Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Rad > RAD10D Test #2 > Flashcards

RAD10D Test #2 Flashcards

Chap. 7-10

1
Q

OSHA

A

occupational safety & health admin; governs safety in workplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fire prevention

A

crucial to ensure; be aware of things in workplace that can start fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fire Safety Plan

A

every hospital must and will have this in case of emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 Components of starting a fire

A

O2, Fuel, & Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most fires in hospitals are caused by….

A

Electrical, open flames, spontaneous combustion, and cig. smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Spontaneous combustion

A

chemical reaction in/near flammable material causes heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Electrical fires are common in …..

A

radiology dept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of spontaneous combustion…

A

paints, used cleaning rags. etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Make sure to always turn off ….

A

breakers!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

O2 doesn’t burn, but it supports ….

A

combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True/False: Any electrical equip. that could cause a spark a fire could be used in the presence of O2

A

FALSE; shouldn’t be used and must be marked as hazardous in situations where O2 is in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What listed down below is not something to do when in case of fire:
- “Code Red”
- Know fire plan & exit route
- Yell ‘FIRE!’
- Locate fire doors, fire extinguishers and fire alarm

A

Yell ‘FIRE!’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does R.A.C.E. mean?

A

R- Rescue/remove
A- alarm
C-contain
E- extinguish/evacuate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you use P.A.S.S.?

A

when using fire extinguisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary responsibility is to evacuate beyond….

A

at least 2 intervening fire doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does P.A.S.S. mean?

A

P- pull pin
A- aim
S- squeeze handle/spray
S- sweep at foundation of fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Fire extnguishers

A

tool used to put fires out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Types of Fire Extinguishers

A
  • CLASS A
  • CLASS B
  • CLASS C
  • CLASS D
  • CLASS K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What types of fire extinguishers are multipurpose?

A

CLASS A, B, & C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CLASS A🧯

A

solid common compbustibles, paper, wood, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CLASS B🧯

A

flammable liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CLASS C🧯

A

electrical equip. & wiring; think Copper wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CLASS D 🧯

A

metal alloys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CLASS K

A

cooking media; animal fats & oils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Other common hazards…

A

slippery floors, loose cords, heavy lifting, sharp objects, electric shock, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MSDS

A

material safety data sheets; document required by OSHA for all hazardous chemicals, specifying required equip. & procedure in event of spill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Put steps in order to help ensure safety when spill occurs:
1. If you can proceed safely, clean immediately.
2. Limit access to affected area.
3. Determine whether you have both equip. & expertise to clean up spill.
4.Evaluate the risks involved
5, If lack the necessary skill/equip., call supervisor or appropriate dept.

A

2, 4, 3, 1, 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Work areas require to have these kits.

A

Spill kits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?
- Nitrile gloves
- Kitty litter
- Mop
- broom/dust pan

A

Mop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Components of spill kit:

A

Nitrile gloves, kitty litter, heavy big bags, broom/dustpan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ergonomics

A

study of workplace injury prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ergonomic awareness & education in workplace has _______ job injuries in recent years, but still a concern.

a. Reduced
b. Remained the same
c. never worked
d. increased

A

A. reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MSDs

A

musculoskeletal disorders; most common injuries reported by healthcare workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Subcategories of MSDs

A

RMIs, CTDs, & RSIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RMIs & RSIs

A

RMIs- repetitive motion injuries
RSIs - repetitive strain injuries
~ result of performing repetitive motions or applying pressure extensively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CTDs

A

cumulative trauma disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Microtrauma

A

basis of CTDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

body mechanics

A

principles of proper body alignment, movement, and balance; essentialgood posture & reducing risk of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 concepts essential to understanding principles of body mechanics

A

Line of gravity, base of support, and center of gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Line of Gravity

A

imaginary vertical line passing through center of gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

base of support

A

portion of body in contact with the floor; ex. feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Center of gravity

A

point where weight of object is centralized; ex. pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When lifting, bend at the knees and keep ____ straight.

A

Back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

TRUE/FALSE; Keep carrying object away from body

A

FALSE! Always keep carrying object close to body, can strain back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

80 % of imaging techs. experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the forms of RMIs/RSIs affecting shoulder, arm, or wrists, if their area of specialization is:
A. Radiography
B. MRI
C. Sonography
D. CT

A

C. Sonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

TRUE/FALSE:
When inpatients are moved from one place to another in a hospital, they are allowed to walk if capable.

A

FALSE!
Wheeled transport is required always!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Method of transport when patient can stand and sit….

A

wheelchair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Method of transportation when patient cannot sit or stand….

