Quizz #2 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. A test of enzymes (with differing molecular details than other enzymes) specifically released from the heart muscle. Enzymes are released (elevated blood levels will show) when there is tissue damage - as in a heart attack (myocardial infarction).
    a. Pericardiocentesis
    b. Cardiac Isoenzyme
    c. Cardiac Radiography
    d. Cardiac Nuclear Scan
A

b. Cardiac Isoenzyme

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2
Q
  1. The Mantoux Skin Test is conducted by injecting tubercule bacilli intramuscularly to detect active or dormant tuberculosis.
    True
    False
A

False

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3
Q
  1. Testing that can evaluate estrogen hormone levels to help in the diagnosis of various ailments.
    a. Estriol
    b. Testosterone
    c. Progesterone
    d. Estrogen
A

d. Estrogen

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4
Q

A. Provides immediate evaluation of the fetal heart rate (FHR). This is a valuable indicator of fetal distress. Can be done either internally (invasive) or externally (non-invasive).

Fetal Biophysical Profile

Fetoscopy

Fetal Monitoring

Fetal nonstress

A

Fetal Monitoring

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5
Q

An endoscopic examination that directly visualizes the fetus via a small telescope-like scope.

Fetal Biophysical Profile

Fetoscopy

Fetal Monitoring

Fetal nonstress

A

Fetoscopy

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6
Q

A non-invasive test that measures the fetal heart rate as it responds to fetal movement

Fetal Biophysical Profile

Fetoscopy

Fetal Monitoring

Fetal nonstress

A

Fetal nonstress

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7
Q

Evaluates the fetus during pregnancy. It is done by ultrasonography. Heart rate, fetal breathing movement, gross fetal movements, fetal muscle tone, and amniotic fluid volume are included in this assessment.

Fetal Biophysical Profile

Fetoscopy

Fetal Monitoring

Fetal nonstress

A

Fetal Biophysical Profile

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8
Q
  1. The visual and radiographic examination of the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas using a fiber-optic duodenoscope. It allows for direct imaging of the area. This test is the standard for diagnosing stones in the common bile duct with high sensitivity and specificity.
    a. Colonoscopy
    b. Cholangiography
    c. Computed Tomography, Pancreas
    d. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography
A

d. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography

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9
Q
  1. Measures the blood or urine glucose levels after administration of an oral carbohydrate challenge. Elevated levels of blood glucose can indicate diabetes mellitus. Gestational diabetes, and other disease processes.
    a. Glucose Tolerance Test
    b. Glucose, Blood
    c. Estriol
    d. Insulin
A

a. Glucose Tolerance Test

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10
Q
  1. A skin test that determines the degree of immunity to diphtheria. It is an intradermal test. A positive test - indicated by inflammation or induration at the point of injection. If the test is positive - it indicates that the patient does not have enough antibodies to diphtheria and would be susceptible to the disease.
    a. Schick Test
    b. Schilling Test
    c. Rubeola Antibody
    d. Thyroxine
A

a. Schick Test

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11
Q
  1. A radiographic study that uses low-dose x-ray technique to examine breast tissue. It is used in conjunction with manual (physical) palpation. It is used to screen for breast cancer or other breast tissue anomalies.
    a. Computed Tomography, Chest
    b. Mammogram
    c. Breast sonogram
    d. Cystography
A

b. Mammogram

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12
Q
  1. Gives information regarding the location and extent of myocardial ischemia and viability of myocardial tissues. A radionuclide dye is injected and allowed to circulate through the heart to allow visualization of exercise-induced areas of ischemic cardiac tissue (little or no blood flow) or necrotic cardiac tissue from a previous myocardial infarction. This test is normally indicated when a patient has chest pain or known coronary artery disease.
    a. Cardiac Isoenzyme
    b. Cardiac nuclear scan
    c. Cardiac radiography
    d. Cardiac Catheterization
A

b. Cardiac nuclear scan

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13
Q
  1. A breast biopsy examines tissue or fluid that is removed from the breast lesion to diagnose or rule out malignancy. Samples may be obtained from a fine needle aspiration; core biopsy; or stereotactic guidance - which all can be done using local anesthetic.
    True
    False
A

