R4, M1-M4 Flashcards

1
Q

What acronym tells you what Circular 230 addresses?

A

ADS Rules

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2
Q

What does Circular 230 address?

A

A - Rules governing authority to practice before the IRS
D - Duties and restrictions relating to practice before the IRS
S - Sanctions for violations of the regulations
Rules - Rules applicable to disciplinary hearings

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3
Q

What does “practice” in front of the IRS entail (3 OR)?

A
  • communicating with the IRS for a taxpayer
  • representing a taxpayer, or
  • preparing and filing necessary documents with the IRS for a taxpayer
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4
Q

Who has authority to practice in front of the IRS?

A
  • attorneys
  • CPAs
  • enrolled agents
  • enrolled actuaries
  • enrolled retirement plan agents
  • registered tax return preparers
  • other persons
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5
Q

Which people with the authority to practice before the IRS have unlimited representation rights?

A

attorneys, CPAs, enrolled agents

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6
Q

What does it mean to have unlimited representation rights?

A

need not have prepared and signed your return to represent you

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7
Q

If the IRS asks you for information about the taxpayer, when do you have to disclose it and when do you not have to disclose it?

A

No disclosure if information is priveleged.
Otherwise, must disclose.

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8
Q

What if you do not have the information that the IRS is asking for?

A

You must tell if the IRS if you know of someone else that possessing the information they are requesting.

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9
Q

What must the practitioner do if they become aware of a client’s noncompliance or error with the federal tax law?

A

(1) Notify the client orally or in writing.
(2) Advise the client of the consequences of the error/omission/non-compliance.

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10
Q

T/F: If a practitioner becomes aware of a client’s noncompliance or error, they must withdraw from the client until the error is corrected.

A

False, they do not need to immediately withdraw.

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11
Q

T/F: If a practitioner becomes aware of a client’s noncompliance or error, they must notify the IRS.

A

False, they do not notify the IRS.

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12
Q

How does a practitioner show that they exercised due diligence when relying on the work product of another person?

A

if they used reasonable care with respect to their reliance (check work, ask questions, etc.)

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13
Q

Can you accept help from someone who is under disbarment or suspended from practice before the IRS?

A

No!

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14
Q

If you employ an ex-IRS employee and there are conflicts of interest, what must the employer do in order to still represent the client?

A

isolate the former government employee from the representation

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15
Q

If the government employee (ex-IRS) personally and substantially participated in a particular matter, what restrictions must be placed on the ex-IRS employee?

A

can never represent or assist those parties

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16
Q

If the government employee (ex-IRS) had “official responsibility” for a particular matter, what restrictions must be placed on the ex-IRS employee?

A

cannot represent those parties for two years

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17
Q

If the government employee (ex-IRS) participated in the development of a rule, what restrictions must be placed on the ex-IRS employee?

A

cannot appeal before the IRS regarding that rule for 1 year

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18
Q

Can a practitioner also be a notary for a client?

A

No.

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19
Q

What is an unconscionable fee?

A

a fee that is grossly unfair relative to industry standard

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20
Q

A contingent fee is allowed in what three situations before the IRS?

A
  • IRS examination (audit) of original tax return
  • claim for a refund of interest and/or penalties
  • judicial proceeding
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21
Q

In regards to client information, the practioner owes the client a dury of ____.

A

confidentiality

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22
Q

If there is a fee dispute between the practitioner and client, is this a valid reason to not return client records?

A

No.

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23
Q

Can a practitioner keep the originals of client records? Can they keep copies?

A

They can keep copies, but not originals.

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24
Q

Client records include what two things?

A
  • materials prepared by the client or a third party that you rely upon to do the job, and
  • any return, claim for refund, or document prepared by the practitioner
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25
Q

What types of documents must be returned to the client?

A

Documents that are necessary to comply with federal tax obligations.

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26
Q

If state law allows a practitioner to retain client records in case of fee dispute, what records must still be returned? What other privilege must the practitioner provide to the client for the other records?

