R5, M3-M6 Flashcards

1
Q

What three criteria need to be met to have a merchant’s firm offer?

A
  • seller is a merchant
  • offer must be in writing and signed by the merchant, and
  • offer gives assurance that it will be kept open for a certain time
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2
Q

What is different about a merchant’s firm offer as compared to the common law?

A

No consideration is required to keep the offer open. In a firm offer, the offer is irrevocable for the time period stated.

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3
Q

How long does an offer stay open in a firm offer? What is the maximum?

A

time stated or reasonable time, but not more than 3 months

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4
Q

If the acceptance has minor changes in the UCC, what governs the contract, the original offer or the acceptance?

A

the original offer

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5
Q

If the acceptance has minor changes in the UCC, what governs the contract, the original offer or the acceptance (if the contract is between merchants)?

A

the terms of acceptance control, unless the changes are material

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6
Q

If there is a unilateral contract, a shipment of nonconforming goods is both a … and a …

A

an acceptance and a breach of contract

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7
Q

If there is a unilateral contract, a shipment of nonconforming goods with a more that the goods are shipped only as an accommodation, this is a …

A

counterfoffer

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8
Q

In a bilateral contract, a shipment of nonconforming goods is a …

A

breach of contract.

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9
Q

In a bilateral contract, a shipment of nonconforming goods with a note is a …

A

breach of contract still.

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10
Q

In an auction, the bid (raising your number) is the ___. The fall of the hammer is the ___.

A

offer, acceptance

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11
Q

What is an auction with reserve?

A

Seller does not have to sell unless an adequate bid is made.

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12
Q

What is an auction without reserve?

A

Seller must sell goods to the highest bidder.

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13
Q

Can a sales contract be paid using check? What if the sller demands cash?

A

Check is acceptable, but if the seller demands cash they need to give the buyer sufficient time to obtain the cash.

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14
Q

If there is fraud in a UCC case, the defrauded party can get what damages?

A

rescind contract AND money damages

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15
Q

What is the statue of limitations for the UCC?

A

four years

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16
Q

What acronym tells you the four exceptions to the statute of frauds requirement for a contract in writing?

A

SWAP

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17
Q

What does the S stand for in SWAP (Statute of Frauds Exceptions)?

A

specially manufactured goods

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18
Q

What does the W stand for in SWAP (Statute of Frauds Exceptions)?

A

written confirmation of a contract that is sufficient to bind the sender

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19
Q

A written confirmation will bind the recipient if they do not object within __ days.

A

10

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20
Q

What does the A stand for in SWAP (Statute of Frauds Exceptions)?

A

admitted to the K in court

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21
Q

What does the P stand for in SWAP (Statute of Frauds Exceptions)?

A

performed contracts, to the extent they have been accepted

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22
Q

What are the two exceptions to needing the quantity term in a UCC contract?

A
  • requirements contract: seller agrees to supply all the buyer’s needs for a period of time
  • output contract: sell everything the seller makes over a period of time
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23
Q

Under common law, an event that makes the contract _____ to perform to discharged. Under the UCC, the contract can be discharged for ___ ______.

A

Common: impossible
UCC: mere impracticability

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24
Q

What does impracticable mean?

A

extremely more burdensome than anticipated due to an unforeseen event

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25
Q

If the method of transportation is unavailable or commercially unreasonable, can the seller avoid the contract?

A

No, they can use another means of transportation.

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26
Q

What is the seller’s basic duty (related to risk of loss and title)?

A
  • hold conforming goods for the buyer, and
  • give buyer reasonable notice to take delivery
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27
Q

What is the first step always for risk of loss to pass?

A

goods must be identified (segregated for the buyer)

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28
Q

If parties agree to when risk of loss and title passes, what governs - the agreement or the rules of the UCC?

A

the agreement; The UCC rules are uesed when there is no agreement.

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29
Q

When there is no agreement on when risk of loss passes, what two types of cases does the UCC divide into? Which of these is the default?

A
  • noncarrier cases (default)
  • carrier cases
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30
Q

What does a seller’s tender of delivery of goods to a buyer mean in simple words?

