RAD10D Test #2 Flashcards
Chap. 7-10
1
Q
OSHA
A
occupational safety & health admin; governs safety in workplace
2
Q
Fire prevention
A
crucial to ensure; be aware of things in workplace that can start fire
3
Q
Fire Safety Plan
A
every hospital must and will have this in case of emergency
4
Q
3 Components of starting a fire
A
O2, Fuel, & Heat
5
Q
Most fires in hospitals are caused by….
A
Electrical, open flames, spontaneous combustion, and cig. smokers
6
Q
Spontaneous combustion
A
chemical reaction in/near flammable material causes heat
7
Q
Electrical fires are common in …..
A
radiology dept.
8
Q
Examples of spontaneous combustion…
A
paints, used cleaning rags. etc
9
Q
Make sure to always turn off ….
A
breakers!
10
Q
O2 doesn’t burn, but it supports ….
A
combustion
11
Q
True/False: Any electrical equip. that could cause a spark a fire could be used in the presence of O2
A
FALSE; shouldn’t be used and must be marked as hazardous in situations where O2 is in use
12
Q
What listed down below is not something to do when in case of fire:
- “Code Red”
- Know fire plan & exit route
- Yell ‘FIRE!’
- Locate fire doors, fire extinguishers and fire alarm
A
Yell ‘FIRE!’
13
Q
What does R.A.C.E. mean?
A
R- Rescue/remove
A- alarm
C-contain
E- extinguish/evacuate
14
Q
When do you use P.A.S.S.?
A
when using fire extinguisher
15
Q
Primary responsibility is to evacuate beyond….
A
at least 2 intervening fire doors
16
Q
What does P.A.S.S. mean?
A
P- pull pin
A- aim
S- squeeze handle/spray
S- sweep at foundation of fire
17
Q
What are Fire extnguishers
A
tool used to put fires out
18
Q
Types of Fire Extinguishers
A
- CLASS A
- CLASS B
- CLASS C
- CLASS D
- CLASS K
19
Q
What types of fire extinguishers are multipurpose?
A
CLASS A, B, & C
20
Q
CLASS A🧯
A
solid common compbustibles, paper, wood, etc
21
Q
CLASS B🧯
A
flammable liquids
22
Q
CLASS C🧯
A
electrical equip. & wiring; think Copper wires
23
Q
CLASS D 🧯
A
metal alloys
24
Q
CLASS K
A
cooking media; animal fats & oils
25
Other common hazards...
slippery floors, loose cords, heavy lifting, sharp objects, electric shock, etc
26
MSDS
material safety data sheets; document required by OSHA for all hazardous chemicals, specifying required equip. & procedure in event of spill
27
Put steps in order to help ensure safety when spill occurs:
1. If you can proceed safely, clean immediately.
2. Limit access to affected area.
3. Determine whether you have both equip. & expertise to clean up spill.
4.Evaluate the risks involved
5, If lack the necessary skill/equip., call supervisor or appropriate dept.
2, 4, 3, 1, 5
28
Work areas require to have these kits.
Spill kits
29
Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?
- Nitrile gloves
- Kitty litter
- Mop
- broom/dust pan
Mop
30
Components of spill kit:
Nitrile gloves, kitty litter, heavy big bags, broom/dustpan
31
Ergonomics
study of workplace injury prevention
32
Ergonomic awareness & education in workplace has _______ job injuries in recent years, but still a concern.
a. Reduced
b. Remained the same
c. never worked
d. increased
A. reduced
33
MSDs
musculoskeletal disorders; most common injuries reported by healthcare workers
34
Subcategories of MSDs
RMIs, CTDs, & RSIs
35
RMIs & RSIs
RMIs- repetitive motion injuries
RSIs - repetitive strain injuries
~ result of performing repetitive motions or applying pressure extensively
36
CTDs
cumulative trauma disorders
37
Microtrauma
basis of CTDs
38
body mechanics
principles of proper body alignment, movement, and balance; essentialgood posture & reducing risk of injury
39
3 concepts essential to understanding principles of body mechanics
Line of gravity, base of support, and center of gravity
40
Line of Gravity
imaginary vertical line passing through center of gravity
41
base of support
portion of body in contact with the floor; ex. feet
42
Center of gravity
point where weight of object is centralized; ex. pelvis
43
When lifting, bend at the knees and keep ____ straight.
