.
- A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of:
d. ± 5°.
- ATC inform a pilot that they will provide a QGH service. The pilot can expect:
a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome.
- The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft amsl can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
a. 280 nm.
- The Doppler effect is:
d. the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and
receiver.
- The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
b. an inland beacon at an acute angle.
- The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:
c. angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference.
- The ADF error which will cause the needle to ‘hunt’ (ie oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
a. night effect.
- The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
c. +/-5°
- A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
d. tuning, identification and monitoring.
- The principle of operation of VOR is:
d. bearing by phase comparison.
- The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ft amsl which he selects. He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range.
- The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the AM modulation is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
a. 055°.
- In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is …………… the variphase signal is ……………. and the rotation is ……………
d. AM, FM, anti-clockwise
- A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the CDI indications will be:
d. 327, TO.
- An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is …………… and the CDI indications will be:
a. 030, TO, Fly Right
- Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both the localiser and the glidepath. The indications the pilot will see are:
d. fly right and fly down.
- On an ILS approach using a 3.5° glidepath, the height an aircraft, groundspeed 160 kt, should be at 3.5 nm is:
b. 1,050 ft.
- A category 2 ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:
a. below 50 ft.
- When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on the CDI will be:
b. erratic on both localiser and glidepath.
- The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath is:
c. +/-8° to 10 nm.
- The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:
a. primary CW radar.
- The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:
d. PRF.
- The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is 925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:
b. 75 nm.
- An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are:
c. less power required.
- The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with:
b. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width.
- A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This radar will be:
a. an area surveillance radar.
- The AWR operating frequency is:
a. 9375 MHz.
- A cloud detected at 60 nm on the AWR of an aircraft flying at FL390 just disappears from the screen when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, then the altitude of the cloud tops is:
c. 33,000 ft.
- The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:
a. good returns from water droplets.
- On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
b. red.
- In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on ………….. MHz and receives replies from the aircraft on …………….. MHz
a. 1030 1090
- The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft altitude within:
d. 50 ft.
- If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look for replies on:
d. 1136 MHz.
- A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because:
b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered.
- The DME in an aircraft at FL630 measures a slant range of 16 nm from a ground station at 1225 ft amsl. The plan range is:
a. 12.5 nm.
- If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart.
- The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:
b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits.
- The model of the earth used for GPS is:
d. WGS84.
- The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentation systems (WAAS) is:
b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth.
- The number of SV’s required to produce a 3D fix is:
b. 4
- EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in ……………. and broadcasting these errors to receivers using …………….
c. SV range, geostationary satellites.
- The principle error in GNSS is:
a. ionospheric propagation.
- If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:
d. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken.
- The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
a. identify the satellites.
- If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation. This download will take:
c. 12.5 minutes.
- The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of ……………. SVs.
c. 5
- The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity.
- The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ……………. to the equator with an orbital period of ……………
d. 55°, 12 hr.
- The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorised users is:
b. 1575.42 MHz.
- The NAV and system data message is contained in the ……………. signal.
a. 50 Hz.
- A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:
a. co-located VOR/DME.
- The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:
a. 5 nm.
- An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 nm from the waypoint on a 50 nm leg. The waypoint is 45 nm from the VOR/DME and the aircraft is 37 nm from the VOR/DME. The range indicated to the pilot will be:
a. 23 nm.
- The navigation database in a FMC:
c. can only be read by the flight crew.
- The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which:
d. combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the IRS.
- The most accurate external reference position will be provided by:
b. Twin DME.
- The FMC position is:
b. derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process.