A
  • must return any documents that must be attached to the tax return (anything filed with the return)
  • provide the client with reasonable access to review and copy records, if they are necessary to comply with federal tax obligations
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27
Q

You cannot represent a client before the IRS if there is a conflict of interest (between the clients, spouses, partners represented) unless three things are met?

A
  • believes they can competently represent each of the clients, AND
  • not precluded by state or federal law, AND
  • each client waices the conflict of interest and gives their written consent to this agreement
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28
Q

What is the essential thing to understand about advertising and solicitation of business?

A

no false or misleading information

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29
Q

If a practitioner advertises a fee schedule, the fees need to be honored for how many days?

A

at least 30 days after the last date the fees were publicized

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30
Q

Copies of your advertisements (fee schedule) and the mailing list must be retained for how long?

A

3 years

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31
Q

Can a practitioner endorse or negotiate a refund check issued to a client?

A

No!

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32
Q

What does it mean to endorse or negotiate a refund check?

A

handling the check in any way (cashing, depositing, signing)

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33
Q

Is there anything a practitioner can do with a client’s refund check?

A

hold it for safekeeping only

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34
Q

A practitioner cannot advise a client to take a position unless that position is ___ ______.

A

not frivolous

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35
Q

Can you advise a client to submit a document to the IRS that intentionally disregards a rule or regulation?

A

Only if the practitioner believes in good faith that he or she can challenge the rule or regulation.

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36
Q

What responsibility does a practitioner have in order to rely on information furnished by the client?

A

They can rely, unless there are any red flags (incorrect, inconsistent, incomplete).

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37
Q

For written advice, what three things must be done?

A
  • consider all relevant facts and circumstances
  • not rely on representations unless they are reasonable
  • not take into consideration the fact that the return may not be audited
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38
Q

Federal tax matters include what two things?

A

IRC laws and regulations

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39
Q

What standard is used to determine whether someone is acting in good faith?

A

reasonable practitioner standard (What would a reasonable practitioner in a similar situation do?)

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40
Q

What three things must an employer do to ensure that procedures are followed to ensure compliance with Circular 230?

A

disseminate, educate, and test employees

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41
Q

A practitioner that is disbarred or suspended may petition for reinstatment after how many years?

A

5 years

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42
Q

Reinstatement will not be granted unless what two criteria are met?

A
  • IRS believes that they will not engage in conduct contrary to Circular 230 again, and
  • reinstatement is not contrary to public interest
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43
Q

What is a tax return preparer?

A

any person who prepares or employs others to prepare for compensation any required federal tax return or claim for federal tax refund

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44
Q

A tax return preparer needs to have what?

A

a PTIN (identification number)

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45
Q

What four types of people are NOT tax return preparers?

A
  • only does clerical work, like data entry, soliciting information, etc.
  • prepares are return for their employer
  • prepares a return for free (volunteer)
  • prepares a return as a fiduciary (trustee, executor of estate)
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46
Q

Do PTIN holders with no other credentials have the ability to represent clients before the IRS?

A

No.

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47
Q

Who is a signing tax return preparer?

A

has primary responsibility for the overall accuracy of the return/claim for refund

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48
Q

Who is a non-signing tax return preparer?

A

not the signing tax preparer, but prepares a substantial portion of the return or offers advice to a taxpayer

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49
Q

Which authoritative sources can be used for determining whether there is substantial authority for tax treatment of an item?

A

primary sources only

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50
Q

What is included in primary authoritative sources?

A
  • IRC
  • Treasury regulations
  • revenue rulings
  • revenue procedures
  • court cases
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51
Q

What is the relationship between the terms “listed transaction” and “reportable transaction”?

A

A reportable transaction is a type of listed transaction.

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52
Q

What is a listed transaction?

A

reportable transaction that is similar to a transaction identified by the Secretary of the Treasury as a tax avoidance transaction

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53
Q

Is tax avoidance legal? Is tax evasion legal?

A

Tax avoidance is legal, tax evasion is not legal.

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54
Q

What is a reportable transaction?

A

required to be included with a return or statement because it has potential for tax avoidance or tax evasion

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55
Q

What is ordinary negligence in the context of tax preparer compliance penalties?