A

Gurney (aka stretcher)C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Infants/toddlers are often transported in…

A

their cribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Put the the following Initial steps to prepping transfer in order

A) Plan and prepare area
B) 2 patient identifiers
C) Introduce yourself!
D) check with nursing station for info

A

C, D, B, A:
- Introduce yourself!
- check with nursing station for info
- 2 patient identifiers
- Plan and prepare area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When obtaining equipment for transfer, what are the 2 things you should check for?

A

safety and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Position wheelchair ___ __ to table/patient’s bed with wheels locked & footrests out the way.
A. Across
B. Parallel
C. Close
D. Next

A

B. parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

After long periods of time of rest, patients have a mild reduction of O2 supply to the brain that occurs with changes in body positions. What is it called?

A

Orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gait belt should be used when patient is …

A

weak or unsteady

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Support the patient from _______ side and encourage them to lead with strong leg.

A

affected/weak side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Precautions for Patients with hip surgery, via Anterior Approach

A
  • avoid abduction
  • avoid adduction
  • avoid hyperextension
  • avoid internal and external rotation
  • may sit upright
  • weight bearing tolerated, usually
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Precautions for patients with hip surgery via Posterior approach

A

-avoid adduction
- avoid internal rotation
- weight bearing tolerated, usually
- abduction is permitted
- must not flex hip beyond 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Slider board or sliding mats can be used to:
A. immobilize child
B. provide comfort on x-ray table
C. facilitate a stretcher transfer
D. to ease patient to sitting position

A

C. facilitate a stretcher transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Name transfer techniques

A

assisted standing pivot transfer, 2 person lift, and hydraulic lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Stretchers are equipped with side rails to ensure that patient….

A

do not fall or attempt to climb off without assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A _____ is used to assist in moving/reposition patient.

A

Draw sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from sitting position, you should place your arms under _______ and ______.

A

shoulders; knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Use of meds. to induce a state of calm/sleep is ….

A

sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When a patient in a wheelchair/bed cannot stand, what equipment is required?

A

Hydraulic lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Don’t attempt to operate hydraulic lift, until …..

A

you have been instructed in its safe use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When transferring patient from stretcher, you should position arms where ?

A

across chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Common fall risks in patients are …..

A

patients missing edge of chair by sitting near edge; occur when patients sit in wheelchair

68
Q

Team requirement (3-5 people; 2 on each side, 1 supporting head) & C-spine precaution

A

Log Roll

68
Q

Types of microorganisms

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi/molds, and parasites/helminths

69
Q

What are the standard, or ‘universal’ precautions?

A
  • Hand hygiene
  • PPE
  • Cleaning disinfectants
  • Masks (PAPR/N95/Surgical)
70
Q

What is normal flora?

A

microorganisms within human body that don’t cause disease and may be beneficial

71
Q

What are pathogens?

A

microorganisms that cause infection and disease

72
Q

Very small, single-celled organisms with cell wall and atypical nucleus that lacks membrane

A

Bacteria

73
Q

TRUE/FALSE:
Bacteria depend on host cell.

A

FALSE;
Bacteria grow independently & replicate without host cell

74
Q

Bacteria have 3 distinct shapes, which are….

A
  • cocci; spherical
  • bacilli; rod-shaped
  • spirilla; spiral shaped
75
Q

Cocci may exists singly, in groups, or clusters. What are the classifications of these groupings?

A
  • single coccus
  • diplococci
  • streptococcus (chain formation)
  • staphylococcus (cluster/bunch of grapes formation)
76
Q

Bacteria is grouped by their….

A

oxygen requirements

77
Q

O2 requirements can be classified as ….

A

aerobic (grow in presence of O2) or anaerobic (won’t grow in presence of O2)

78
Q

Bacteria that can adapt and grow under either anaerobic/aerobic conditions are called….

A

facultative organisms

79
Q

Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called…

A

endospores

80
Q

Examples of diseases caused by bacteria

A

Streptococcus pharyngitis, TB, E. coli, Salmonella typhi

81
Q

Subcellular organism and are among the smallest known disease-causing organisms

A

Viruses

82
Q

A fully developed virus particle and made of genetic material

A

Virion

83
Q

Viruses ______ survive independently, they thrive on hosts with poor nutrition, comprised health, etc.

  • can or cannot
A

cannot

84
Q

Viruses may be ______ for years before causing symptoms.

A

dormant

85
Q

DNA & RNA are protected by an outer protein coating called….

A

capsid

86
Q

What are examples of enveloped viruses ?

A

Influenza, HIV, and Hep B

87
Q

True/False:
Viruses cannot mutate.