True

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14
Q
  1. This tests fluid collected by a lumbar puncture (or from the ventricles of the brain). Helps to diagnose meningitis and viral encephalitis.
    a. Fluoroscopy
    b. Cerebrospinal Fluid Examination
    c. Paracentesis
    d. Skull x-ray
A

b. Cerebrospinal Fluid Examination

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15
Q
  1. An endoscopic procedure that allows visualization and biopsy of lymph nodes through a small suprasternal incision and aids in the diagnosing of cancer, tuberculosis, and histoplasmosis and determining whether lung cancer has spread to the lymph nodes.
    a. Lung biopsy
    b. Oncoscint Scan
    c. Mediastinoscopy
    d. Thorascoscopy Scan
A

c. Mediastinoscopy

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16
Q
  1. Test used to evaluate sleep-related disorders, like sleep apnea.
    a. Schilling Test
    b. Thermography
    c. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone Stimulation
    d. Sleep Studies
A

d. Sleep Studies

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17
Q
  1. Measures all the proteins that are available for binding mobile iron. This test is a better reflection of liver function and nutrition rather than iron metabolism. Elevated levels of this protein may be found with oral contraceptives, pregnancy, polycythemia, and (especially) iron deficiency anemia. Decreased levels would be found with hypoproteinemia, cirrhosis, and anemia.
    a. Hepatobiliary Scan
    b. Total Iron-binding capacity
    c. Liver Scan
    d. Toxicology screening
A

b. Total Iron-binding capacity

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18
Q
  1. The hormone secreted by the islets of Langerhans.
    a. Hemoglobin
    b. Bilirubin
    c. Iron
    d. Insulin
A

d. Insulin

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19
Q
  1. An x-ray film of the kidney structures. A contrast medium may be used to provide more definition. This procedure provides clearer visualization since it can penetrate deep shadows.
    a. Renal Computed Tomography
    b. Renal Angiogram
    c. Nephrotomography
    d. Retrograde Urethrography
A

c. Nephrotomography

20
Q
  1. A radiological examination of the retinal vasculature after the administration of a fluorescein dye. Abnormalities of the retina can be detected with this test.
    a. Fluoroscopy
    b. Fluorescein Angiography
    c. Skull x-ray
    d. Otoscopy
A

b. Fluorescein Angiography

21
Q
  1. Allows for the visualization of the larynx (commonly called the voice box) to assess for abnormalities such as abscess, carcinoma, foreign body, hemorrhage, inflammation, or strictures. Either a rigid laryngoscope or a flexible fiber-optic endoscope are used.
    a. Lymphangiography
    b. Laryngoscopy
    c. Cholescystography
    d. Cystometry
A

b. Laryngoscopy

22
Q
  1. The primary male hormone, an androgen, responsible for the development of male characteristics. Commonly done to diagnose sexual dysfunction or infertility. Hormonally influenced diseases can be indicated.
    a. Progesterone
    b. Testosterone
    c. Estrogen
    d. Iron
A

b. Testosterone

23
Q
  1. Fluid is withdrawn from the pleural space for examination. (A needle is inserted into the thoracic cavity to facilitate this). Removal of fluid could be for drainage purposes. May be done to introduce medication into the pleural space.
    a. Pericardiocentesis
    b. Renal angiogram
    c. Thoracentesis
    d. Paracentesis
A

c. Thoracentesis

24
Q
  1. A non-invasive procedure that examines the arteries supplying the brain.
    a. Nerve Conduction Studies
    b. Nerve biopsy
    c. Carotid Doppler
    d. Venography
A

c. Carotid Doppler

25
Q
  1. This test detects colon and ovarian cancers. This involves a method to attach radiolabeled special antigen antibodies to the surface of these specific cancers. Then a gamma camera scans the entire body to find the areas of increased radionuclide uptake – indicating the area of cancer.
    a. Occult blood
    b. Oncoscint scan
    c. Gastroesophageal reflux scan
    d. Parasite screen
A

b. Oncoscint scan

26
Q
  1. The examination of cells in order to diagnose malignant and premalignant conditions. Some sources can be sputum, tissue biopsy, cerebral spinal fluid, effusions from body cavities (pleural, abdominal, peritoneal, pericardial, pleural), urine, and gastrointestinal fluid.
    a. Arteriography
    b. Cytologic Examination
    c. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
    d. Complete Blood Count
A

b. Cytologic Examination

27
Q
  1. The antibody to CMV is a type of herpes virus that is found in all body secretions. The virus is present in a large segment of the population without causing disease. It is best to test the blood for this – even though urine testing is possible (but not as efficient).
    a. Cytomegalovirus Antibody test
    b. Cytologic examination
    c. Complete Blood Count
    d. Coccidioidomycosis Skin Test
A

a. Cytomegalovirus Antibody test

28
Q
  1. A test done to measure the pressure inside the bladder during bladder filling. An important part of urodynamic evaluation it evaluates the detrusor muscle function and tonicity and aids in determining the cause of bladder dysfunction.
    a. Cytologic Examination
    b. Cystography
    c. Nephrotomography
    d. Cystometry
A

d. Cystometry

29
Q
  1. An x-ray of the spine with the subarachnoid space highlighted (augmented with oil-based or water-based agents). The study allows for visualization of the spinal cord and nerve roots and assists in identifying abnormalities of the spine, spinal cord, or surrounding structures. MRIs are often used in place of this test – since there are lower risks of complications with MRIs.
    a. Mammogram
    b. Otoscopy
    c. Electroretinography
    d. Myelogram
A