A

failure to make a reasonable attempt to comply with provisions of the IRC

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56
Q

A taxpayer fails to keep adequate books and records is a common example of what?

A

ordinary neglience

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57
Q

Name the four standards (% likelihood that court will uphold position) from highest to lowest.

A
  • Frivolous
  • Reasonable Basis
  • Substantial Authority
  • More Likely Than Not
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58
Q

What is the reasonable basis standard (%)?

A

20% - 40%
likelihood that a tax position will be upheld by the courts

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59
Q

What is the substantial authority standard (%)?

A

40% - 50% likelihood that a tax position will be upheld by the courts

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60
Q

What is the more likely than not standard (%)?

A

greater than 50% likelihood that a tax position will be upheld by the courts

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61
Q

An undisclosed position must at least meet what standard to NOT be deemed unreasonable?

A

substantial authority

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62
Q

A disclosed position must at least meet what standard to NOT be deemed unreasonable?

A

reasonable basis

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63
Q

A tax shelter/reportable transaction must at least meet what standard to NOT be deemed unreasonable?

A

more likely than not

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64
Q

If a disclosed position you take is contrary to U.S. Treasury regulations, what form are they reported on?

A

Form 8275-R (contRaRy)

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65
Q

If a disclosed position you take is NOT contrary to U.S. Treasury regulations, what form are they reported on?

A

Form 8275

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66
Q

Does the tax preparer penalty for understatement due to unreasonable position apply if you understated intentionally?

A

No, this is only for ordinary negligence (no intent).

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67
Q

What is the amount of the penalty for understatement due to unreasonable position?

A

Greater of:
- $1,000, or
- 50% of income received for tax preparation services

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68
Q

Does the tax preparer penalty for understatement due to willful or reckless conduct apply if you understated intentionally?

A

Yes, this is for fraud.

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69
Q

The penalty for understatement due to willful or reckless conduct is reduced by …

A

the penalty for understatement due to unreasonable position

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69
Q

What is the penalty amount for understatement due to willful or reckless conduct?

A

The greater of:
$5,000, or
75% of income that preparer received

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70
Q

When does the Failure to Provide Copy of Return to Taxpayer not apply to the tax preparer?

A

failure is due to reasonable cause, not willfully neglect

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70
Q

What is the maxium penalty allowed from the $60 category (tax preparer penalties for unethical behavior)?

A

$31,500

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71
Q

What documents is the tax preparer required to retain and for how long?

A

copy of return or client list, for three years

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72
Q

What is the penalty for negotiation or endorsing a refund check?

A

$635 per check endorsed

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73
Q

What is the penalty for Failure to be Diligent in Determining Client’s Eligibility for the Earned Income Credit?

A

$635 per failure

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73
Q

What is unique about the parties that the penalty for Aiding and Abetting Understatement of Tax Liability applies to?

A

applies to anyone, not just the tax return preparer

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74
Q

What is unique about the burden of proof for the penalty for Aiding and Abetting Understatement of Tax Liability?

A

IRS has the burden of proof.

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74
Q

What is the general rule for who has burden of proof in a civil tax case (not fraud)?

A

the taxpayer

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75
Q

Who has burden of proof in a civil fraud tax case?

A

the IRS

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76
Q

What level of evidence is needed in a civil tax case (not fraud)?

A

preponderance of the evidence

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77
Q

What level of evidence is needed in a civil or criminal tax case (fraud)?

A

beyond a reasonable doubt

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78
Q

What level of evidence is needed in a civil tax case for aiding and abetting?

A

preponderance of the evidence

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79
Q

What types of penalties are there for a civil case (monetary, jail time, etc.)?

A

monetary only

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80
Q

What types of penalties are there for a civil fraud or criminal case (monetary, jail time, etc.)?

A

monetary and jail time

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81
Q

What is the penalty for aiding and abetting understatement of tax liability for individuals? For corporations?

A

Individuals: $1,000
Corporations: $10,000

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82
Q

What are the three broad categories of misconduct sufficient to induce disciplinary action?

