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~ ATPL/ Radio Aids > RADIO NAVIGATION REVISION QUESTIONS > Flashcards

RADIO NAVIGATION REVISION QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When would VDF be used for a position fix?
A

When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz

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2
Q
  1. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown?
A

VHF radio

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down?
A

Only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft

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4
Q
  1. What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a service to an aircraft at FL080?
A

134 nm

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate?
A

It uses line of sight propagation

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6
Q
  1. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?
A

800 m

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7
Q
  1. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is:
A

omni-directional

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8
Q
  1. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:
A

+/-5°

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9
Q
  1. Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:
A

044

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10
Q
  1. Two NDB’s, one 20 nm from the coast and the other 50 nm further inland. Assuming coastal error is the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?
A

The NDB at 50 nm

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?
A

Interference from other NDB’s, particularly at night

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF?
A

Mountain effect, station interference, static interference

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13
Q
  1. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?
A

Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal

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14
Q
  1. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?
A

Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast

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15
Q
  1. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?
A

4

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?
A

Static from Cb

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
A

Lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

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18
Q
  1. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB’s is:
A

190 – 1750 kHz

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19
Q
  1. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:
A

phase comparison

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20
Q
  1. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the …… should be used for VOR and at the …… for ADF.
A

station, aircraft

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21
Q
  1. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?
A

193

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22
Q
  1. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation. The variable signal modulation is produced by:
A

a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation

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23
Q
  1. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1.0°, what is the maximum cross track error at 200 nm?
A

3.5 nm

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24
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same identification?
A

600m

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25
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?
A

109 nm

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26
Q
  1. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial is:
A

330

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27
Q
  1. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:
A

600m

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28
Q
  1. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?
A

1.5

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29
Q
  1. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
A

275 nm

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30
Q
  1. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:
A

a great circle track

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?
A

112.20

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32
Q
  1. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
A

interference from other VOR’s operating on the same frequency

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33
Q
  1. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, homing to a VOR. If variation at the aircraft is 10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?
A

255

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34
Q
  1. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30 seconds:
A

4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone

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35
Q
  1. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an aircraft at FL012:
A

60 nm

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36
Q
  1. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
A

285, TO

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37
Q
  1. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
A

a great circle

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38
Q
  1. The frequency band of VOR is:
A

VHF

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39
Q
  1. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20°E)?
A

167

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40
Q
  1. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft amsl at a range of 175 nm?
A

16,000 ft

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41
Q
  1. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying …………… from the beacon:
A

East

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42
Q
  1. At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?
A

3.5 nm

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43
Q
  1. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
A

at all times

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following provides distance information?
A

DME

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
A

A DME on the flight plan route

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46
Q
  1. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?
A

It stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse pairs

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47
Q
  1. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30,000 ft will be when the aircraft is:
A

tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm

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48
Q
  1. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about …………… aircraft are interrogating the transponder.
A

100

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49
Q
  1. A typical DME frequency is:
A

1000 MHz

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50
Q
  1. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of 210 nm. The reason for this is:
A

the aircraft is beyond line of sight range

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51
Q
  1. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft transmissions because:
A

the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft

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52
Q
  1. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:
A

6 nm

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53
Q
  1. A DME frequency could be:
A

1000 MHz

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54
Q
  1. An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:
A

11.7 nm

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55
Q
  1. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:
A

the interrogation and reply frequencies differ

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56
Q
  1. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?
A

DME

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57
Q
  1. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation of 167 ft. The plan range is:
A

13.5 nm

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58
Q
  1. What are the DME frequencies?
A

960 – 1215 MHz

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59
Q
  1. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:
A

165 nm

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60
Q
  1. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:
A

the DME is trying to lock onto range

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61
Q
  1. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:
A

the DME is in the search mode

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62
Q
  1. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to the DME. This is because:
A

the aircraft is too low to receive the signal

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63
Q
  1. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action you should take is:
A

fly right and down

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64
Q
  1. The errors of an ILS localiser (LLZ) beam are due to:
A

ground reflections

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65
Q
  1. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is …………… and it illuminates the ……………. light in the cockpit.
A