Back
44
TRUE/FALSE; Keep carrying object away from body
FALSE! Always keep carrying object close to body, can strain back
45
80 % of imaging techs. experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the forms of RMIs/RSIs affecting shoulder, arm, or wrists, if their area of specialization is:
A. Radiography
B. MRI
C. Sonography
D. CT
C. Sonography
46
TRUE/FALSE:
When inpatients are moved from one place to another in a hospital, they are allowed to walk if capable.
FALSE!
Wheeled transport is required always!
47
Method of transport when patient can stand and sit....
wheelchair
48
Method of transportation when patient cannot sit or stand....
Gurney (aka stretcher)C
49
Infants/toddlers are often transported in...
their cribs
50
Put the the following Initial steps to prepping transfer in order
A) Plan and prepare area
B) 2 patient identifiers
C) Introduce yourself!
D) check with nursing station for info
C, D, B, A:
- Introduce yourself!
- check with nursing station for info
- 2 patient identifiers
- Plan and prepare area
51
When obtaining equipment for transfer, what are the 2 things you should check for?
safety and function
52
Position wheelchair ___ __ to table/patient's bed with wheels locked & footrests out the way.
A. Across
B. Parallel
C. Close
D. Next
B. parallel
53
After long periods of time of rest, patients have a mild reduction of O2 supply to the brain that occurs with changes in body positions. What is it called?
Orthostatic hypotension
54
Gait belt should be used when patient is ...
weak or unsteady
55
Support the patient from _______ side and encourage them to lead with strong leg.
affected/weak side
56
Precautions for Patients with hip surgery, via Anterior Approach
- avoid abduction
- avoid adduction
- avoid hyperextension
- avoid internal and external rotation
- may sit upright
- weight bearing tolerated, usually
57
Precautions for patients with hip surgery via Posterior approach
-avoid adduction
- avoid internal rotation
- weight bearing tolerated, usually
- abduction is permitted
- must not flex hip beyond 90 degrees
58
Slider board or sliding mats can be used to:
A. immobilize child
B. provide comfort on x-ray table
C. facilitate a stretcher transfer
D. to ease patient to sitting position
C. facilitate a stretcher transfer
59
Name transfer techniques
assisted standing pivot transfer, 2 person lift, and hydraulic lift
60
Stretchers are equipped with side rails to ensure that patient....
do not fall or attempt to climb off without assistance
61
A _____ is used to assist in moving/reposition patient.
Draw sheet
62
When assisting a patient to sit from a supine position, or to lie down from sitting position, you should place your arms under _______ and ______.
shoulders; knees
63
Use of meds. to induce a state of calm/sleep is ....
sedation
64
When a patient in a wheelchair/bed cannot stand, what equipment is required?
Hydraulic lift
65
Don't attempt to operate hydraulic lift, until .....
you have been instructed in its safe use
66
When transferring patient from stretcher, you should position arms where ?
across chest
67
Common fall risks in patients are .....
patients missing edge of chair by sitting near edge; occur when patients sit in wheelchair
68
Team requirement (3-5 people; 2 on each side, 1 supporting head) & C-spine precaution
Log Roll
68
Types of microorganisms
bacteria, viruses, fungi/molds, and parasites/helminths
69
What are the standard, or 'universal' precautions?
- Hand hygiene
- PPE
- Cleaning disinfectants
- Masks (PAPR/N95/Surgical)
70
What is normal flora?
microorganisms within human body that don't cause disease and may be beneficial
71
What are pathogens?
microorganisms that cause infection and disease
72
Very small, single-celled organisms with cell wall and atypical nucleus that lacks membrane
Bacteria
73
TRUE/FALSE:
Bacteria depend on host cell.
FALSE;
Bacteria grow independently & replicate without host cell
74
Bacteria have 3 distinct shapes, which are....
- cocci; spherical
- bacilli; rod-shaped
- spirilla; spiral shaped
75
Cocci may exists singly, in groups, or clusters. What are the classifications of these groupings?
- single coccus
- diplococci
- streptococcus (chain formation)
- staphylococcus (cluster/bunch of grapes formation)
76
Bacteria is grouped by their....
oxygen requirements
77
O2 requirements can be classified as ....
aerobic (grow in presence of O2) or anaerobic (won't grow in presence of O2)
78
Bacteria that can adapt and grow under either anaerobic/aerobic conditions are called....
facultative organisms
79
Bacterial forms that are resistant to destruction and can remain viable for many years are called...
endospores
80
Examples of diseases caused by bacteria
Streptococcus pharyngitis, TB, E. coli, Salmonella typhi
81
Subcellular organism and are among the smallest known disease-causing organisms
Viruses
82
A fully developed virus particle and made of genetic material
Virion
83
Viruses ______ survive independently, they thrive on hosts with poor nutrition, comprised health, etc.