A
  • while performing accounting services
  • outside of the scope of accounting services
  • criminal conviction
83
Q

What is the penalty per violation of Wrongful Disclosure and/or Use of Tax Return Information and the maximum annual penalty?

A

$250 for each violation, maximum annual penalty of $10,000

84
Q

State boards of accountancy have the sole power to ___, ___, or ____ your ______.

A

grant, suspend, or revoke
license

84
Q

In what six situations is it okay to disclose client information?

A
  • IRC says
  • disclosure for enforceable subpoena (court order)
  • allowable uses (state and local returns, declaration of estimated tax)
  • peer and quality reviews
  • administrative orders
  • client consents to disclosure
85
Q

Negligence, fraud, dishonesty, etc. - this falls into which of the three categories of misconduct?

A

misconduct while performing accounting services

86
Q

Intoxication that impairs ability to perform accounting services, insanity, etc. - this falls into which of the three categories of misconduct?

A

misconduct outside the scope of acctg services

87
Q

Commission of a felony, failure to file tax returns, crimes related to practice of accounting - this falls into which of the three categories of misconduct?

A

criminal conviction

88
Q

What level of proof is required to prove that an accountant’s actions constituted professional misconduct in a state board hearing?

A

more likely than not

89
Q

Do you get judicial review for an adverse state board decision?

89
Q

Due process is generally required when the penalty includes what three things?

A
  • loss of license,
  • monetary fine, and/or
  • jail time
90
Q

Is due process or judicial review required for a state board review?

91
Q

Is due process or judicial review required for a state society or AICPA review?

A

No, because they cannot take your license.

92
Q

What five penalties may a state board of accountancy impose for professional misconduct?

A
  • suspension or revocation of license
  • monetary fine
  • reprimand or censure
  • probation
  • CPE courses
92
Q

Membership is (voluntary/involuntary) for the AICPA.

93
Q

What does the JEEP (joint ethics enforcement program) do?

A

AICPA and state societies have come together to enforce codes of conduct by means of a single investigation and action (share investigative information)

94
Q

Can the AICPA or state CPA society revoke your CPA license?

95
Q

Can the AICPA or state CPA society terminate your membership?

96
Q

Can the AICPA or state CPA society fine you?

97
Q

What three things can the AICPA or state CPA society do to sanction you?

A
  • expulsion from AICPA or state CPA society
  • suspension of membership
  • require CPE courses as a remedial measure
  • censure you in a membership periodical (notice of disciplinary action)
98
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty that can be imposed by the IRS on an individual? (fines and jail time)

A

3 years, $100K

99
Q

What is the maximum criminal penalty that can be imposed by the IRS on a corporation? (fines and jail time)

A

$500K, no jail time for a corporation

100
Q

What two civil penalties can the IRS impose?

A
  • fines
  • prohibit from practicing before the IRS
101
Q

Does the SEC prosecute criminal cases?

A

No, they can only investigate them.

102
Q

What two civil penalties can the SEC impose?

A
  • fines (100K for individual, 500K for company)
  • suspend or revoke right to practice before the SEC
    (same as for IRS)
103
Q

If the IRS examines your return, this is the same thing as saying that the IRS is doing an ____.

104
Q

What mnemonic can you use to remember the five ways returns are selected for an audit?

A

Some Really Persistent IRS Detectives

105
Q

What does each item in the mnemonic “Some Really Persistent IRS Detectives” stand for (selection of returns for audit)?

A

S - Statistical Models
R - Random Selection
P - Prior Audit
I - Information Return Discrepancy
D - Deductions that Exceed Established Norms

106
Q

Most individual returns are audited within ___ years from the filing of the return.

106
Q

What is the statute of limitations for an IRS audit of your return if you committed fraud?

A

No expiration of the SoL.

107
Q

What are the three types of audits performed by the IRS?

A
  • correspondence
  • office
  • field
108
Q

What is a correspondence audit? Is there a formal meeting with the IRS?

A

Audit that finds information or math errors (not complex). There is no formal meeting with the IRS.

109
Q

Are penalties or interest owed as a result of a correspondence audit?

110
Q

Who conducts an office audit? Is there a formal meeting with the IRS?

