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Rad Patient Care Review Flashcards

1
Q

what are these societies?
JRCERT
ARRT
ISRRT
ASRT
AAPA
ACR

A

Accreditation agency for radiography programs
Certification body for radiography
International Society
Society for Radiologic Technologists
Society for Medical Physicists

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2
Q

what are accreditation agencies?
what is it for radiology?

A

ensure education programs meet standards
JRCERT

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3
Q

Which modalities do NOT use ionizing radiation?

A

MRI
Sonography

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4
Q

what are professional societies?
what is this for radiology?

A

Voluntary organizations that inform, represent & lead members
ASRT

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5
Q

what are certification bodies?
what is this for radiology?

A

Accreditation agency for radiography programs
ARRT

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6
Q

what are the six problem solving & critical thinking resources? (in order)

A

Institutional policies
Federal laws
State laws
ARRT Standard of Ethics
ARRT Code of Ethics
ASRT Practice Standards

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7
Q

what are the steps for critical thinking & problem solving?

A

Identify the problem
Investigate the problem, objectively
Develop viable solutions
Select the best solution, and
Implement it

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8
Q

why does hierarchy exist?
what do each of the steps mean?

A

Organizational view: (greater diversity exists at top of hierarchy)
Decision making: (someone needs to decide, esp emergencies)
Responsibility: (Someone needs to be able to effect change when problems exist)
Prioritization: (Structures are put in place that need to be followed, especially in emergency)
Communication: (Communication needs to flow up to those that make decisions & down to those who implement decisions)

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9
Q

what is MQSA?
What is OSHA?

A

Mammography Quality Standards Act - regulates mammography services on federal level
Occupational Safety & Health Administration
Regulates workplace federally

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9
Q

what is joint commission?

A

accreditation body for hospitals & clinics

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10
Q

what is the diagnostic screening?
what is diagnostic tests?

A

Screening - people without symptoms
Diagnostic - people with symptoms or asymptomatic w/ positive screening test

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11
Q

what are the 6 factors that help us determine which imaging modality to use?

A

Efficacy
Radiation dose
Patient risk
Patient tolerance
Timeliness
Cost

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12
Q

Minimum of ___ views on all radiographs

A

2

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13
Q

what is the preferred imaging modality for pediatric patients?

A

sonography

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14
Q

patients that come to radiology are at low or high levels of the Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

low

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14
Q

what is the patient interaction for pediatrics?

A

Come DOWN to their level
Speak SOFTLY
Setup equipment BEFORE child enters room

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15
Q

what is the patient interaction for adolescents?

A

modesty (important)
get them involved
speak to them as an adult

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16
Q

what is the patient interaction for geriatrics?

A

assume all bodily functions are decreased
speak clearly & slowly
keep them comfortable
be patient

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17
Q

what is the patient interaction for terminally ill patients?

A

give them as much patient autonomy as possible

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18
Q

For history taking, what are the two types of data?
what are they?

A

subjective data (feelings/attitudes)
objective data (measurable/physiologic)

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19
Q

what are the sacred seven medical histories?
what are they?

A

Localization (where does it hurt)
Chronology (when did it start)
Quality (describe the symptoms)
Severity (scale 1-10, describe)
Onset (event that caused this?)
Aggravating factors (hurt less/more when you stand)
Associated manifestations (do other symptoms occur at same time)

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20
Q

wheel-chair transfers should occur with w/c at a ____ angle to the ____

A

45 degree
table

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20
Q

where is the center gravity located?

A

at the level of the second sacral segment

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21
Q

what are the 4 principles of lifting?