- can or cannot
cannot
84
Viruses may be ______ for years before causing symptoms.
dormant
85
DNA & RNA are protected by an outer protein coating called....
capsid
86
What are examples of enveloped viruses ?
Influenza, HIV, and Hep B
87
True/False:
Viruses cannot mutate.
FALSE;
They CAN mutate and quite rapidly
88
Viruses mutate rapidly that they become......
resistant to drugs that originally effective against them
89
Respiratory viral infections
influenza, common colds are widespread
90
Viruses that cause childhood diseases
mumps and measles
91
Viruses that cause serious conditions
Hepatitis, HIV, varicella-zoster
92
Microorganisms classified as acid-fast are a type of ....
Bacteria
93
Particles of evaporated droplets containing microorganisms and measuring 5 microns or smaller are called....
droplet nuclei
94
Occur as single-celled yeasts or as long branched structures called molds that are composed of many cells....
Fungi
95
Fungi require ____ to reproduce and live
air; they are air dependent
96
Yeasts reproduce by forming ______, whereas molds reproduce by ____ formation.
buds; spore
97
T/F:
Certain fungi can't be be used in medical application.
FALSE;
It CAN be used!
98
In humans, fungi cause .....
skin infections, athlete's foot, ringworm, histoplasmosis
99
Opportunistic infections are usually caused by.....
nonpathogenic organisms, such as PCP
100
Prions are....
may be infectious proteins, are resistant to body's natural defense and continue to multiply unchecked
101
Complex, single-celled animals that generally exist as free-living organisms
protozoa
102
Protozoa are classified as ....
motile/nonmotile
103
Methods of motility in protozoa/parasites...
- flagella ( whip-like formation)
- Cilia (fine, hair-like projection)
- pseudopods (false 'feet')
104
Examples of diseases caused by protozoa
Malaria, toxoplasmosis, etc
105
Most parasitic protozoa produce some type of resistant for such as ....
cysts, to survive outside host cell, up to extensive periods
106
T/F:
Helminths are classified as cocci, bacilli, etc.
FALSE!
They are worm like parasites
107
There must be an _______ to be transmitted.
A. reservoir of infection
B. Infectious organism
C. Mosquito
D. Cyst
B. Infectious Organism
108
Nosocomial applies to infections that are....
hospital acquired infections (HAIs)
109
Examples of nonhuman reservoirs include....
- Soil (tetanus)
- Animals (salmonella)
- food (botulism)
- water (typhus/legionnaire's disease)
110
Who was a "healthy food handler"?
'Typhoid Mary'
111
Pathogens find any place it can grow & multiply, which reefers to what part of the infection cycle?
Reservoir of Infection
112
Place the following in order:
1. Portal of entry
2. Reservoir
3. Portal of exit
4. Means of transmission
5. susceptible host
6.pathogenic organism
________________________
A. 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 6, 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C. 6, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 6, 4
B.
6. 2. 3. 4. 1. 5
113
Portal of exit from human body may be the route of ....
blood, bodily fluids, excretions, and secretions
114
Six main routes of transmission are
- fomite
- direct contact
- droplet contamination
- airborne
- vectors
- vehicles
115
Direct contact transmission requires that the host is ________ by infected person and placed to susceptible tissue.
Touched
116
Object that has contaminated with pathogenic organism is called....
fomite
117
Forms of fomite in radiology dept. might include....
- wall bucky
- x ray table
- IR
- positioning sponges
118
Vector is an _____ in whose body an infectious organism develops/multiplies before becoming infectious to new host.
A. Microorganism
B. Arthropod
C. Fungi
D. Virus
B. arthrapod
119
examples of vectors are....
- mosquitos (transmitting malaria/dengue)
- fleas (carrying bubonic plague)
- ticks/deer ticks (lyme disease)
120
Any medium that transports microorganisms such as contaminated food, drugs, blood, or water.
Vehicles
121
Occurs when infectious individual sneeze, cough, sings, etc in vicinity of susceptible host.