A
  • an IRS Revenue agent
  • not really a formal meeting (in office or via correspondence)
111
Q

Who conducts a field audit?

A

IRS representative

112
Q

Where does a field audit take place?

A

the taxpayer’s office, home, or place of business of the taxpayer’s representative

113
Q

If there are unresolved issues in an IRS audit, what is the next step?

A

Taxpayer receives 30-day letter.

114
Q

What options does a taxpayer have after receiving a 30-day letter (3)?

A
  • accept the IRS’s position, or
  • request an administrative appeal with an appeals officer, or
  • ignore and receive a 90-day letter
115
Q

What is one good thing about going to the U.S. Tax Court? What is one downside?

A

Good: No need to pay deficiency before going to court
Bad: No jury trial

115
Q

If you cannot come to an agreement in the administrative appeals process, what is the next step?

A

issuance of a 90-day letter

116
Q

If an agreement is reached in the administrative appeals process, what form is signed? What does this do?

A

870-AD, waives right to appeal

116
Q

Fast-track remediation (appeals process) is available for what two types of taxpayers?

A

small business owners and self-employed individuals

116
Q

What options do you have once you receive a 90-day letter?

A
  • pay the deficiency, or
  • file a petition with the U.S. tax court
117
Q

What is required in order for a case to be heard in U.S. District Courts or U.S. Court of Federal Claims?

A

pay the tax deficiency first

117
Q

What are the three trial courts?

A
  • U.S. Tax Court
  • U.S. District Courts
  • U.S. Court of Federal Claims
117
Q

Is the judge in a U.S. Tax Court a tax expert or not?

A

tax expert

118
Q

Jury trial is an option in which of the three trial courts?

A

U.S. District Court only

119
Q

What does an appellate court do exactly? What do they explicitly not do?

A

Review the lower court decision to see if they applied the law properly.
They do NOT hear the case all over again.

120
Q

The Small Cases Division of the U.S. Tax Court can be used for disputes not exceeding $_____.

121
Q

Can you appeal a decision of the Small Cases Division?

122
Q

Can you use the decision of the Small Cases Division as precedent?

123
Q

How many judges hear your case in U.S. Tax Court?

124
Q

What are the two types of U.S. Tax Court decisions?

A
  • Regular Decision
  • Memorandum Decision
125
Q

When is a regular decision issued?

A

involves a new or unusual point of law

126
Q

When is a memorandum decision issued?

A

concerns application of exisiting law or interpretation of facts

127
Q

How many judges hear a U.S. district court case?

128
Q

Is the judge in a U.S. district court case a tax expert?

129
Q

How many judges are in the Court of Federal Claims?

130
Q

U.S. Tax Court decisions get appealed to what court?

A

District Court of Appeals

131
Q

U.S. District Court decisions get appealed to what court?

A

District Court of Appeals

132
Q

U.S. Court of Federal Claims decisions get appealed to what court?

A

U.S. Circuit Court of Appeals

133
Q

What court is at the highest level of appeal?

A

Supreme Court

134
Q

How many judges are on the Supreme Court?

A

nine judges

135
Q

What is the Earned Income Credit Penalty for a taxpayer?

A

restricts them from claiming the credit from 2 to 10 years (if fraudulent)

136
Q

From what date to what date does the penalty for failure to make sufficient estimated income tax payments accrue?

A

date that estimated income tax should have been paid (quarterly dates) until the tax return due date

137
Q

If you have an extension to file to October 15, does the penalty for estimated payments accrue to this date?

A

No, it stops at April 15.

138
Q

If you make estimated current year tax payments based on the “annualization of income” method, can you get away with paying less than your tax liability?

A

Yes, no penalty is assessed.

139
Q

What is the failure to file penalty amount (%) and maximum?

A

5% per month or partial month that return is late, for maximum of 25%

140
Q

If you file on May 28 (without an extension), what is the penalty percentage for failure to file?

A

April 15 to May 15 = 1 month
May 15 to May 28 = partial month (counts as 1 full month for penalty)

2 months * 5% = 10%

141
Q

What is the penalty for failure to file if you file more than 60 days late?

