radio Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following statements is true regarding an offset flight path?
A
It allows flight crew to specify a lateral offset from a defined route.
2
Q
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)?
A
WGS 84
3
Q
On which bearing do errors caused by the shoreline/coastal effect reach their maximum?
A
Bearings 0°-30° degrees to the coastline
4
Q
With regard to radio waves propagation, a cycle is defined as:
A
a complete series of values of a periodical process.
5
Q
The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately:
A
238°
6
Q
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
A
A DME station sited on the flight route
7
Q
In the VOR receiver the radial is determined by measurement of the
A
phase difference between the variable signal and the reference signal.
8
Q
An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000° defined by a VOR ahead of the aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5°E. With 60 NM to go to the VOR the QDM is 004°. The aircraft’s position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:
A
1 NM inside the airway southern boundary
9
Q
Under CS-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:
A
White or Magenta
10
Q
According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser?
A
20 NM from touchdown inbound and 8° displaced from the localiser centreline.
11
Q
What is true about the range of an NDB?
A
It is affected by the power of the transmitter.
12
Q
The identification of a DME in combination with a co-located VOR is as follows:
A
In a period of 40 seconds the DME ident will be heard once on an audio frequency of 1350 Hz.
13
Q
The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) between the two lobes:
- if the aircraft strays right, the higher tone lobe will be received at a higher intensity than the lower tone lobe.
- a DDM of zero indicates the exact runway centreline.
- the depth of modulation increases away from the centerline.
- a DDM of zero indicates a balance between modulations.
The combination that regroups all the corrects statements is:
A
1, 2, 3 and 4.
14
Q
The tilt angle of an Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is set at +2°. If the beam width is 4° and the range of the cloud is 40 NM, what is the approximate height of the cloud above or below the aircraft when the weather return from the cloud just disappears from the screen?
A
At the same height as the aircraft.
15
Q
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
A
110 NM
16
Q
When a transmitter is moving towards a receiver, the correct description of the Doppler effect is:
A
There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the transmitter velocity.
17
Q
Which statement about RNAV routes is correct?
A
A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path.
18
Q
Microwave Landing Systems (MLS) allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by means of:
A
Timing the passage of two scanning beams co-located with DME
19
Q
The FMS navigation data base usually contains: 1. airport reference data. 2. ATC frequencies. 3. Company routes. 4. Nav. Aid. frequencies. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A
1, 3 and 4.
20
Q
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
A
7600
21
Q
In accordance with the ITU (International Telecommunication Union) a radio signal may be classified by three symbols. The First symbol indicates (e.g. A1A):
A
Type of modulation of the main carrier.
22
Q
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
A
pulse recurrence frequency
23
Q
What is true about the interrogation pulse transmission sequence of a DME system installed on board on aircraft?
A
It changes from interrogation to interrogation.
24
Q
With reference to GNSS, the ground based augmentation system (GBAS) sends corrections for:
A
errors due to ionospheric and tropospheric disturbances.
25
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
VHF
26
An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. The magnetic variation at the VOR is 5°W and at the aircraft 10°W. According to the CDI shown at the Annex the aircraft is on radial:
025
27
Reflection on mountain surfaces (mountain effect) can concern:
VOR and NDB.
28
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
29
Which statement is correct about GLONASS/NAVSTAR GPS/Galileo?
All three systems use time measurement to determine position.
30
Which statement is correct with respect to the range of an NDB?
With propagation over sea the range will be greater than the range with propagation over land.
31
The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 NM is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended centreline of:
35°
32
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:
metric.
33
Concerning the wave propagation in the ionosphere, we can divide the vertical extent of the ionosphere into three layers. Those three layers are:
D, E and F layers and their depth varies with time.
34
When the term "radial" is used in reference to VOR it means:
the magnetic bearing from the VOR station
35
In a 2D RNAV system you have entered the DME and VOR data for two waypoints. What do you use to work out the cross track errors when en-route from one to the other?
Use the automatically computed values on the CDI/HSI.
36
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to calculate receiver position by:
selecting appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
37
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information?
123 NM
38
The frequency band of the SBAS data link is:
a signal with the same frequency as GPS.
39
Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
the transmitter moves away from the receiver.
40
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
number of pulses per second
41
Which information about GLONASS is correct?
| Note: the orbital heights are approximate values
Satellites: 24, Orbital planes: 3, Orbital height: 19 100 km
42
In order to give the flight crew control of the required lateral guidance functions the RNAV equipment should be able to perform several functions. Which of the following functions is such a function?
Selection or entering of the required flight plan through the Control and Display Unit (CDU).
43
Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
44
Which of the following are input data from 4D-RNAV systems?
1. DME distances from DME stations.
2. Wind vectors.
3. Radials from VOR stations.
4. TAS and fuel flow.
1 & 3.
45
An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 150 Hz than 90 Hz modulation from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
fly left and up
46
If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 KW which has a range of 50 NM is adjusted to give a power output of 100 KW, the new range of the NDB will be approximately:
100 NM
47
To provide a pilot with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar, ATC must have at its disposal at least
two VDF's at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted frequency.