Droplet contamination
122
Airborne transmission occurs from dust that contain _______ or _____ nuclei
A. Endospores or droplet nuclei
B. Bacteria or atomic nuclei
C. Dust or atomic nuclei
D. Spores or droplet nuclei
D. spores or droplet nuclei
122
Droplet transmission involve contact with ______ membranes of susceptible host
mucous
123
Natural Resistance
barriers that prevent microorganisms from entering body, such as intact skin
124
Stages of infection
1. incubation
2. prodromal
3. full disease
4. convalescent
125
Incubation phase of infection
period between exposure and onset of symptoms
126
Active/Acquired Immunity
body is able to distinguish itself from protein substances that enter body (antigens); Long Term
127
Prodromal phase of infection
early symptoms appear, often mild & nonspecific
128
Passive Immunity
occurs when individuals receive antibodies outside the body; Short term
129
Examples of passive immunity
injections, mother's milk, etc
130
Full disease phase of infection
infection reaches peak with full symptoms
131
Convalescent phase of infection
recovery phase as symptoms subside
132
Virulence factors
distinguish from nonpathogenic organisms or normal flora, enables bacteria to damage host
133
Examples of virulence factors are....
biofilms, toxins, etc
134
Infectious disease that affects many people at the same time in same geographic area
Epidemic
135
Widespread epidemic
Pandemic
136
CDC
centers of disease control & prevention; monitors and studies types of reoccurring infections
137
WHO
World Health Organization; studies, collects, and compiles infection data from every country
138
Factors of emerging diseases include...
Climate change, bioterrorism, contact w/ new strain pathogens, increase in population (crowded cities), transportation of goods, breakdowns of public health measure, etc
139
Inadequate public measure in South America and Africa resulted in _____
cholera
140
Reforestation increases populations of deer and deer ticks, which is a vector of.....
Lyme Disease
141
Outbreak of what in the US in 2001 demonstrated the ease with which terrorists can spread diseases.
Anthrax
142
Approximately ___,000 patients admitted to hospitals each year acquire HAIs
687, 000
143
CDC estimates that ______ patients die each year pf HAIs
72,000
144
One in _____ patients will acquire infection on acute care setting.
A. 25
B. 31
C. 10
D. 7
B. 31
145
Two traits that may be responsible for causing E. coli outbreak
- one trait is Shiga toxin, causes severe illness such as kidney failure or bloody diarrhea
- second trait is bacteria aggregate on surface
146
The major type of HIV are ______ (HIV-1) and HIV-2 found primarily in hetero. populations in_________.
predominant type; West Africa
147
AIDS is called _______ for reporting purposes.
stage 3 HIV
148
Virus that was brought to North America by travelers from Asia by air transport of used tires introducing mosquitoes carrying dengue
severe acute respiratory system (SARS)
149
The outbreak of _______ pulmonary syndrome in the southwestern US in 1993 blamed on 6 year drought followed by mild, wet winter, and spring.
a. Anthrax
b. TB
c. Hantavirus
d. pneumonia
c. Hantavirus
150
HIV is a ______ pathogen that causes AIDS.
a. airborne
b. direct contact
c. droplet contamination
d. bloodborne
d. bloodborne
151
RNA viruses are called retroviruses because they replicate in a "_________" manner
a. backwards
b. straight
c. forward
d. zig zag
a. backwards
152
Approximately 1 in ___ people have undiagnosed disease.
a. 15
b. 7
c. 10
d. 4
b. 7
153
Which of the following is not a typical source of HAIs :
- mops
- contaminated hands
- catheters
Mops
154
About ____ % of patients (in hospitals) that receive antibodies develop C. diff
20
155
Hep. A & E can be transmitted through water contaminated with….
feces
156
T/F:
Hep C is more infectious than Hep B
FALSE; Hep B is more infectious
157
Medical ____ deals with reducing probability of infectious organisms being trasnmitted to susceptible host.
apsesis
158
When handling linens, you must fold the edges of linen to ____ of without shaking/flapping, and immediately form into ball and into hamper.
middle
159
Risk of contracting HIV from needlestick injury is :
a. 100%
b. approx. 50%
c. 10-20%
d. less than 1%
D
less than 1%
160
Which type of hepatitis has no vaccine ?
A, B, C, or D
Type C
161
Mucocutaneous Candida, herpes, cytomegalovirus, and pneumocystis carinii pneumonia are examples of ?
a. multidrug resistant infections
b. opportunistic infections associated with HAIs
c. HAIs
d. airborne diseases
B
opportunistic infections
162
PPD test is used to test for what disease?
TB
163
What are multidrug resistant infections?
bacteria that have become resistant to certain antibiotics; such as MRSA and VRE