A

Seller says: “You can come take these goods now.”

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31
Q

In a non-carrier case, when does risk of loss pass if a seller is not a merchant?

A

seller tenders delivery of goods to the buyer (you can take these now)

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32
Q

In a non-carrier case, when does risk of loss pass if a seller is a merchant?

A

when the seller actually delivers goods to the buyer (buyer takes physical possession)

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33
Q

FOB seller’s city is the same as FOB (shipping point/destination).

A

shipping point

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34
Q

FOB buyer’s city is the same as FOB (shipping point/destination).

A

destination

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35
Q

If a seller ships non-conforming goods, when does risk of loss pass?

A

risk of loss remains on the seller regardless of the shipping terms, unless the buyer accepts the defective goods

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36
Q

In any case, always remember that the non-breaching party always has …

A

all the options

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37
Q

What are the two types of non-final sales?

A
  • sale on approval
  • sale on return
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38
Q

What is a sale on approval?

A

the buyer has the right to return within X number of days (trial period)

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39
Q

For a sales on approval, the title and risk of loss belong to the (buyer/seller) during the trial period.

A

seller

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40
Q

If the buyer approves of the goods in a sale on approval, does the title and risk of loss pass to the buyer?

A

Yes, upon approval.

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41
Q

A sale on return is also called a …

A

sale on consignment.

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42
Q

For a sales on approval, the title and risk of loss belong to the (buyer/seller). When can this shift?

A

buyer; If the buyer returns goods, they can go back to the seller.

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43
Q

If there is no agreement as to when title passes, when does title pass.

A

when the seller completes delivery requirements (if any)

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44
Q

If the buyer rejects the goods received, who does the title belong to? What if the buyer rejects the goods wrongfully?

A

it reverts to the seller, regardless of whether rejected rightfully or wrongfully

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45
Q

What is an express warranty?

A

an explicit (oral or written) statement made before the sale to induce the buyer to purchase the goods

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46
Q

Does a sample or model shown by the seller constitute an express warranty?

A

Yes.

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47
Q

Does a statement of value or an opinion constitute an express warranty?

A

No, because it must be a statement of fact.

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48
Q

What does it mean for an express warranty to be part of the basis of the bargain?

A

made before the sale to induce the buyer to purchase the goods (played a role in their decision)

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49
Q

Express warranties are only made (before/after) the sale.

A

before

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50
Q

How can an express warranty be disclaimed?

A

It cannot be disclaimed.

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51
Q

What is the implied warranty of title?

A

seller has good title and the right to transfer title

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52
Q

If the seller is a merchant, the implied warranty of title further promises that the goods …

A

do not infringe on any patent or trademark

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53
Q

What are the only two ways to disclaim implied warranty of title?

A
  • specific language, or
  • circumstances that indicate the seller is not guaranteeing title (ex: judicial sale, auction)
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53
Q

Can a general disclaimer disclaim title (“as is”, “with all faults”)?

A

No, you have to say “I do not warrant title.”

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54
Q

What is the implied warranty of merchantability?

A

goods are fit for ordinary purposes

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55
Q

The implied warranty of merchantability only applies in sales by _____.

A

merchants

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56
Q

Can a general disclaimer disclaim merchantability (“as is”, “with all faults”)?

A

Yes.

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57
Q

Can an oral disclaimer disclaim merchantability (“as is”, “with all faults”)?

A

Yes.

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58
Q

When does the implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose come about?

A

buyer relies on the seller to select goods suitable for the buyer’s purpose

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59
Q

What is anticipatory repudiation?

A

before performance, a buyer or seller says they will not perform

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60
Q

What options are available to the non-breaching party when the other party anticipatorily repudiates the contract?

A
  • sue today (immediately)
  • sue later if they do not perform
  • cancel the contract
  • demand assurances
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61
Q

The repudiating party can withdraw their repudiation before the other party does what?

A

file a lawsuit

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62
Q

What does it mean to demand assurances?

A

If you think the other pary will not perform, ask for a written assurance that they will perform.

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63
Q

If you demand assurance from the other, what happens if the other party does not respond in a reasonable time?