400 Hz blue

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66
Q
  1. The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on:
A

the same frequency with different amplitude modulations

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67
Q
  1. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because of:
A

multiple lobes in the radiation pattern

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68
Q
  1. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
A

the surface of the runway

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69
Q
  1. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of the ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:
A

centred

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70
Q
  1. The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localiser centreline is:
A

+/-8° to 10 nm

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71
Q
  1. The middle marker is usually located at a range of …………….., with an audio frequency of ……………. and illuminates the …………….. light.
A

1 km, 1300 Hz, amber

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72
Q
  1. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:
A

blue, amber, white

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73
Q
  1. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:
A

category II/III ILS operations are in progress

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74
Q
  1. The ILS localiser is normally positioned:
A

300 m from the upwind end of the runway

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75
Q
  1. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:
A

400 Hz

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76
Q
  1. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be:
A

unreliable in azimuth and elevation

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77
Q
  1. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:
A

UHF, decimetric

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78
Q
  1. In which band does the ILS glidepath operate?
A

UHF, decimetric

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79
Q
  1. Primary radar operates on the principle of:
A

pulse technique

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80
Q
  1. The definition of a radar display will be best with:
A

narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth

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81
Q
  1. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
A

removes the minimum range restriction

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82
Q
  1. Which of the following systems use pulse technique?
  2. secondary surveillance radar
  3. airborne weather radar
  4. distance measuring equipment
  5. primary radar
A

all the above

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83
Q
  1. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:
A

16

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84
Q
  1. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:
A

beamwidth

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85
Q
  1. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:
A

pulse recurrence rate

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86
Q
  1. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to?
A

the number of pulses per second

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87
Q
  1. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:
A

1620 pps

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88
Q
  1. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
A

a continuous wave primary radar

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89
Q
  1. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?
A

continuous wave primary

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90
Q
  1. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:
A

reduces sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam

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91
Q
  1. The maximum unambiguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:
A

67 nm

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92
Q
  1. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of light is 300000 kps, what is the maximum range of the radar?
A

333 km

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93
Q
  1. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:
A

short wavelength, narrow beam

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94
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary radar system?
A

AWR

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95
Q
  1. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?
A

pulse technique

96
Q
  1. ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of:
A

300 nm

97
Q
  1. An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of:
A

600 MHz

98
Q
  1. Short range aerodrome radars will have …………… wavelengths.
A

centimetric

99
Q
  1. The ASMR operates in the …………… band, the antenna rotates at ……………. rpm can …………… distinguish between aircraft types.
A

SHF, 60, sometimes

100
Q
  1. The frequency band of most ATC radars and weather radars is:
A

SHF

101
Q
  1. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:
A

snow

102
Q
  1. The frequency of AWR is:
A

9375 MHz

103
Q
  1. The use of the AWR on the ground is:
A

permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and
equipment

104
Q
  1. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?
A

Cumulus

105
Q
  1. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the …………… mode.
A

MAP

106
Q
  1. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:
A

by a steep colour gradient

107
Q
  1. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is:
A

green, yellow, red

108
Q
  1. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds at or above your level?
A

2.5° uptilt

109
Q
  1. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR:
A

to display areas of turbulence in cloud

110
Q
  1. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
A

the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

111
Q
  1. In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:
A

most rapid change of colour

112
Q
  1. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm:
A

the image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen

113
Q
  1. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:
A

green, yellow, red

114
Q
  1. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
A

a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam

115
Q
  1. On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:
A

the antenna is not scanning

116
Q
  1. The AWR can be used on the ground provided:
  2. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
  3. conical beam is selected
  4. maximum uptilt is selected
  5. the AWR must never be operated on the ground
A

