Quizzes Flashcards
1
Q
A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual’s
A
Internal balance and stabilization
2
Q
The OPT model is broken into which three levels?
A
Stabilization, strength, and power
3
Q
The power training level of the OPT model strives to MOST improve
A
Rate of force production
4
Q
Which phases of training comprise the strength level of the OPT model?
A
Strength-endurance training, hypertrophy training, maximal strength training
5
Q
Which phase of the OPT model supersets a barbell bench press with a medicine ball chest pass?
A
Power training
6
Q
A healthy total cholesterol level is
A
Less than 200 mg/dL
7
Q
Of the leading causes of death in the United States, _____ was caused by cardiovascular disease and cancer, and nearly 80% of these deaths could have been prevented if a healthy lifestyle was followed.
A
57%
8
Q
At present _____ of Americans older than age 20 are overweight, and of these, 34%, which equates to approximately 72 million Americans, are obese.
A
66%
9
Q
Type 2 diabetes is associated with obesity, particularly abdominal obesity, and accounts for ______ of all diabetes.
A
90 to 95%
10
Q
What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity?
A
75%
11
Q
People in this stage of the Stages of Change Model do not exercise, but are thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months.
A
Contemplation
12
Q
People in this stage of the Stages of Change Model do exercise (occasionally) but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month.
A
Preparation
13
Q
People in this stage of the Stages of Change Model have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months.
A
Maintenance
14
Q
The human movement system (kinetic chain) consists of the
A
Muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
15
Q
Neurons are comprised of which three parts?
A
Cell body, axon, dendrites
16
Q
What structures are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue brought about through stretch, compression, traction or tension?
A
Mechanoreceptors
17
Q
Which of the following sensory receptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change?
A
Muscle spindles
18
Q
Which of the following sensory receptors will cause a muscle to relax when excited?
A
Golgi tendon organ
19
Q
Which of the following is the functional unit of muscle that lies in the space between two Z lines?
A
Sarcomere
20
Q
Which of the following muscle fibers are smaller in size and contain a high number of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin?
A
Type I
21
Q
Which gland is often referred to as the “master” gland of the endocrine system because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands?
A
Pituitary
22
Q
Which of the following neurons transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord?
A
Sensory (afferent) neurons
23
Q
Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?
A
Scapula
24
Q
The typical heart rate for an adult is between
A
70-80 beats per minute
25
Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are known as
Arteries
26
What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir?
Stroke volume
27
Which blood vessels collect blood from capillaries and progressively merge with veins to transport blood back to the heart?
Venules
28
Resting oxygen consumption is approximately
3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute
Reason: This is referred to as 1 MET, or your resting metabolic rate
29
Which bones comprise the respiratory pump?
Sternum, ribs, vertebrae
30
Which of the following structures is termed the pacemaker for the heart because it initiates the heartbeat?
Sinoatrial (SA) node
31
Which section of the heart gathers oxygenated rich blood coming from the lungs?
Left atrium
32
Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium?
Right ventricle
33
What is the primary end product after digestion of carbohydrates?
Glucose
34
The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called
Gluconeogenesis
35
The storage form of carbohydrates is called
Glycogen
36
Which energy system creates ATP from a phosphocreatine molecule?
ATP-PC
37
Which of the following energy systems occurs without the presence of oxygen?
ATP-PC
38
The first step in the oxidation of fat is called
Beta-oxidation
Reason: Beta-oxidation is the initial process in which the beta linkage is broken
39
Which metabolic pathway produces the most ATP?
Oxidative phosphorylation
40
A respiratory quotient of 0.7 indicates that fat is supplying
100% of the fuel for metabolism
41
The anaerobic means of producing ATP through the chemical breakdown of glucose is called
Anaerobic glycolysis
42
Before glucose of or glycogen can generate energy, it must be converted to a compound called
Glucose-6-phosphate
43
What is defined as the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces?