A

This is treated like an anticipatory repudiation.

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64
Q

When can the seller sue the buyer for the entire contract price (plus damages) (2 OR)?

A
  • if goods cannot be resold (specially manufactured),
  • if risk of loss had already passed to the buyer
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65
Q

Even if there is no liquidated damages clause in a UCC contract, the seller can keep what amount if the buyer made a down payment?

A
  • $500, or
  • 20% of the sales price
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66
Q

If a buyer accepts nonconforming goods, can they still sue the seller?

A

Yes, for the differnece in the value only.

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67
Q

What is replevin?

A

the right to recover goods wrongfully in the hands of the seller

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68
Q

When can replevin be used (2 AND)?

A
  • goods are identified, and
  • buyer cannot reasonably cover (buy similar goods)
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69
Q

If a buyer has paid for part or all of the price of the goods and the seller becomes insolvent, when can the buyer recover the goods from the seller?

A

if the goods are insolvent

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70
Q

If your goods get stolen and then sold to a third party can you get your things back?

A

Yes.

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71
Q

If your goods are entrusted to a merchant who then sells the goods to an innocent third party in the ordinary course of business, can you get your things back?

A

Not unless it is a family heirloom.

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72
Q

Is writing required to create an agency relationship?

A

No.

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73
Q

Is consideration required to create an agency relationship?

A

No.

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74
Q

To form an agency relationship, the principal must be (competent/consenting/both). The agent must be (competent/consenting/both).

A

Prinicpal: competent (having capacity) and consenting
Agent: consenting only

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75
Q

Agency agreements only need to be in writing in what two situations from MYLEGS?

A

“YL”
Year (agency cannot be completed in one year)
Land (real estate transactions to buy or sell interests in land)

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76
Q

Does an agency agreement to find a buyer (but not sell to them) need to be in writing?

A

No.

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77
Q

What is a power of attorney?

A

a written agency agreemenet

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78
Q

Who needs to sign the power of attorney?

A

only the principal is required to

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78
Q

Is the power of attorney all-encompassing or limited to certain transactions?

A

usually limited

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79
Q

Does the agent in a power of attorney agreement need to be a lawyer?

A

No.

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80
Q

What acronym helps you remember the key fiduciary duties of an agent?

A

LORA

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81
Q

What do each of the letters in LORA stand for (fiduciary duties of agent)?

A

Loyalty
Obedience
Reasonable Care
Accounting

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82
Q

When is the duty of loyalty breached?

A

self-dealing, competing with the principal, taking kickbacks

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83
Q

Kickbacks received from a third party to an agent should be held in a ___ ____ and returned to the ___.

A

constructive trust, principal

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84
Q

T/F: The agent must obey all directions from the principal.

A

False, they only need to obey all reasonable directions.

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85
Q

What two things are involved in the duty to account?

A
  • keep track of money in and out
  • do not commingle funds
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86
Q

Can an agent hire other employees to help them out?

A

Yes, these assistants are referred to as subagents.

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87
Q

What duties does a subagent have and to whom?

A

duty of care to the agent and the principal

88
Q

Can a principal sue an agent for breach of contract if the agent is not receiving compensation?

89
Q

Can a principal sue an agent for breach of contract if the agent is receiving compensation?

90
Q

Can a principal sue an agent for tort damages if the agent is not receiving compensation?

91
Q

Can a principal sue an agent for tort damages if the agent is receiving compensation?

92
Q

What remedy does the principal have if an agent committed an intentional tort?

A

withhold compensation (refuse to pay the agent)

93
Q

What two duties does the principal have to the agent?

A
  • compensation (unless the agent agress to act for free)
  • indemnification/reimbursement
94
Q

The principal and agent have the (right/power) to terminate their agreement, but not necessarily the (right/power).

A

power, right

95
Q

What is an agency coupled with an interest (use an example to explain)?

A

Agent is the principal’s creditor, and they were given the ability to take the principal’s property and sell it as their agent.

96
Q

Who can terminate an agency coupled with an interest?

A

the agent only, not the principal

97
Q

T/F: Death, incapacity, or bankruptcy of the principal will end an agency coupled with an interest.