A

communication
patient does most work
hold patient close
watch for orthostatic hypotension (faint after standing to quickly)

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22
what are the steps for a w/c transfer?
lock stretcher get patient involved use slider board three people needed for assisted transfer
23
what are work-related musculoskeletal disorders? what is it caused by?
single event repetition (common in sonography, carpal tunnel)
24
what is the goal of immobilization techniques?
to reduce motion
25
what are the four general principles for immobilization techniques?
Communication (less anxiety/motion increase cooperation) Comfort (quick exam less chance for motion) Demonstration (show patient how to reduce anxiety) Efficiency (a warm/happy patient is a steady patient)
26
what are the rules for trauma applications?
initial images should include the device device can only be removed after recieving permission
27
what is the main rule with restraints?
do not remove restraint without authorization do not restrain without permission
28
what is the average temperature for these? Oral: axillary (armpit): tympanic: temporal (head): rectal:
98.6 degrees 97.6 degrees 97.6 degrees 100 degrees 99.6 degrees
29
what is the range for hyperthermia? hypothermia?
Higher than 99.5 degrees Below 97.7 degrees
30
what is the average adult respiratory rate? child?
12 to 20 breaths per minute 20 to 30 breaths per minute
31
what are the pulse rates for adults? child?
60 to 100 bpm 70 to 120 bpm
31
what is tachypnea? bradypnea?
Fast breathing rate Slow breathing rate
32
what is tachycardia? what is bradycardia?
Fast pulse rate Slow pulse rate
33
what is the normal oxygen saturation for pulse oximeter?
95-100%
34
what is the normal range for blood pressure?
120/80 systolic/diastolic
35
what is hypotension? hypertension?
Below normal blood pressure Above normal blood pressure
36
Oxygen is considered a ______ what is the color of the oxygen flowmeter?
drug Green
37
what is a central line? what are the most common insertion sites?
catheter inserted into large vein subclavian vein preferred also internal jugular & femoral vein
37
what are thoracostomy tubes? what is its function?
chest tubes drains fluid/air from intrapleural & mediastinum space
38
what is the chain of infection?
pathogen (bacteria, virus, fungi) reservoir (people, animals, soil) portal of exit (sneezing, coughing) mode of transmission (direct/indirect contact & vectors) portal of entry (mouth, nose, eyes, cuts) susceptible host (elderly, infants, immunocompromised, also anyone)
39
what is bacteria? classified: diseases associated with bacteria?
single celled organism reside in host as colony by shape strep throat & food poisoning
40
what is a virus? what are some common pathologies associated?
microscopic organism that infect animals/ people cant reproduce w/o host or live long outside a living cell flu, colds, COVID
40
what is fungi? common pathologies?
single celled or complex multicellular organism athletes foot, ringworm, thrush
41
what is parasitic protozoa? classified: most deadly globally?
larger than bacteria & live on/in organisms at expense of host malaria
42
what are nosocomial infections? what is the percentage that affects patients?
inpatient (hospital infections) 5% of all inpatient contract
43
what is the PPE (personal protection equipment) donning? removal?
gown, mask, goggles, then gloves gloves, goggles, gown, then mask
43
what is the recommended hand-washing time? hand rubbing?
40-60 seconds 20-30 seconds
44
what is surgical asepsis? medical asepsis?
elimination of all micro-organisms in an area reduce micro-organisms in area
44
what are the rules for a sterile field?
create field close to usage time below table is unsterile equipment must be covered with proper sterile covers
45
what are four common surgical procedures in radiology?
chest tube placement dressing changes tracheostomy urinary catheterization
46
what are five common non-aseptic activities done in radiology?
nasogastric tubes (NG) urinal use bedpan use enema barium enema
47
what are the responsibilities of the tech in emergencies?
recognize an emergency Preserve life Avoid further harm Get help
48
what are the three different types of shock?
hypovolemic (loss of blood or fluids) Cardiogenic (Cardiac disorders (MI) Neurogenic (spinal cord damage) Vasogenic (anaphylaxis)
48
what should a technologist be alert for changes in patients:
level of consciousness Demeaner Pain level Respiration Speech patterns
49
what are the four signs of stroke?
slurred speech dizziness loss of vision one-side paralysis
49
what is the generic name for drugs?
name given to drug when commercially available
49
what is a drug's chemical name?
identifies chemical structure of drug
50
what is a drugs trade name?
name given to drug by company (brand name)
50
what are the classifications of these drugs? antiarrhythmics: Antidiabetic drugs: Antihistamines: Antiplatelets: vasodilators:
adenosine Metformin (Glucophage) diphenhydramine (Benadryl) aspirin nitroglycerin
51
what is a mild drug reaction?
Anxiety lightheadedness nausea vomiting itching
51
what are the seven factors that influence drug action?
patient age health status time of day emotional status other drugs in the body genetics (genetic variations) disease state of the body (kidney/liver function)
52
what are severe drug reactions?
Bradycardia (<50 beats/min) cardiac arrythmias laryngeal swelling convulsions loss of consciousness cardiac arrest respiratory arrest no detectable pulse
52
what are moderate drug reactions?
urticaria bronchospasm angioedema hypotension Tachycardia (<100 beats/min)
53
what are idiosyncratic reactions?
abnormal response to a drug cause by individual genetic differences
53
what are the methods of administration? topical: enteral: parenteral:
application of drug directly on skin Drug administration through digestive system (oral, sublingual, buccal, rectal) administration usually from needles/syringes (Intradermal, intramuscular, intravenous, subcutaneous)
54
what are the five types of drug administration?
right drug right amount right patient right time right route
55
what are the needle diameter and length?
diameter expressed in gauges from 14-28 (smaller # is bigger diameter) Vary in length .25 inches to 5 inches most common is 1-1.5 inches
55
at what angle do we insert the needle for a venipuncture procedure?
insert needle next to vein at 15–30-degree angle
56
what is infiltration? what is extravasation?
medicine leaking into the soft tissue WITHOUT irritation medicine leaking into the tissue WITH irritation
57
what are these common medical abbreviations? C: IM: IV: PO:
with intramuscular intravenously by mouth
58
what are these common medical abbreviations? S: NPO: SC: Stat:
without nothing by mouth subcutaneously immediately
59
what are positive contrast media? how do they appear? what are some examples?
Composed of higher atomic number elements appears radiopaque on image barium sulfate water-soluble iodine contrast agents
60
what are negative contrast media? how do they appear? what are some examples?
composed of low atomic number elements appears radiolucent on image Examples: air/gas (CO2)
60
most adverse reactions to contrast result from the:
osmolality of the agent
61
what is a contraindication for barium sulfate? what should we do following a barium study? what does barium sulfate have a tendency to do?
suspected cases of Bowel Perforation push fluids flocculation
62
what are the contrast considerations?
renal function metformin (Glucophage) should be discontinued for 48 hrs before and after the use of iodine contrast
62
two types of radiopharmaceutical contamination:
external- spilled on Internal- ingested
63
what are the six ethical dilemmas?
consequentialism (Decision is right or wrong based on consequences) non-consequentialism (Right or wrong the outcome is not important) social contracts (expectations based on a relationship) virtue based ethics (Character traits guides ethical decisions) rights based ethics (decisions based on the fact that individuals have rights) principle based ethics (the use of ethical principles to guide decision making)
63
ethical dilemmas occur when:
the correct choice is not clear and personal values may conflict
64
what are the six principle based ethics?
beneficence (actions should always benefit the patient) nonmaleficence (actions should not harm the patient) autonomy (actions should respect patient independence) veracity (always be truthful) fidelity (actions should always meet promises) justice (actions should be fair)
65
In medical imaging and radiation therapy professional ethics are primarily maintained by the ______ in its _________ which contains __ main sections which are?
ARRT Standard of ethics 2 Code of ethics & Rules of ethics
66
what are the code of ethics? rule of ethics?
behaviors a professional should aspire to achieve mandatory rules that outline how a professional should behave
66
what is electronic medical record? (EMR)
medical records that are controlled by a single institution a patient can see their EMR apon request
67
what is the electronic health record? (HER)
medical records that are easily accessed by patient multiple medical institutions (patient portal)
68
what is the hospital information system? (HIS)
designed to share patient data: scheduling billing assigns patient number
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what is the radiology information system? (RIS)
manages patient scheduling, billing, and orders in RAD department assigns accession number #
69
what is ICD-10-CM? CPT-4?
reason for the visit translated into a code codes used for specific diagnostic procedures and services
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Registry Prep (12 decks)

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