Biomechanics
44
An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as
Superior
45
An anatomical location referring to a position on the back or towards the back of the body is known as
Posterior
46
An anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body is known as
Ipsilateral
Reason: The right leg is ipsilateral to the right arm
47
An anatomical location referring to a position described as being closer to the midline of the body from a reference point is known as
Medial
48
An anatomical location referring to a position below a reference point is known as
Inferior
49
What plane divides the body into front and back halves and consists of abduction and adduction movements?
Frontal
50
What plane divides the body into top and bottom halves and consists of internal and external rotation movements?
Transverse
51
What plane divides the body into left and right halves and consists of flexion and extension movements?
Sagittal
52
Which exercise is performed PREDOMINATELY in the frontal plane?
Side lunges
53
When a muscle is exerting less force than being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is known as what type of contraction?
Eccentric
54
When a muscle is exerting a force greater than is being placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle, it is known as what type of contraction?
Concentric
55
When a muscle shortens at a constant speed over the full range of motion, it is known as what type of contraction?
Isokinetic
Isokinetic contractions typically only occur on Isokinetic machines designed to control contraction velocity
56
Which of the following is an example of a first-class lever?
Nodding the head
57
Which of the following is an example of a second-class lever?
Calf raise
58
Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?
Biceps curl
59
Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency?
YMCA step test
60
What is the proper formula to calculate a client's body mass index (BMI)?
Weight (kg) / Height (m2)
61
If a client demonstrates knees that cave in during the overhead squat assessment what muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive)?
Adductor complex
62
What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment?
Hip Flexors
63
What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus medius
64
If a client demonstrates arms that fall forward during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive)?
Lower trapezius
65
What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pulling assessment?
Deep cervical flexors
66
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to strengthen if your client demonstrates feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment?
Medial gastrocnemius
67
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to strengthen if your client demonstrates an arched lower back during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus
68
What is the normal systolic reading when measuring blood pressure?
Less than 120
69
Which of the following assessments BEST measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Shark skill test
70
Wearing shoes with a high heel can lead to tightness in which muscles?
Gastrocnemius, soleus
71
Which of the following assessments BEST measures muscular endurance of the upper body, primarily the pushing muscles?
Push-up test
72
Which of the following assessments BEST measures upper extremity agility and stabilization?
Davies test
73
What muscle(s) is/are most likely overactive if a client’s knee moves inward during the single-leg squat test?
Adductor complex
74
Static stretching is a form of which of the following?
Corrective flexibility
75
Which of the following states that prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle?
Autogenic inhibition
76
What form of flexibility applies gentle force to an adhesion “knot,” altering the elastic muscle fibers from a bundled position into straighter alignment with the direction of the muscle or fascia?
Self-myofascial release
77
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is called
Relative flexibility
78
A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
79
What is the definition of a muscle imbalance?
Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
80
Which forms of flexibility are used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Self-myofascial release and static stretching
81
Which forms of flexibility are used in Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
82
Which forms of flexibility are used in Phase 5 of the OPT model?
Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching
83
Increased force output of the hamstrings to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus for hip extension is an example of what?
Synergistic dominance
84
Which of the following is a beneficial adaptation to cardiorespiratory exercise?
Decreases resting heart rate
85
The 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or
75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week
86
What is the target heart rate for a stage I cardiorespiratory training program?
65-75% of HRmax
87
One metabolic equivalent or MET is equal to 3.5 mL O2 x kg-1 x min-1 or the equivalent of
The average resting metabolic rate for adults
88
The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production is known as
Ventilatory threshold
89
True or False: Circuit training was found just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory exercise for improving or contributing to improved fitness levels?
True
| Studies support that resistance training can elicit similar levels of fitness
90
True or False: Clients who possess an anteriorly rotated pelvis (lower crossed syndrome), the initial use of bicycles or steppers may not be warranted, as the hips are placed in a constant state of flexion, adding to a shortened hip flexor complex.
True
| Exercising in a seated position will increase anterior pelvic tilt, not decrease it
91
True or False: A proper warm-up for a stabilization-level client should consist of self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and 5 to 10 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise.
False
| This warm up protocol has been shown to maximize readiness for activity
92
True or False: For general health requirements, moderate intensity is preferred, of less than 60% maximal oxygen consumption.