A

False, these will not end the agency.

98
Q

With actual authority, the agent has the (power/right/both/neither) to bind the principal.

A

both the power and the right

99
Q

With apparent authority, the agent has the (power/right/both/neither) to bind the principal.

A

the power but not the right

100
Q

With ratification, the agent has the (power/right/both/neither) to bind the principal.

A

neither the pwoer or right

101
Q

What is the definition of actual authority?

A

authority the agent reasonably believes they have based on the principal’s communication to the agent

102
Q

What implied authority does a business manager have?

A
  • run the business
  • hire and fire employees
  • purchase inventory
  • pay business debts
102
Q

What implied authority does a business manager NOT have?

A
  • sell or mortgage business fixtures
  • borrow money on the principal’s bealf
103
Q

What are the three ways to terminate actual authority?

A
  • act of the parties (agent quits or gets fired)
  • accomplishment of the objective, or expiration of stated period
  • by operation of law
104
Q

Do third parties need to be notified when the agency relationship is terminated by law?

105
Q

What acronym tells you the ways that actual and apparent authority can be terminated by operation of law?

106
Q

What do each of the letters in BID LID stand for (termination by operation of law)?

A

B - Bankruptcy of the principal (only P)
I - Incapacity of the principal (only P)
D - Death of either the principal or agent
L - Failure of agent to acquire necessary License
I - Subsequent Illegallity
D - Destruction of subject matter of agency

107
Q

The death of a principal does not terminate the agency until the agent has …

A

notice of the principal’s death

108
Q

What is apparent authority?

A

principal’s conduct caused third parties to reasonably believe that the agent had authority

109
Q

Apparent authority requires one of two things by the principal:

A
  • negligent inaction (not saying something), or
  • a holding out (saying something that causes them to reasonably believe the agent had authority)
110
Q

Can the principal still recover from a contract made with apparent authority? Who will they recover from?

A

Yes, but they will recover from the agent, not the third party.

111
Q

If an agent had actual authority, can the principal recover damages from the agent?

112
Q

How do you typically destroy apparent authority?

A

by giving notice to the third parties

112
Q

Secret instructions to the agent limit the (actual/apparent) authority, but not the (actual/apparent) authority.

A

actual, apparent

113
Q

Who has a broader apparent authority, a general agent or a special agent?

114
Q

How do you give notice sufficient to destroy apparent authority to old and current customers?

A

giving actual oral/written notice

115
Q

How do you give notice sufficient to destroy apparent authority to potential customers?

A

constructive notice (advertisement in news)

116
Q

When does estoppel to deny existence of agency come into play?

A
  • you intentionally or carelessly cause a third party to believe someone is your agent, and
  • they detrimentally and justifiably rely on that belief, so
  • you cannot deny that they aren’t your agent
117
Q

What does ratification allow a principal to do?

A

become bound by previously unauthorized acts of the principal

118
Q

What are some requirements of ratification?
- agent indicated that …
- … is disclosed to principal

A

Agent indicated that they were acting on behalf of a principal.
All material facts disclosed to the principal.

119
Q

Do you need to notify the third party that you are ratifying the contract, as the principal?

120
Q

T/F: The principal must ratify the entire transaction.

A

True, there can be no partial ratification.

121
Q

Can an undisclosed principal ratify a contract?

A

No, because the requirement that the agent made it clear they were acting on behalf of the principal is not met.

122
Q

If the existence and identity of the principal is disclosed to the third party, can the third party hold the agent liable for the contract?

A

No, they must go after the principal.

123
Q

What is an unidentified versus undisclosed principal?

A

Unidentified: 3rd party knows that agent is acting on behalf of a P, but does not know who the P is
Undisclosed: 3rd party does not know that agent is acting on behalf of a P

124
Q

An agent is always liable to a third party for damages if they do what?

A

lie to the third party

124
Q

If the existence and/or identity of the principal is NOT disclosed to the third party, can the third party hold the agent liable for the contract?

A

Yes, the 3rd party can hold either the agent or principal liable.

125
Q

Can an agent sue a third party for breach of the contract?