1, 2 and 3

117
Q
  1. Doppler navigation systems use …………… to determine the aircraft groundspeed and drift.
A

frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground

118
Q
  1. Which axes is the AWR stabilised in?
A

Pitch and roll

119
Q
  1. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:
A

4096 codes in 4 blocks

120
Q
  1. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
A

SSR does not use the echo principle

121
Q
  1. The advantages of SSR mode S are:
A

data link, reduced voice communications

122
Q
  1. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
A

+/-50 ft

123
Q
  1. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ……………. and receives responses on …………….
A

1030 MHz, 1090 MHz

124
Q
  1. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:
A

1013.25 HPa

125
Q
  1. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?
A

The principle of the return of echoes is not used

126
Q
  1. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:
    a. A.
    b. C.
    c. S.
    d. all.
A

all

127
Q
  1. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure?
A

0000

128
Q
  1. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
A

determine satellite range

129
Q
  1. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
A

barometric altitude

130
Q
  1. If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing, the effect on position will be:
A

the position will degrade

131
Q
  1. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A

12.5 minutes

132
Q
  1. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:
A

minimised by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals

133
Q
  1. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A

above the WGS84 ellipsoid

134
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:
A

24 satellites in 6 orbits

135
Q
  1. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position. This is achieved by:
A

random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time

136
Q
  1. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:
A

on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity

137
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:
A

provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data

138
Q
  1. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?
    a. The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours.
    b. The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24 hours.
    c. The orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage.
    d. The orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15 minutes.
A

The inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12 hours

139
Q
  1. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:
A

adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error

140
Q
  1. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include:
A

satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

141
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:
A

space, control, user

142
Q
  1. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:
A

multi-channel

143
Q
  1. The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:
A

35800 km

144
Q
  1. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:
A

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

145
Q
  1. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
A

determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data

146
Q
  1. The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:
A

involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining
which satellites are in view

147
Q
  1. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:
A

using alternative navigation systems

148
Q
  1. The WGS84 model of the earth is:
A

a geoid

149
Q
  1. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:
A

UHF

150
Q
  1. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:
A

4

151
Q
  1. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix?
A

3

152
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?
    a. They are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM.
    b. They are eliminated using differential techniques.
    c. They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available.
    d. Transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to
    less than one metre.
A

They are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available

153
Q
  1. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
A

barometric

154
Q
  1. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is:
A

4

155
Q
  1. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A

24

156
Q
  1. ‘Unauthorised’ civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:
A

the C/A code

157
Q
  1. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?
A

Barometric

158
Q
  1. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the …………… band.
A

UHF

159
Q
  1. During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large error between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:
A

continue using the conventional systems

160
Q
  1. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?
A

Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

161
Q
  1. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A

offset of the satellite clock from GMT
ephemeris data
ionospheric delays

162
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?
A

To monitor the satellites in orbit

163
Q
  1. In GNSS a fix is obtained by:
A

measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft

164
Q
  1. The inclination of a satellite is:
A

the angle between the SV orbit and the equator

165
Q
  1. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?
A

By measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of
light

166
Q
  1. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:
A

it includes receiver clock error

167
Q
  1. The task of the control segment is to:
A

monitor the SV ephemeris and clock

168
Q
  1. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires …………… SVs:
A

6

169
Q
  1. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
A

differentiate between satellites

170
Q
  1. An ‘all in view’ satellite navigation receiver is one which:
A

selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four

171
Q
  1. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
A

1575.42 MHz only

172
Q
  1. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?
A

The higher frequency

173
Q
  1. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:
A

55° to the plane of the equator

174
Q
  1. RAIM is achieved:
A

within the receiver

175
Q
  1. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
A

track the satellites to calculate range

176
Q
  1. In which frequency band are the L1 and L2 frequencies of GNSS?
A

UHF

177
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true?
A

DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information

178
Q
  1. The visibility of GPS satellites is:
A

dependent on the location of the user

179
Q
  1. In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track would represent:
A

0.5°

180
Q
  1. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:
A

1 nm standard deviation or better

181
Q
  1. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:
A

if the groundspeed and position are accurate

182
Q
  1. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?
A

TOD

183
Q
  1. For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:
A

DME/DME

184
Q
  1. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents:
A

2 nm

185
Q
  1. An aircraft, using a 2D RNAV computer, is 12 nm from the phantom station, 25 nm from the VOR/DME designating the phantom station and the phantom station is 35 nm from the VOR/ DME. The range read out in the aircraft will be:
A