48
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
49
The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial:
050°
50
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:
scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically independent of distance
51
How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
52
An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a height of:
15 m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
53
The ILS marker with the higher aural frequency is the:
inner marker.
54
Concerning FMC databases:
the navigation database may be customized for the specific airline operations.
55
Which radar system is used to detect aircraft that are not equipped with an operational transponder?
PSR (Primary Surveillance Radar).
56
What is the function of pulse P2 in modes A/C during interrogation?
To suppress responses from aircraft which are located in the direction of the side lobes of the interrogation antenna.
57
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
58
In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
59
What does the term 'fading' mean?
The interference of the ground wave and the sky wave.
60
What is true about performance based navigation (PBN)?
It is not sensor-specific.
61
An airborne weather radar (AWR) transmits a pulse with a wavelength of approximately 3.2 cm, what is the corresponding frequency?
9.375 GHz
62
The VDF class C bearing is accurate to within:
+10
63
With regard to SSR
the interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is in the aircraft
64
In the Mapping Mode of an airborne weather radar which can utilise two different beam shapes, the:
fan-shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range is used.
65
In order to give the flight crew control of the required lateral guidance functions the RNAV equipment should be able to perform several functions. Which of the following functions is not such a function?
Extract/retract flaps corresponding to speed and altitude.
66
In the approach phases of flight, PBN accommodates:
both linear and angular laterally guided operations.
67
Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
68
For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
16
69
An NDB is:
Non-directional radio beacon.
70
The ADF indication in the cockpit is a
relative bearing on a fixed card indicator
71
On final on ILS approach, at 0,6 NM from the threshold, which marker are you likely to hear?
The middle marker.
72
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:
decimetric.
73
The superposition of two electromagnetic waves of the same or nearly the same frequency is called?
interference
74
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is:
4 m
75
The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 3 GHz is:
10 cm.
76
A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the beacons on a radial of 090º through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
The ADF needle moves, the VOR needle does not
77
Which of the following affects VDF range?
The height of the transmitter and of the receiver.
78
What is the cross track deviation (XTK) indicated on an RNAV system?
The distance between the actual position and the great circle track between two active waypoints.
79
PBN path terminator "IF" means:
Initial Fix
80
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
81
Given:
Aircraft position 36°15'S 178°E, magnetic variation 21°W, FL 310.
UEB VOR/DME position 36°15'S 178°W, magnetic variation 21°E.
In order to read the most accurate ground speed on the DME receiver from his present position, the pilot must fly which UEB radial?
249°
82
The phenomenon of a change in direction of an EM-wave occurring due to a change in its speed is called?
refraction.
83
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
It eliminates the minimum target reception range
84
What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system?
Aircraft position only.
85
The ILS marker with an aural frequency of 1300 Hz is the:
middle marker.
86
An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a radial of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle is:
090°
87
At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?
20200 km
88
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
maximum theoretical range
89
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the:
navigation database.
90
The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) light is:
400 Hz, blue
91
RNP 5 (Required Navigation Performance) requires a navigation accuracy of:
+/- 5 NM lateral 95% of the flight time.
92
An aircraft at 6 400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
113 NM
93
Which statement is true about the use of the Doppler effect in a Doppler VOR?
The Doppler effect is used to create a signal which is received by the aircraft's VOR-receiver as a frequency modulated signal.
94
The information carried by a signal emitted from a VOR is:
in what magnetic direction the signal left the VOR antenna and the identification of the station
95
Which statement is true about the use of the Doppler effect in a Doppler VOR?
The Doppler effect is used to create a signal which is received by the aircraft's VOR receiver as a frequency modulated signal.
96
The middle marker transmits on:
75 MHz
97
A MLS without DME-P provides:
An ILS-like approach
98
Which of the following statements regarding B-RNAV is correct?
For 95% of the flight time, the track keeping accuracy must not exceed 5 NM.
99
The navigational function of the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) in relation to area navigation systems is:
the indication of the cross track distance (XTK).
100
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was:
158 NM
101
You are flying along an airway which is 10 NM wide (5 NM either side of the centreline). The distance to the VOR/DME you are using is 100 NM. If you are on the airway boundary, how many dots deviation will the VOR needle show if one dot represents 2 degrees?
1.5
102
An error during PBN operations related to the execution of flight along the defined path refers to a:
Navigation System Error (NSE)
103
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft
104
Range of VDF depends on: 1. Line of sight formula 2. Power of transmitters 3. Intervening high ground. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2 and 3.
105
An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a MH of 250º. On the CDI the CRS is set to 060.
Which CDI shows the correct indications?
Figure C
106
The selection of the DME frequency for a ILS/DME installation is as follows:
The DME frequency is paired with the localizer frequency so only the localiser frequency is set.
107
A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
pulse technique
108
What is a VDF referenced to?