A

No, the principal has to sue.

126
Q

What is the general rule for whether a principal is liable for torts committed by their agent?

A

Generally, not liable.

127
Q

What does the doctrine of respondeat superior say?

A

An employer can be held liable for an employee’s torts committed within scope of employment.

128
Q

In general, is an employer liable for an employee’s intentional torts when committed within the scope of employment?

128
Q

When is an employer liable for an employee’s intentional torts (2 OR)?

A
  • tort is authorized, or
  • use of force is authorized (ex: bouncer)
129
Q

Do small detours from an employer’s directions fall within the scope of employment?

130
Q

Do major deviations from an employer’s directions fall within the scope of employment?

131
Q

Can you limit liability for the torts of employees by making an agreement that you will not be held liable?

A

No, this cannot limit an employer’s liability.

132
Q

When is an employer liable for torts committed by independent contractors (2 OR)?

A
  • employer authorized the act, or
  • ultrahazardous activity
133
Q

What is the major difference between a surety and a guarantor?

A

A surety can be held liable for a debt before attempting to collect from the principal or exhausting other legal remedies.

134
Q

What is exoneration?

A

The surety compels the debtor to pay the creditor when they have the capability to pay but refuse to.

135
Q

What three rights does a surety have against the principal debtor? Which of these come before the surety pays the creditor and which come after?

A
  • exoneration (before)
  • subrogation (after)
  • reimbursement (after)
136
Q

What is subrogation?

A

After paying the creditor, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor to collect from the debtor (priority in bankruptcy, etc.).

137
Q

What is reimbursement for a surety?

A

They can bring a lawsuit against the principal debtor to get their payment back.

138
Q

What are co-sureties?

A

2+ sureties of the same obligation who are jointly and severally liable for the obligation

139
Q

What two rights do co-sureties have against their other co-sureties? Which of these come before the surety pays the creditor and which come after?

A
  • exoneration (before)
  • contribution (after)
140
Q

What is the end goal of both exoneration and contribution (co-sureties)?

A

get people to pay their pro-rata share

141
Q

If the agreement does not specify the dollar amount that each surety is liable for, how do you determine the liability of each co-surety?

A

pro-rata, based on the number of solvent sureties

142
Q

The maximum amount a creditor can recover from sureties is the lesser of what two numbers?

A
  • the amount promised by the co-sureties, and
  • the settlement amount (remaining debt balance)
143
Q

If the default amount and settlement amounts are different, which value should be used to determine the payment to a creditor?

A

settlement amount

144
Q

The surety can use asa defense that the (principal debtor/creditor) was a bad guy (acting in bad faith, duress, etc.).

A

creditor, not the principal debtor (They entered into an agreement with the principal debtor, and were expected to do their due diligence.)

144
Q

Is the surety liable if the debtor offers to pay, but the creditor declines it and then goes after the surety?

A

No, this discharges the principal obligation.

145
Q

If the creditor releases the principal debtor’s obligation, is the surety still liable?

146
Q

When is an unpaid surety bound, since the general rule is that surety agreements should be supported by legal consideration?

A

Bound if they agreed to be a surety as a condition that allowed the creditor to give money the borrower. (agreement before the loan)

147
Q

When does a variation of a contract release a compensated surety?

A

only when the change is material and increases their risk of loss

147
Q

When does a variation of a contract release a gratuitous surety?

A

anytime the surety’s risk is changed (good or bad)

148
Q

If the principal debtor and creditor agree to extend the time to payment, is a free surety discharged? Is a compensated surely discharged?

A

Same idea as before. Free is discharged for any change. Compensated is only discharged if material and increases risk of loss.

149
Q

If the extension of time to pay is just a few days (delay in collection), are the sureties discharged?

150
Q

Is the surety released if the principal debtor becomes bankrupt or incapacitated?

A

No, this is the whole reason there is a surety in place!

150
Q

Is the surety released if the principal debtor defrauded the surety? Are there any exceptions to the rule?

A

No, only if the creditor knows of the lie.

151
Q

What are two alternatives to going to bankruptcy court?