d. Myelogram

30
Q
  1. A test that produces high-resolution images of the joints and bones. It can monitor for degenerative arthritis. A radionuclide is injected - and will collect at areas of high osteogenesis, hot spots, or areas of absent osteogenesis, cold spots. This can detect a wide variety of musculoskeletal disorders. It can also be used to determine the effectiveness of treatments.
    a. Arthroscopy
    b. Electronystagmography
    c. Bone scan
    d. Fluorescein Angiography
A

c. Bone scan

31
Q
  1. This test is useful in identifying at-risk persons for coronary artery disease.
    a. Oximetry
    b. Candida Antibody
    c. Apolipoprotein
    d. Aldosterone
A

c. Apolipoprotein

32
Q

German measles test. Antibodies (in the body) result from an acute viral communicable infection. Usually seen in children or young adults. Patient will have a red or pink rash, lymphadenopathy, Pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis. (Incubation period is 14 to 21 days – after exposure – and is spread by droplet spray). The blood antibodies will remain for 4 to 5 weeks – then be gone completely.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Rubella Antibody

33
Q

Antibody test is a blood test and is used to diagnose Mumps (an acute contagious febrile disease that is known for the inflammation of the parotid glands (the largest salivary glands) and other salivary glands.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Mumps Antibody

34
Q

Consists of 3 different tests to diagnose Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). (The specific test names are not required to be remembered). The 3 tests are blood tests and can help indicate if Lupus is a possibility or not.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Lupus Panel Analyzer

35
Q

If a patient has the measles virus (sometimes called red measles), antibodies would appear in the blood – usually 1 to 2 weeks after exposure. This is the time when a patient would exhibit fever, cough, headache, conjunctivitis, and a rash on the face, trunk, and extremities (which is transmitted by airborne droplets and causes measles).

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Rubeola Antibody

36
Q

A specific type of estrogen hormone test measures the amount of estriol in the blood. The most common use of the test is to evaluate fetal status during pregnancy. Elevated levels are found with tumours; multiple pregnancy; ovarian or testicular tumours. Decreased levels are found in failing pregnancy, congenital abnormalities, placental insufficiency, menopause, and many other conditions.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Estriol

37
Q

A substance produced in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. One type (direct) is excreted in the GI tract. The other (indirect) circulates in the blood.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Bilirubin

38
Q

Blood test is done to detect disease transmitted to a person by a deer tick bite. Manifestations of this disease are a characteristic ‘bulls-eye’ rash and flu-like symptoms – occurring within a week of the tick bite. If not treated early it can lead to carditis, arthritis, and Central Nervous System disturbances.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Lyme Disease

39
Q

Identifies serum antibodies, maternal anti-Rh antibodies during pregnancy, and incompatibilities not detected by other tests. The main purpose of this test is to determine serum antibodies to RBCs the client will receive by transfusion. Routinely done for blood compatibility testing or cross-matching.

Antibody Screen
Rubella Antibody
Lupus Panel Analyzer
Mumps Antibody
Bilirubin
Estriol
Lyme Disease
Rubeola Antibody
A

Antibody Screen

40
Q

Able to evaluate benign or malignant diseases of the bladder (as well as the prostate, testes, seminal vesicles, and spermatic cords).

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Renal Computed Tomography

41
Q

An invasive radiographic examination of the kidneys (from a distal direction – via the ureters – that produces detailed x-ray pictures of the ureters and kidneys.Obstructive abnormalities of the ureters (stones or tumours) or congenital defects of the ureters and kidney pelvis can be identified.

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Retrograde pyelogram

42
Q

This test is used as supportive data to other tests to help determine the response of substances that are administered that induce an increase in gastric acid production. This study can help with the understanding of the pathophysiology of ulcer disease.

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Gastric Acid Stimulation

43
Q

An invasive procedure done to diagnose or confirm the cause of chronic liver disease and liver tumours after liver transplants to determine the cause of elevated liver tests if rejection is occurring

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Liver biopsy

44
Q

A contrast dye is injected into the renal artery so that the kidney circulation and tissues of the kidneys can be visualized by x-rays. Used to diagnose renal tumours, cysts, assess a potential kidney donor, assess post-transplant kidney function, show vascular irregularities, evaluate renal function, and more.
This test has largely been replaced by noninvasive computerized tomography (CT).

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Renal Angiogram

45
Q

A radionuclide study that examines the gallbladder, intestines, extrahepatic bile ducts, and hepatic parenchyma. Can help to diagnose acute or chronic cholecystitis, biliary obstruction, bile leaking, and biliary atresia. Can also diagnose tumours or choledocholithiasis.

Renal Angiogram
Retrograde pyelogram
Liver biopsy
Renal Computed Tomography
Hepatobiliary Scan
Gastric Acid Stimulation
A

Hepatobiliary Scan