12 nm

186
Q
  1. The FMC position is:
A

computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions

187
Q
  1. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft?
A

By using the computed ETA for the next waypoint

188
Q
  1. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?
A

Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

189
Q
  1. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:
A

IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities

190
Q

The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:

A

planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway

191
Q
  1. In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
A

2 nm

192
Q
  1. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:
A

VOR/DME

193
Q
  1. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:
A

because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed facilities

194
Q
  1. The FMS database can be:
A

only read by the pilots

195
Q
  1. In the B737-400 EFIS which component generates the visual display?
A

Symbol generator

196
Q
  1. When is the IRS position updated?
A

On the ground only

197
Q
  1. The navigation database in the FMS:
A

is read only

198
Q
  1. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:
A

FMC, radio navigation

199
Q
  1. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:
A

one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board systems or a combination of the two

200
Q
  1. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?
    a. INS.
    b. Direct reading magnetic compass.
    c. VOR/DME.
    d. ADF.
A

INS

201
Q
  1. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:
A

the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading
when there is zero drift

202
Q
  1. The EHSI is showing 5° fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280°(M) and the required track is 270°. The radial is:
A

095

203
Q
  1. On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?
A

The deviation bar is removed

204
Q
  1. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?
A

Rho/rho

205
Q
  1. If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI display?
A

By removal of the deviation bar and pointer

206
Q
  1. The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is:
A

magenta

207
Q
  1. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:
A

the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used

208
Q
  1. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?
A

PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV

209
Q
  1. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:
A

4 SVs each in 6 orbits

210
Q
  1. Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error?
A

Ionospheric propagation

211
Q
  1. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:
A

250 nm

212
Q
  1. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be:
A

the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

213
Q
  1. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glideslope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold, an aircraft at 4.6 nm should be at an approximate height of:
A

1,450 ft

214
Q
  1. The height of the GPS constellation is:
A

20200 km

215
Q
  1. Which type of radar could give an indication of the shape and sometimes the type of the aircraft?
A

Aerodrome surface movement radar

216
Q
  1. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is:
A

+/-5 nm on 95% of occasions

217
Q
  1. What function does the course line computer perform?
A

Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint

218
Q
  1. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:
A

omni-directional

219
Q
  1. How does night effect affect ADF?
A

Skywave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk

220
Q
  1. What is an ADC input to the FMC?
A

TAS

221
Q
  1. A typical frequency for DME would be:
A

1200 MHz

222
Q
  1. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:
A

the multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed

223
Q
  1. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to be:
A

the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME

224
Q
  1. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km? (ignore any flyback time).
A

3000 pps

225
Q
  1. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:
A

provides the positional information to the receiver

226
Q
  1. An accurate position fix on the EHSI will be provided by inputs of:
A

FMC, IRS, radio navigation aids

227
Q
  1. The almanac in the receiver:
A

is used to determine which satellites are above the horizon

228
Q
  1. In a RNAV system the DME is tuned:
A

by selecting DMEs to give suitable angle of cut to get a fix automatically

229
Q
  1. Which input to the FMC is taken from sources external to the aircraft?
A

VOR/DME

230
Q
  1. In NAVSTAR/GPS range measurement is achieved by measuring:
A

the time taken for the signal to travel from the satellite to the receiver

231
Q
  1. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:
A

the electrical wiring running through the aircraft

232
Q
  1. For the FMC the take-off speeds, V1, VR and V2 are found:
A

in the performance database

233
Q
  1. The optimum climb and descent speeds used byn the FMC are found:
A

in the performance database

234
Q
  1. The optimum cruise speeds used by the FMC are found:
A

in the performance database

235
Q
  1. Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V?
    a. Magnetic heading.
    b. Mach no.
    c. TAS.
    d. Track and groundspeed.
A

TAS

236
Q
  1. Which of the following is true concerning the use of GNSS position in the FMC?
    a. It is used to verify and update the IRS position.
    b. An alternate source of position must be used and displayed.
    c. GNSS position is usable stand alone.
    d. GNSS data may only be used in the absence of other positional information.
A

An alternate source of position must be used and displayed

~ ATPL/ Radio Aids (19 decks)

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