A
  • creditors’ composition
  • make an assigment for benefit of creditors
152
Q

What is a creditor’s composition?

A

2+ creditors gathered and the debtor makes an offer for how much they can pay in full settlement of the debt

153
Q

What is an assignment for benefit of creditors?

A

Debtor transfers property to a trustee who disposes the property and distributes money to the creditors.

154
Q

Does a creditor’s composition result in discharge from the remaining unpaid balance?

155
Q

Does an assignment for benefit of creditors result in discharge from the remaining unpaid balance?

A

No, because the creditors do not agree to the discharge.

156
Q

What legal options does a creditor have when the debtor defaults but there is no surety and no collateral?

A
  • judicial lien
  • garnishment
157
Q

What is a lien?

A

issuing a writ to a local sheriff to seize a property held by the debtor, sell it, and turn over the proceeds to the creditor

157
Q

What is garnishment?

A

orders the person holding a debtor’s property (a third party) to turn it over to the creditor

158
Q

What is a prejudgment attachment? Does this happen before or after judgment?

A

before the final judgement
If they believe the debtor will not pay, attach a writ of attachment to the property and seize it so that it can be sold if the creditor prevails.

159
Q

When does the homestead exemption NOT apply (3)?

A
  • PMSI in personal property (because you are agreeing they can take it back)
  • purchase money mortgages against real property
  • failing to pay taxes
160
Q

Can social security payments held by the government be garnished?

A

No, but SS held by you (already paid to you) can be taken.

161
Q

What is a mechanic/artisan’s lien? What is the value? How long does it last?

A

If a mechanic/artisan works on a property for you, they have a lien on it (up to the price of the repairs) as long as they hold onto the property

162
Q

What is a fraudulent conveyance?

A

attempting to hide your property by selling it off so that creditor’s cannot take it
(property is transferred with the intent to hinder, delay, or defraud creditors)

163
Q

What does the fair debt collection practice act do (FDCPA)?

A

curb abuses by collection agencies in collecting consumer debts

164
Q

Does the FDCPA protect from creditor efforts to collect on debts?

A

No, it only protects from credit agencies.

165
Q

A collection agency can contact third person’s only to ask about what? What can they not disclose (2)?

A

They can only ask about their whereabouts.
They cannot disclose that this is a collection agency, or that the debtor owes a debt.

166
Q

Can the debtor be contacted directly by a collection agency if they have an attorney representing them?

A

No, they have to talk to the attorney.

167
Q

Can the collection agency call someone’s employer if the employer says they no longer want to receive the calls?

168
Q

A debtor can notify the collection agency in writing of what two things to get them to stop trying to collect?

A
  • they will not pay the debt, and
  • stop further communication
169
Q

What amount of award can a debtor collect under a violation of the FDCPA?

170
Q

Collateral includes what type of property?

A

personal property that the credit can take possession of

171
Q

What two types of transactions can be secured transactions?

A
  • borrowing on a loan and assigning some security interest to it, or
  • buying an item on credit (the security interest is the item purchased)
172
Q

A security interest is effective between two parties as soon as the interest ____. What does this not provide rights to, however?

A

attaches; if there are multiple third parties with an interest, it does not give you a right over them.

173
Q

What do you need to do to gain rights over third parties to the subject of a security interest?

A

perfect the interest

174
Q

What is perfection of a security interest, in simple words?

A

a form of notice that this creditor has a security interest and that their security interest is superior

175
Q

Can wage claims (garnishment), land security interest (mortgage), and statutory liens (mechanic lien) be subject to Article 9 of the UCC over secured transactions?

176
Q

What types of agreements give rise to a PMSI?

A
  • creditor sells the item to the debtor on credit (retaining a security interest in the item), OR
  • creditor lends the debtor the money to purchase the collateral
177
Q

What is special about a PMSI?

A

has priority over all other types of security interests, if properly perfected

178
Q

The category that a piece of collateral falls into depends on (how the debtor uses the item/the nature of the item).

A

how the debtor uses the item.

179
Q

What are the four broad categories of collateral?