A

lesser of $510 or 100% of tax due

142
Q

Can you have a failure to file penalty if no tax is due?

143
Q

If both the failure to file and failure to pay penalty are due, how does this affect the failure to file penalty assessed?

A

It is reduced by the amount of the failure-to-pay penalty.

144
Q

What is the failure to file penalty for a partnership or S corp?

A

($245 for each month or partial month, up to a maximum of 12 months) * number of partners

145
Q

What is the % penalty (and maximum) for the failure to pay penalty? On what base is it assessed?

A
  • 0.5% per month (or partial month) up to 25%
  • on unpaid tax
145
Q

If you file an extended return, how can you avoid the failure to pay penalty?

A
  • pay at leat 90% by April 15, and
  • pay remaining by October 15
146
Q

When is the Negligence Penalty with Respect to Understatement of Tax assessed?

A

fail to exercise reasonable care to comply with tax law

147
Q

What is the % and base of the Negligence Penalty with Respect to Understatement of Tax?

A

20% of the understatement

148
Q

How does the Penalty with Respect to Substantial Understatement of Tax compare and differ from the Negligence Penalty with Respect to Understatement of Tax?

A

The penalty amount is the same at 20%, but the substantial understatement is a lot harder to avoid.

149
Q

How is a substantial understatement defined for a non-corporation?
Understatement exceeds greater of:
- ___% of correct tax (___% if understatement due to overstated QBI deduction), or
- $____

A

10%, 5% (QBI), $5,000

150
Q

How is a substantial understatement defined for a corporation (other than PHC)?
Understatement exceeds lesser of:
- $____
- The greater of: $____ or ___% of the correct tax

A

Understatement exceeds lesser of:
- $10M
- The greater of: $10K or 10% of the correct tax

151
Q

What are defenses to the substantial valuation misstatement penalty?

A

that you made a good faith investigation of value (qualified appraisals, etc.)

152
Q

The penalty for substantial valuation misstatement is what ___% of _____ if understatement exceeds $__ ($__ for corps)

A

20% of the understatement, excees $5K or 10K for corps

153
Q

The penalty for substantial valuation misstatement cannot be imposed in addition to what two other penalties?

A

negligence penalty, substantial understatement penalty

154
Q

What is the civil fraud penalty?

A

75% of understatement due to fraud

155
Q

What is the criminal fraud penalty (individuals and corporations)?

A

Individuals: 100K
Corporations: 500K

156
Q

Does disclosure of a frivolous position help a taxpayer or preparer avoid penalties?

157
Q

When does a reasonable basis help a taxpayer avoid penalties for a substantial understatement?

A

when disclosed

158
Q

Do tax articles and treatises count as substantial authority?

159
Q

A taxpayer can generally avoid penalties by showing that the taxpayer … (3 AND)

A
  • had reasonable cause to support the tax return position
  • acted in good faith, and
  • did not have willful neglect
160
Q

Interest is applied on which three penalties?

A
  • failure to file
  • failure to pay
  • negligence or fraudulent understatement
161
Q

Interest begins to accrue from what date?

A

tax return due date (or extended due date)

162
Q

Interest for underpaid tax begins to accrue from what date?

A

the date tax was due (quarterly payment) to April 15

163
Q

U.S. persons have to report certain financial accounts located outside of the state by filing a …

A

Report of Foreign Bank and Financial Accounts (FBAR)

164
Q

If the value of your foreign accounts is $12,000 in July, but $8,000 on December 31, do you still file an FBAR?

A

Yes, because it exceeded $10K during the year.

164
Q

When must a U.S. person file an FBAR (2 AND)?

A
  • financial interest (or signature or other authority) over any financial account maintained with a financial institution located outside of the U.S., and
  • aggregate value of account(s) exceeds $10,000 at any time during the calendar year
165
Q

How should you convert the value from foreign to US dollars to see whether it goes over the 10K limit?

A

(1) Find the highest value of the account during the year, in the foreign currency.
(2) Apply the exchange rate as of the end of the year to this amount.