True
| Studies have shown that this intensity can produce health benefits when compared to sedentary people
93
All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT
[O] Restore physiological systems close to baseline
[X] Gradually cool body temperature
[>] Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
[O] Reduce heart and breathing rates
Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
Pooling of blood is associated with sedentary activities like extended periods of sitting
94
The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?
Type I
95
What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a level plane?
Pelvo-ocular reflex
96
Core-stabilization exercises are performed in which phases of the OPT model?
Phase 1
97
The “reverse crunch” is considered what type of core exercise?
Core-strength
98
A “floor prone cobra” is considered what type of exercise?
Core-stabilization
99
A “rotation chest pass” is considered what type of exercise?
Core-power
100
True or false: The local stabilization system consists of muscles that are predominantly prime movers of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).
False
Reason: This system is involved the muscles in LPHC
101
True or false: The movement system is predominantly responsible for stabilization and joint support.
False
Reason: Prime movers and stabilizers are different
102
True or false: Core stabilization training exercises should focus on absolute strength gains, speed, and power.
False
Reason: Stabilization is best achieved with low load, non-movement bracing maneuvers
103
True or false: Core activation techniques used to help create stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex include the drawing-in maneuver and bracing.
True
These maneuvers help train the body to activate the core musculature
104
A single-leg balance reach is what type of exercise?
Balance-stabilization
105
A single-leg squat touchdown is what type of exercise?
Balance-strength
106
The ability to reduce force at the right joint, at the right time, and in the right plane of motion requires optimal levels of dynamic balance and
Neuromuscular efficiency
107
Which of the following is a balance-power exercise?
Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
108
True or False: Training in a multisensory environment will increase the demand on the nervous system’s ability to activate the right muscles at the right time in the right plane of motion.
True
Varying stimuli improves neuromuscular efficiency
109
True or False: There is limited research and evidence that a balance-training program influence the ability to improve lower extremity biomechanics.
False
Reason: Significant research supports balance training for reducing injuries
110
True or false: During a balance-training program, external resistance should be added before an increased proprioceptive demand in any exercise.
False
Reason: Increasing proprioceptive demand is more effective and decreases risk of injury
111
True or false: The main goal of balance training is to continually increase your client's awareness of their balance threshold by creating controlled instability.
True
Gradually increasing instability can lead to better awareness of the body and it’s balance
112
True or false: When progressing a client through a balance-training program, the proper progression would be eyes open to eyes closed.
True
Closing the eyes increases the instability level
113
True or false: Balance training programs that are performed for at least 10 minutes a day, 3 times per week for 4 weeks, appear to improve both static and dynamic balance ability.
True
Studies show that this threshold increases balance ability
114
Which of the following is NOT true regarding plyometric training?
Increases resting heart rate
115
Plyometric training is also known as
Reactive training
116
A squat jump is what type of exercise?
Plyometric-strength
117
An ice skater is what type of exercise?
Plyometric-power
118
When performing the squat jump with stabilization exercise, how long should a client hold the landing position?
3-5 seconds
119
Which of the following is a regression of a box jump-down with stabilization?
Box jump-up with stabilization
120
True or False: Plyometric (reactive) training involves exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving explosive eccentric muscle action preceded by a concentric muscle action.
False
Reason: In plyometrics, the muscles are eccentrically loaded then contract concentrically
121
True or False: The integrated performance paradigm states that to move with precision, forces must be loaded (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then unloaded or accelerated (concentrically).
True
The ability to manage forces applied on the body is essential to performance
122
True or False: The first (eccentric) stage of a plyometric movement decreases muscle spindle activity by contracting (shortening) the muscle before activation.
False
Reason: Plyometric activity increases tension on muscles by slightly stretching them
123
True or False: The amortization phase involves dynamic stabilization and is the time between the end of the eccentric muscle action and the initiation of the concentric contraction.
True: This in-between phase must be minimized to achieve maximal contractile force
124
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible is known as
Speed
125
Which of the following is an accurate description of front side mechanics?
Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
126
Which of the following is an accurate description of backside mechanics?
