Practice Exam Flashcards
1
Q
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because it
A
Prevents muscle from being placed under excessive tension.
2
Q
Which of the following is the correct force-couple relationship that allows for the upward rotation of the scapula?
A
Upper trapezius and lower portions of the serratus anterior
3
Q
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?
A
Pulmonary arteries
4
Q
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
A
Reciprocal inhibition
5
Q
The oxidative system is primarily used when a client
A
jogs for 30 minutes.
6
Q
Which of the following would aid the primary respiratory muscles in breathing after a set of maximum effort sprints?
A
Scalenes
7
Q
When an exercise is high intensity and lasts about 10 seconds, which of the following energy pathways is predominantly in use?
A
ATP-PC
8
Q
A client who is practicing repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique is exhibiting
A
motor learning
9
Q
Which of the following stimulates muscle fibers to go through a series of steps that initiate muscle contractions?
A
Acetylcholine
10
Q
Which of the following exercises uses a ball-and-socket joint as the primary mover?
A
Seated dumbbell lateral raise
11
Q
The body’s ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which of the following functions of the nervous system?
A
Sensory
12
Q
If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?
A
Synergistic dominance
13
Q
If a client squats with his feet excessively externally rotated, it is evidence of which of the following?
A
Altered arthrokinematics
14
Q
Which of the following is considered the functional unit of muscle?
A
Sarcomere
15
Q
Which structure of the skeletal muscle contains a combination of glycogen, fats, minerals, and oxygen-binding myoglobin?
A
Sarcoplasm
16
Q
Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client?
A
Subtract the client’s age from 220
17
Q
After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined that a client falls in the “Below Average” category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?
A
Zone one
18
Q
During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
A
Gluteus medius
19
Q
A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware of which of the following physiological characteristics?
A
Decreased lean body mass
20
Q
A client’s head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
A
Sternocleidomastoid
21
Q
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?
A
Assessing upper extremity agility and stabilization
22
Q
During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?
A
Pectoralis minor
23
Q
The client’s feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?
A
Lateral gastrocnemius
24
Q
Why is it crucial to have a client complete the PAR-Q?
A
It helps detect any possible cardiorespiratory dysfunction.
25
A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to
static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.
26
Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?
Levator scapulae
27
In order to ensure accuracy while taking resting heart rate, it is best that all three tests be taken
at the same time each day.
28
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
Hydrostatic weighing
29
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
Levator scapulae
30
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
Bench press 1RM test
31
What auditory cue would a trainer use for a client who is performing a stability ball crunch?
Perform a chin tuck to take stress off your neck
32
Which of the following techniques is more of a risk, rather than a benefit, for a new senior client?
Arching quadriceps stretch
33
Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using dumbbells?
Spot at the client’s wrists.
34
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to
strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
35
Which of the following exercises is the next progression to a two-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball for a client who is in a Phase 1 OPT™ program?
Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on a stability ball
36
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT™ Model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?
Active
37
A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?
Self-myofascial release
38
A client indicates he is taking beta-blockers for hypertension. During Phase 1 of the OPT™ Model, the trainer should
avoid prone positions.
39
Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching
40
A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?
Stand Up to Figure 8
41
What visual cue would a trainer use for a client who is performing the single-leg scaption exercise?
Demonstrate raising both arms, thumbs up at a 45-degree angle in the front of the body.
42
Within the stabilization phase of resistance training, which would be an appropriate regression of the two-arm shoulder press seated on a stability ball?
Seated on a bench
43
A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. As a regression, the trainer should instruct the client to perform the exercise
in a standard push-up position.
44
The proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception is which of the following?
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
45
What is the proper ending position of the back leg during a cable rotation?
Triple extension
46
Which of the following is an appropriate kinesthetic cue for a client performing a standing cable row?
Have the client imagine she is squeezing a quarter between her shoulder blades.
47
Which of the following is the correct kinetic chain checkpoint for the single-leg squat?
Knee is in line with the second and third toe.
48
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Determine how many repetitions the client will perform before beginning the set.
49
Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise?
Have the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep.
50
Which of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch?
Single-leg squat touchdown
51
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for the goal of targeting the local core stabilizers?
Prone iso-ab
52
Which of the following resistance training systems is advised for clients who have lung disease?
Circuit training system
53
Which of the following warm-up strategies is most appropriate for a client in the stabilization level of the OPT™ model?
Step 1.Self-myofascial Release, Step 2. Static Stretching, Step 3. Cardiorespiratory Exercise
54
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?
Metabolic
55
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition ranges and intensity?
6-12 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM
56
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model?
Single-leg squat touchdown
57
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
Split routine system
58
Which of the following resistance training systems aims to distribute blood flow between upper and lower extremities?