A

FALSE;
They CAN mutate and quite rapidly

88
Q

Viruses mutate rapidly that they become……

A

resistant to drugs that originally effective against them

89
Q

Respiratory viral infections

A

influenza, common colds are widespread

90
Q

Viruses that cause childhood diseases

A

mumps and measles

91
Q

Viruses that cause serious conditions

A

Hepatitis, HIV, varicella-zoster

92
Q

Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of ….

A

Bacteria

93
Q

Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 microns or smaller are called….

A

droplet nuclei

94
Q

Occur as single-celled yeasts or as long branched structures called molds that are composed of many cells….

A

Fungi

95
Q

Fungi require ____ to reproduce and live

A

air; they are air dependent

96
Q

Yeasts reproduce by forming ______, whereas molds reproduce by ____ formation.

A

buds; spore

97
Q

T/F:
Certain fungi can’t be be used in medical application.

A

FALSE;
It CAN be used!

98
Q

In humans, fungi cause …..

A

skin infections, athlete’s foot, ringworm, histoplasmosis

99
Q

Opportunistic infections are usually caused by…..

A

nonpathogenic organisms, such as PCP

100
Q

Prions are….

A

may be infectious proteins, are resistant to body’s natural defense and continue to multiply unchecked

101
Q

Complex, single-celled animals that generally exist as free-living organisms

A

protozoa

102
Q

Protozoa are classified as ….

A

motile/nonmotile

103
Q

Methods of motility in protozoa/parasites…

A
  • flagella ( whip-like formation)
  • Cilia (fine, hair-like projection)
  • pseudopods (false ‘feet’)
104
Q

Examples of diseases caused by protozoa

A

Malaria, toxoplasmosis, etc

105
Q

Most parasitic protozoa produce some type of resistant for such as ….

A

cysts, to survive outside host cell, up to extensive periods

106
Q

T/F:
Helminths are classified as cocci, bacilli, etc.

A

FALSE!
They are worm like parasites

107
Q

There must be an _______ to be transmitted.
A. reservoir of infection
B. Infectious organism
C. Mosquito
D. Cyst

A

B. Infectious Organism

108
Q

Nosocomial applies to infections that are….

A

hospital acquired infections (HAIs)

109
Q

Examples of nonhuman reservoirs include….

A
  • Soil (tetanus)
  • Animals (salmonella)
  • food (botulism)
  • water (typhus/legionnaire’s disease)
110
Q

Who was a “healthy food handler”?

A

‘Typhoid Mary’

111
Q

Pathogens find any place it can grow & multiply, which reefers to what part of the infection cycle?

A

Reservoir of Infection

112
Q

Place the following in order:
1. Portal of entry
2. Reservoir
3. Portal of exit
4. Means of transmission
5. susceptible host
6.pathogenic organism
________________________
A. 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 6, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C. 6, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 6, 4

A

B.
6. 2. 3. 4. 1. 5

113
Q

Portal of exit from human body may be the route of ….

A

blood, bodily fluids, excretions, and secretions

114
Q

Six main routes of transmission are

A
  • fomite
  • direct contact
  • droplet contamination
  • airborne
  • vectors
  • vehicles
115
Q

Direct contact transmission requires that the host is ________ by infected person and placed to susceptible tissue.

A

Touched

116
Q

Object that has contaminated with pathogenic organism is called….

A

fomite

117
Q

Forms of fomite in radiology dept. might include….

A
  • wall bucky
  • x ray table
  • IR
  • positioning sponges
118
Q

Vector is an _____ in whose body an infectious organism develops/multiplies before becoming infectious to new host.

A. Microorganism
B. Arthropod
C. Fungi
D. Virus

A

B. arthrapod

119
Q

examples of vectors are….

A
  • mosquitos (transmitting malaria/dengue)
  • fleas (carrying bubonic plague)
  • ticks/deer ticks (lyme disease)
120
Q

Any medium that transports microorganisms such as contaminated food, drugs, blood, or water.

A

Vehicles

121
Q

Occurs when infectious individual sneeze, cough, sings, etc in vicinity of susceptible host.