166
Q

If a foreign account is jointly owned, does each person report their half of the account?

A

No, they each report the entire value.

166
Q

How long should you retain records about information on your foreign accounts?

167
Q

To prove that a tax preparer was negligent, what four criteria need to be met?

A
  • tax preparer owed a duty to the taxpayer
  • tax preparer breached their duty
  • tax payer suffered damages
  • breach was the proximate cause of damages to the taxpayer
168
Q

Who can sue you for breach of contract? What is the term for this?

A

only the other party to the contract (or a named third-party beneficiary)
This is called privity.

169
Q

What is your best defense to a lawsuit that says you breached the contract?

A

“The client did not cooperate with me.”

170
Q

Ordinary negligence falls into what category of torts?

A

unintentional torts

171
Q

Gross negligence falls into what category of torts? What is another name for gross negligence?

A

intentional torts, constructive fraud

172
Q

Can punitive damages be assessed for constructive fraud?

173
Q

What is the difference between fraud and constructive fraud?

A

Constructive fraud lacks scienter (intent to decieve). Instead, they act recklessly or are grossly negligent.

174
Q

What acronym tells you the elements of fraud?

174
Q

What does MAIDS stand for (elements of fraud)?

A

Material misrepresentation
Actual and reasonable reliance on misrepresentation
Intent to induce reliance
Damages
Scienter

175
Q

What is the best defense if you are being sued for ordinary negligence?

A

“I did my due diligence (shown through workpapers).”

176
Q

In a civil case, the burden of proof usually lies with the (defendant/plaintiff)?

A

plaintiff (the person that brought the lawsuit)

177
Q

Does privity of contract apply in a negligence case?

A

No, unless you belong to a minority of states that follow the Ultramares decision.

178
Q

What does the Ultramares decision say?

A

CPA is liable to the person in privity of contract and intended (known) third-party beneficiaries.

179
Q

A CPA generally owes a duty of care to which parties?

A
  • client
  • any person or limited foreseeable class of persons who will rely on the CPAs work
180
Q

In a fraud case, to whom is the CPA liable?

A

anyone who can prove the elements

181
Q

What is the best defense if you are charged with constructive fraud?

A

“I tried to act in good faith. I was not grossly neglient, only ordinarily negligent.”

182
Q

What are three potential priveleges (priveleged communications) CPAs can be in?

A
  • attorney-client privilege
  • work product privilege
  • tax practitioner-taxpayer privilege
183
Q

When does a CPA acquire attorney-client privelege?

A

when an attorney engages a CPA to help them in a court case

184
Q

What is work product privelege? What does it protect? What does it not protect?

A
  • protects tangible materials produced when you are preparing for litigation while helping an attorney
  • does not protect communication between the attorney and accountant (this must be protected by A-C privilege)
185
Q

The tax practitioner privelege only applies to what type of tax practitioners?

A

federally authorized tax practitioners

186
Q

Who are included in federally authorized tax practitioners?

A

CPAs, enrolled agents, enrolled actuaries

187
Q

Does tax practitioner-taxpayer privelege apply in criminal cases? Civil cases?

A

Civil cases only, not criminal cases and not cases about tax shelters.

188
Q

Who do workpapers belong to, the accountant or the client?

A

the accountant, not the client

189
Q

Can an accountant show (not turnover) workpapers to someone else without violating confidentiality?

A

Yes, in certain situations. Otherwise, they need client permission

190
Q

Can the accountant give workpapers to a purchaser of the practice without the client’s permission?

A

No, but they can show them the workpapers.

191
Q

What mnenomic can you use to remember the situations where an accountant can show workpapers without the client’s permission?

A

“Some People Stay Loyal In General.”

192
Q

What does “some” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

subpoena in court case

193
Q

What does “people” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

prospective purchaser of practice (do not disclose confidential info)

194
Q

What does “stay” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

state CPA society quality review

195
Q

What does “loyal” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

lawsuit brought by the client against you

196
Q

What does “in” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

investigation by the AICPA/state trial board

197
Q

What does “general” stand for in the mnemonic for the accountant showing workpapers?

A

GAAP requires disclosure