Magnetic north at the station.
109
When entering and using a phantom waypoint in area navigation equipment:
you don't need to be within range of the referenced station to enter the waypoint, but you must be to use it.
110
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
phase comparison
111
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
performance database
112
What is the approximate speed of a radio wave?
162 000 NM/s
113
For what reason is a mask angle set-up in a GPS-
| receiver?
To deny the receiver the use of GPS-satellites with an elevation less than the mask angle.
114
One of uses of the VDF service is providing aircraft with:
homing.
115
A TCAS II equipped a/c will have mode S because:
the datalink is required to co-ordinate evasive manoeuvres
116
What is correct about fly-by / fly-over waypoints and turns?
A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow for the tangential interception of the next route segment or procedure.
117
The ATC transponder system, excluding Mode S, contains :
two modes, each of 4096 codes.
118
Satellite-Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS) include:
1. EGNOS in Europe
2. IGAN in India
3. MSAS in Japan
4. SNAS in China
5. SDCM in Russia
6. WAAS in USA
7. GAGAN in India
8. SKGPS in South Korea
1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
119
You are on a heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:
Full scale deflection left with a 'from' indication
120
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
121
Which statement about VHF/UHF frequency propagation is correct?
For both VHF/UHF propagation, the space wave is the only propagation path of practical use. There is no sky wave under normal conditions.
122
For Long Range NDB's the most common type is:
LF N0N/A2A
123
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:
flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
124
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
7500
125
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
the transmitter moves towards the receiver
126
The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
127
Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
128
Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
primary radar in the SHF band
129
In flight, a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by:
increasing altitude.
130
A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
9375 MHz
131
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) is the artificial degradation of the navigation accuracy by:
dithering the satellite clock
132
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
133
RNAV 10 and RNP 4 are used:
in the oceanic and remote phase of flight.
134
A horizontally polarized electromagnetic wave:
Has the E field horizontal.
135
Night Effect in an ADF may cause:
Fluctuating indications of the needle on the RMI.
136
Which of the following terms refers to a fixed radius path for en-route sections using Performance Based Navigation (PBN)?
FRT leg type
137
Which of the following statements is correct in respect of an RF signal:
The electrical component of the signal is parallel to the antenna.
138
With reference to the navigation message of a GPS, what is contained in the almanac data?
Orbital data about all satellites in the GPS constellation.
139
Which statement is correct for homing towards an NDB in an area with constant wind and constant magnetic variation?
The Relative Bearing of the NDB should be kept 000°.
140
In aviation electronic systems the so-called Doppler principle may be used in:
VOR, GPS and MTI and the turbulence mode of AWR.
141
A typical DME frequency is:
1000 MHz.
142
A VOR and an NDB are located in the same position. Both the VOR- and the ADF-readings are displayed on the RMI. The aircraft is tracking away from the beacons along the 090 radial. The magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which of the following is correct?
The direction of the ADF pointer will change, the direction of the VOR pointer will not change.
143
Garbling in mode A and C may occur:
when two or more aircraft are in approximately the same direction from the interrogator with a difference in slant range of less than 1.7 NM.
144
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
roll and pitch
145
An error during PBN operations in the accuracy of determining actual aircraft coordinates is a:
Navigation System Error (NSE)
146
In the DME "tracking mode":
interrogator transmits a relatively low number of pulse pairs per second.
147
3D RNAV fixing gives you:
Horizontal and vertical profile guidance
148
To which performance does the RNP concept apply?
Navigation performance within an airspace.
149
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
150
What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
3000 Hz
151
The reading of the RMI bearing is 300° at the tip of the needle. The magnetic variation at the DR position is 24°W, the magnetic variation at the NDB is 22°W and the deviation is -2°. The compass heading is 020°. The true bearing is:
274°
152
What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?
1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground, 1090 MHz for response from the aircraft
153
The Glide Path antenna is located on the side of the runway approximately:
300 m beyond the threshold.
154
Given a wire fed with alternating current and a second wire parallel to, but remote from it. The results will be:
the first wire will radiate electromagnetic waves into space and alternating current will be induced in the second wire.
155
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an EFIS 2-dot RNAV system in the EN ROUTE (ENR) mode?
2 NM
156
The localiser transmitters operate in a frequency band between:
108 MHz and 111.975 MHz.
157
The Moving Target Indication (MTI) in a primary radar has the following function:
Erase all stationary targets.
158
Which of the following components of the ILS are protected from interference by the FM-Immunity filters in NAV equipment?
Localiser only.
159
RNP APCH is used:
in the approach phase of flight.
160
In order to give the flight crew control of the required lateral guidance functions the RNAV equipment should be able to perform several functions. Which of the following functions is not such a function?
Execute a modified flight plan without any positive action by the flight crew.
161
Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 125 NM is:
648 pps
162
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
performance database
163
Why can DME stations only send out distance information to approximately 100 aircraft at a time?
A DME ground station is only able to process 2700 ppps.