A
  • goods
  • intangible collateral
  • investment property, and
  • proceeds from disposition of collateral
180
Q

Attachement is completed when what three requirements are satisfied?

A
  • agreement of the secured property, AND
  • creditor gives value (the loan), AND
  • debtor has rights to the collateral (title or possession)
181
Q

Can the agreement for a security interest be oral?

A

Yes, only if the credits takes possession of the collateral.

182
Q

If a security agreement is in writing, who needs to sign it?

A

the debtor (who would be sued for payment in case of default)

183
Q

Can a creditor obtain a security interest in property acquired after the loan?

184
Q

What are some duties of the secured creditor after attachment?
- … when the debt is paid
- confirm …, and
- use reasonable care to …

A
  • send a termination statement when the debt is paid
  • confirm the unpaid amount through statements
  • use reasonable care to preserve any collateral in the creditor’s possession
185
Q

Can you perfect an interest before you attach it?

A

No, you must attach it first.

186
Q

What are the five methods of perfecting a security interest?

A
  • filing
  • taking possession of collateral
  • control
  • automatic perfection
  • temporary perfection
187
Q

What do you file when perfecting the security interest by filing?

A

a financing statement

188
Q

What information does the financing statement give?

A
  • names and addresses of the debtor and creditor
  • indication of type of collateral covered
189
Q

Do the debtor and creditor need to sign the financing statement?

190
Q

Does the financing statement need to include a copy of the security agreement or terms of the loan?

191
Q

Does the debtor need to give authorization for the creditor to file the financing statement?

A

Yes, either explicitly or implied.

192
Q

If you file a financing statement on Jan 1, and the interest attaches on Feb 1, what is the date of perfection?

A

Feb 1 (perfection cannot be before attachment)

193
Q

Can you take possession to perfect a security interest for intangible items?

A

No, for this you take control. Possession only applies to tangible items.

194
Q

What are two ways to demonstrate control over an intangible asset?

A
  • possession of certificate, or
  • notice to the broker
195
Q

A secured creditor is considered to have control when they can …

A

sell the item without further action from the owner (debtor)

196
Q

What two items can be automatically perfected?

A
  • PMSI In consumer goods (personal use)
  • small-scale assignment of accounts (A/R)
197
Q

T/F: A PMSI in inventory or equipment is automatically perfected.

A

False, you need to file.

198
Q

What does temporary perfection apply to? How long is the period?

A

proceeds from sold collateral, for 20 days

199
Q

What do you have to do before the 20-day temporary perfection period ends?

A

re-file for new collateral

200
Q

If the debtor moves to another state, the perfection is valid for how many months before needing to re-file?

A

four months

201
Q

A secured creditor can take the collateral and sell it on their own only if …

A

there is no breach of the peace.

202
Q

If the secured creditor is about to sell the asset, what do they need to do?

A

provide a notice to sale to the debtor and other 3rd parties

203
Q

Does the secured creditor have to sell the secured asset?

204
Q

A sale of collateral wipes out all ____ interests.

A

subordinate

205
Q

The person purchasing a collateral takes the asset free of ___ interests, but still is subject to ___ interests.

A

subordinate, superior

206
Q

If the creditor says they are about to sell, can the debtor stop the sale by paying off their indebtedness before the sale?

A

Yes, as long as they also pay the additional costs of the sale (like an auction that was going to happen).

207
Q

What is the order of where proceeds go to in a sale of collateral?

A

(1) pay expenses of repossession and sale
(2) pay creditors with a security interest in the collateral (in order of priority)
(3) surplus to debtor

208
Q

What happens if the sale of collateral does not bring in enough money to pay off all creditors?

A

The creditors will have to go to court and sue.

209
Q

If a secured creditor wants to keep the collateral of a consumer debt, do they keep it in full or partial satisfaction of the debt?

A

full satisfaction

210
Q

If a secured creditor wants to keep the collateral of a non-consumer debt, do they keep it in full or partial satisfaction of the debt?

A

full, or partial (based on FMV of the item)

211
Q

When is a sale of the collateral required? In how many days do they need to pay?

A

consumer goods, where debtor paid at least 60% of the loan, must pay within 90 days of repossession