Peripheral heart action system
59
Which of the following represents the minimum requirements as specified by the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans?
Adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
60
Which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client experiences from high-volume resistance training?
Increased metabolic rate
61
All exercise training recommendations, including cardiorespiratory exercise, should use the FITTE principle. What does FITTE stand for?
Frequency, Intensity, Type, Time, Enjoyment
62
What is the recommended repetition tempo for a client performing a ball squat during Phase 1 of the OPT™ model?
4/2/1
63
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
Increased oxidative capacity of muscle
64
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which of the following core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?
Two-leg floor bridge
65
Which of the following should the trainer advise for a pregnant client in her third trimester?
Discontinue exercises in the supine position.
66
Which of the following is an appropriate warm-up for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT™ model?
Self-myofascial release and static stretching
67
A new client tells the personal trainer that she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?
Alarm reaction
68
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Pushing test
69
Which of the following is a benefit of integrated cardiorespiratory training?
Decreases resting heart rate
70
Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training in Phase 5 of the OPT™ model?
Barbell squat superset with a squat jump
71
Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?
Calcium
72
Which of the following recommendations are most appropriate for a client who desires to achieve lean body mass gain?
Eat at least four meals each day.
73
To enhance athletic ability for the endurance athlete, how much carbohydrate intake is recommended six days before an event?
4 g/kg of body weight
74
Which of the following popular diets advocates consuming less than 21% of total calories from carbohydrate sources?
Atkins
75
An excess of which of the following vitamins may cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners?
Vitamin E
76
Which of the following is a source of soluble fiber?
Oatmeal
77
Which of the following percentages of total caloric intake from fat is appropriate for an athlete?
22%
78
What is the approximate amount of water that a man who is sedentary should consume on a daily basis?
3.0 L (13 cups)
79
A high-protein diet is commonly associated with
a decrease in glycogen stores.
80
Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?
Monosaccharide
81
A trainer is working with a client who is attempting to increase his lean body mass. The trainer should recognize that the highest percentage of caloric intake should come from which of the following?
Carbohydrates
82
Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble?
Vitamin A
83
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
"What are your top three fitness goals?"
84
What is the purpose of asking a client an open-ended question?
So the client can provide more in-depth answers to invite discussion
85
The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following kinds of questions?
Open-ended
86
A client tells the personal trainer that she does not exercise, but that she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is this client?
Contemplation
87
When family members pressure a loved one to exercise, that person may respond by exercising less. This is known as
behavioral reactants.
88
People most frequently cite which of the following reasons for not exercising?
A lack of time
89
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
b. "I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.”
c. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.”
d. "Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.”
“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
90
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. “I will exercise five days a week and eat a healthy diet to reduce my LDL cholesterol and glucose levels.”
b. “I will purchase a workout video to help me lose 30 pounds in the next four weeks to be ready for my daughter's wedding.”
c. “I will join a new cycling club to maximize my aerobic fitness and avoid boredom.”
d. “I will lose 15 pounds in eight weeks by jogging for 30 minutes five days per week with weekly weigh-ins to monitor my progress.”
“I will lose 15 pounds in eight weeks by jogging for 30 minutes five days per week with weekly weigh-ins to monitor my progress.”
91
What strategy can the trainer incorporate that may enhance the client's exercise adherence?
SMART goals
92
Which of the following questions is open-ended?
"What is your fitness goal?"
93
Which of the following is an appropriate example of a fitness professional practicing proper conduct and upholding NASM’s Code of Professional Conduct?
Training a client with coronary artery disease who has received medical clearance
94
A certified personal trainer is working for two weeks on a cruise ship as a guest instructor. According to the Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following clients is the personal trainer allowed to train?
A 60-year-old man who has cardiac arrhythmia, and a written medical clearance to exercise and prescribed restrictions on which exercises to avoid.
95
Which of the following is an appropriate recommendation a personal trainer can make for a new elderly female client who acknowledges high blood pressure during her preparticipation health screening?
Recommend that the client see her physician for further evaluation.
96
According to the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct, certified personal trainers are required to meet legal and ethical requirements and uphold high levels of professionalism, which include
referring the client to other healthcare professionals when nutritional meal plans are requested, unless the trainer has been specifically trained to do so.
97
During the subjective assessment, a client reports pain and swelling in his right knee. What is the best course of action for the personal trainer to take?
Instruct the client to see his physician to diagnose the problem.
98
Which of the following actions is within the scope of the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct?
Refer the client to the appropriate medical practitioner when injured.
99
Which of the following best allows a certified personal trainer to comply with the NASM Code of Professional Conduct?
Maintain adequate liability insurance.
100
When it comes to client confidentiality, when would it be appropriate to share a client’s personal information with someone else?
When a client agrees in writing that you may share her personal information