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis
127
The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture is known as
Agility
128
The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities is known as
Quickness
129
True or False: SAQ training for youth is an effective way of providing a variety of exposures to various physiologic, neuromuscular, and biomechanical demands, resulting in the further development of physical ability.
True
SAQ training when properly designed is very effective for children
130
True or False: High-intensity, short-duration programs have been found inferior for fat and weight loss, and other metabolic adaptations when compared with moderate-intensity, long-duration exercise protocols.
False
Reason: Studies have shown that high-intensity exercise is more effective at reducing fat stores and increasing weight loss
131
True or False: When designing SAQ programs for weight loss, the primary focus of the program is to keep the heart rate appropriately elevated to increase fat oxidation and caloric expenditure.
True
The higher a subject’s heart rate, the higher the total caloric value expended
132
True or False: Research has determined that properly administered programs requiring an elevated degree of load on the skeletal system such as those found in SAQ protocols are safe and effective in slowing and potentially reversing osteopenia in older adults.
True : Studies have shown that the loads placed on the body by plyometrics can stimulate new bone growth
133
True or False: A 10% loss of bone density at the hip can result in a 2.5 times greater risk for hip fracture.
True
Studies suggest this amount of bone loss can significantly increase risk of fracture
134
Which of the following is an example of a total body power exercise?
Barbell clean
135
Which of the following is an example of a back strength exercise?
Pull-up
136
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
137
During which stage does the body increase its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor?
Resistance development
138
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load is defined as
Strength
139
True or false: The SAID principle is defined as “the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it.”
True
140
True or false: Hypertrophy is characterized by atrophy of individual muscle fibers.
False
Reason: Atrophy is decrease in muscle size, not an increase
141
True or false: Power is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force for prolonged periods.
False
Reason: Power is the ability to produce force rapidly
142
True or false: The multiple-set system of training has been shown to be superior to single-set training for advanced clients.
True
143
True or false: A drop set involves performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest.
False
Reason: A drop set involves performing the same exercise but with a lighter load immediately after performing a set with a higher load
144
When performing a cable biceps curl, the cable should be positioned to offer resistance in a
Vertical motion against elbow flexion (pulling the elbow into extension)
145
When using medicine balls for their explosive power capabilities, high-velocity movements will require
A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual’s body weight
146
The kettlebell renegade row can be effectively integrated into which phase(s) of the OPT model?
Phases 1 and 2
147
Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?
Squats
148
The TRX suspension push-up can be effectively integrated into which phase(s) of the OPT model?
Phases 1 and 2
149
True or False: Strength machines are generally regarded as superior to free weights for improving core stability and neuromuscular efficiency because they offer support for one’s core musculature throughout the duration of the exercise.
False
Reason: Strength-training machines provide a minimal level of proprioception and neuromuscular enhancement
150
True or False: Strength-training machines primarily work in one plane of motion and can limit one’s ability to develop strength in all planes of motion.
True
Because of their design these machines limit strength development compared to free weights
151
True or False: Personal trainers should strive to progress individuals into a more proprioceptively enriched environment while emphasizing multiple planes of motion to improve overall stability and multiplanar neuromuscular coordination.
True
This strategy is most effective for enhancing performance
152
True or False: Performing complex exercises requires more energy, enabling individuals to expend more calories in a shorter period.
True
Reason: The higher the complexity the more strenuous the activity
153
True or False: Vibration training manipulates acceleration, therefore creating an environment in which the body is stimulated to increase strength as a result of higher g-forces, without the need for additional loads being placed on the musculoskeletal system.
True
Reason: This form of training has been shown to elicit many benefits upon the body
154
The total amount of work performed within a specified time period is known as
Training volume
155
Maximal strength adaptations require a repetition range of 1 to 5 at
85-100% of 1RM
156
The MOST appropriate chest exercise to use during Phase 1 of the OPT model program would be:
Standing cable chest press
157
Volume is inversely related to what?
Intensity
158
A rest interval of 20 to 30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores?
50
159
Improving muscle imbalances, stabilizing the core musculature, and establishing proper movement patterns are all goals of what training level of the OPT model?
Stabilization
160
According to research, hypertrophy is achieved by training with what percentage of 1RM?
75-85%
161
According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50 to 70% of the 1RM?
12-20
162
Which phase of the OPT model is a hybrid form of training that promotes increased stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, and strength by using superset techniques in which a more-stable exercise is immediately followed with a stabilization exercise with similar biomechanical motions?
Phase 2: Strength-endurance training
163
Which phase of the OPT model uses 1 to 5 reps, 4 to 6 sets with heavy loads (85 to100% intensity) during the resistance-training portion of the workout?
Phase 4: Maximal strength trainingPhase 4: Maximal strength training
164
What two factors contribute to children having less tolerance for temperature extremes, especially when exercising?
Higher submaximal oxygen demand, lower sweating rate
165
What is caused by degeneration of cartilage within joints, creating a wearing on the surfaces of articulating bones, causing inflammation and pain at the joint?
Osteoarthritis
166
The average range for healthy blood pressure is
167
Which of the following exercise positions should be avoided in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy?
Prone and supine
168
Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than
140/90
169
Children are less efficient and tend to exercise at a higher percentage of their peak oxygen uptake during submaximal exercise compared with adults.
True
The higher rate of exercise intensity partially explains their decreased performance compared to adults
170
Research has clearly demonstrated that resistance training is neither safe nor effective in children and adolescents and posses a higher risk of injury when compared with many popular sports including soccer, football, and basketball.
False
Reason: Studies have shown that children can garner many benefits from regular resistance training
171
Arteriosclerosis is a normal physiological process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable, which in turn leads to greater resistance to blood flow and thus higher blood pressure.
True
This phenomenon is known as atherosclerosis
172
Approximately 66% of Americans older than age 20 are overweight, and of these, 34%, which equates to approximately 72 million Americans, are obese.
True
Extensive reports suggest that the majority of Americans are now overweight
173
Resistance training has been shown to improve bone mineral density by no more than 5%, and some researchers believe that this does not represent a high enough increase to prevent fractures from occurring in clients with osteoporosis.
False
Reason: Resistance training is very effective at increasing bone mineral density if done correctly
174
```
Which of the following is an example of an essential amino acid?
[O] Alanine
[X] Glycine
[>] Leucine
[O] Cysteine
```
Leucine
175
Approximately how many amino acids does the body use?
20
176
Which of the following compounds is considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion?
Carbohydrate
177
Consumption of which of the following is associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helping to regulate the body’s absorption of glucose?
Fiber
178
Which of the following nutrients is responsible for acting as transports for vitamins A, D, E, and K?
Fats
179
How many calories does one gram of fat yield?
9
180
What is the daily recommend intake of fiber?
25 grams
181
Amino acids that cannot be manufactured by the body and must be obtained from food or some other source are known as
Essential amino acids
182
The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for protein is
0.8g/kg/d
183
Carbohydrate intake should be between
45-65% of total caloric intake
184
Which of the following nutrients (present only as retinol) should be consumed less than 100% of the daily value (DV)?
Vitamin A
185
Good guidelines for adequate, excessive, and potentially harmful intakes of a nutrient for normal, healthy individuals are known as
Dietary reference intake
186
The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97–98%) healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as
Recommended daily allowance
187
The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as
Estimated average requirement
188
The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affect to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as
Tolerable upper intake level
189
True or False: Food and Drug Administration (FDA) need to approve all dietary supplements before being sold or marketed.
False
Reason: The FDA does not currently regulate dietary supplements
190
True or False: Although calorie needs generally drop with age, the need for protein, vitamins, and minerals does not decline
True
191
True or False: As a general rule of thumb, the safe level of most nutrients in a multivitamin should be around 100% of the daily value (DV).
True
192
True or False: Calcium should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin because it would make the supplement pill too large to swallow easily.
True
193
True or False: Creatine supplementation is banned by major sports governing bodies and is on the World Anti-Doping Agency list.
False
Reason: Creatine is not currently banned by any major sports governing body