A

Droplet contamination

122
Q

Airborne transmission occurs from dust that contain _______ or _____ nuclei
A. Endospores or droplet nuclei
B. Bacteria or atomic nuclei
C. Dust or atomic nuclei
D. Spores or droplet nuclei

A

D. spores or droplet nuclei

122
Q

Droplet transmission involve contact with ______ membranes of susceptible host

A

mucous

123
Q

Natural Resistance

A

barriers that prevent microorganisms from entering body, such as intact skin

124
Q

Stages of infection

A
  1. incubation
  2. prodromal
  3. full disease
  4. convalescent
125
Q

Incubation phase of infection

A

period between exposure and onset of symptoms

126
Q

Active/Acquired Immunity

A

body is able to distinguish itself from protein substances that enter body (antigens); Long Term

127
Q

Prodromal phase of infection

A

early symptoms appear, often mild & nonspecific

128
Q

Passive Immunity

A

occurs when individuals receive antibodies outside the body; Short term

129
Q

Examples of passive immunity

A

injections, mother’s milk, etc

130
Q

Full disease phase of infection

A

infection reaches peak with full symptoms

131
Q

Convalescent phase of infection

A

recovery phase as symptoms subside

132
Q

Virulence factors

A

distinguish from nonpathogenic organisms or normal flora, enables bacteria to damage host

133
Q

Examples of virulence factors are….

A

biofilms, toxins, etc

134
Q

Infectious disease that affects many people at the same time in same geographic area

A

Epidemic

135
Q

Widespread epidemic

A

Pandemic

136
Q

CDC

A

centers of disease control & prevention; monitors and studies types of reoccurring infections

137
Q

WHO

A

World Health Organization; studies, collects, and compiles infection data from every country

138
Q

Factors of emerging diseases include…

A

Climate change, bioterrorism, contact w/ new strain pathogens, increase in population (crowded cities), transportation of goods, breakdowns of public health measure, etc

139
Q

Inadequate public measure in South America and Africa resulted in _____

A

cholera

140
Q

Reforestation increases populations of deer and deer ticks, which is a vector of…..

A

Lyme Disease

141
Q

Outbreak of what in the US in 2001 demonstrated the ease with which terrorists can spread diseases.

A

Anthrax

142
Q

Approximately ___,000 patients admitted to hospitals each year acquire HAIs

A

687, 000

143
Q

CDC estimates that ______ patients die each year pf HAIs

A

72,000

144
Q

One in _____ patients will acquire infection on acute care setting.
A. 25
B. 31
C. 10
D. 7

A

B. 31

145
Q

Two traits that may be responsible for causing E. coli outbreak

A
  • one trait is Shiga toxin, causes severe illness such as kidney failure or bloody diarrhea
  • second trait is bacteria aggregate on surface
146
Q

The major type of HIV are ______ (HIV-1) and HIV-2 found primarily in hetero. populations in_________.

A

predominant type; West Africa

147
Q

AIDS is called _______ for reporting purposes.

A

stage 3 HIV

148
Q

Virus that was brought to North America by travelers from Asia by air transport of used tires introducing mosquitoes carrying dengue

A

severe acute respiratory system (SARS)

149
Q

The outbreak of _______ pulmonary syndrome in the southwestern US in 1993 blamed on 6 year drought followed by mild, wet winter, and spring.

a. Anthrax
b. TB
c. Hantavirus
d. pneumonia

A

c. Hantavirus

150
Q

HIV is a ______ pathogen that causes AIDS.
a. airborne
b. direct contact
c. droplet contamination
d. bloodborne

A

d. bloodborne

151
Q

RNA viruses are called retroviruses because they replicate in a “_________” manner
a. backwards
b. straight
c. forward
d. zig zag

A

a. backwards

152
Q

Approximately 1 in ___ people have undiagnosed disease.
a. 15
b. 7
c. 10
d. 4

A

b. 7

153
Q

Which of the following is not a typical source of HAIs :
- mops
- contaminated hands
- catheters

A

Mops

154
Q

About ____ % of patients (in hospitals) that receive antibodies develop C. diff

A

20

155
Q

Hep. A & E can be transmitted through water contaminated with….

A

feces

156
Q

T/F:
Hep C is more infectious than Hep B

A

FALSE; Hep B is more infectious

157
Q

Medical ____ deals with reducing probability of infectious organisms being trasnmitted to susceptible host.

A

apsesis

158
Q

When handling linens, you must fold the edges of linen to ____ of without shaking/flapping, and immediately form into ball and into hamper.

A

middle

159
Q

Risk of contracting HIV from needlestick injury is :
a. 100%
b. approx. 50%
c. 10-20%
d. less than 1%

A

D
less than 1%

160
Q

Which type of hepatitis has no vaccine ?
A, B, C, or D

A

Type C

161
Q

Mucocutaneous Candida, herpes, cytomegalovirus, and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are examples of ?
a. multidrug resistant infections
b. opportunistic infections associated with HAIs
c. HAIs
d. airborne diseases

A

B
opportunistic infections

162
Q

PPD test is used to test for what disease?

A

TB

163
Q

What are multidrug resistant infections?

A

bacteria that have become resistant to certain antibiotics; such as MRSA and VRE

Rad (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions