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Quizlet - Final Flashcards

1
Q

In the spinal cord, the white matter is broadly categorized into what three bundles (per side)?

A
  • Dorsal funiculus
  • Lateral funiculus
  • Ventral funiculus
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2
Q

In the spinal cord, the gray matter areas dorsal and ventral to the central canal are called what?

A
  • Dorsal Gray commisure

- Ventral Gray commisure

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3
Q

The gray matter of the spinal cord is divided into how many laminae? In which zone are each lamina in the gray matter?

A

Ten in total.
Dorsal horn –> laminae I - VI
Ventral horn –> laminae VII - IX
Central gray –> lamina X

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4
Q

Prior to C7, each spinal nerve runs (cranial/caudal) to its corresponding vertebra. After the C7 , the corresponding nerves run (cranial/caudal) to their vertebrae.

A

Cranial before C7

Caudal after C7

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5
Q

The spinal cord ends with which vertebral segment?

A

L6

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6
Q

What leads to the formation of the cauda equina?

A

The vertebrae grow faster than the spinal cord, but still maintain their connection, resulting in a stretching of nerve fibers.

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7
Q

Which nervous plexus display the greatest extent of cauda equina?

A

Lumbosacral plexus

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8
Q

T/F: The amount of white matter in a spinal cord segment increases as one progresses caudally.

A

FALSE

It decreases as one progresses caudally.

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9
Q

What are the names of the two ventral gray matter enlargements (intumescence), where are they located, and what is their purpose?

A

Cervical (or brachial) enlargement
From C7 –> T2
Provide motor neurons for the forelimbs

Lumbosacral enlargement
From L4 –> S1
Provide motor neurons for the hindlimbs

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10
Q

The intermediate zone of the spinal gray matter is responsible for what kind of control?

A

Autonomic

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11
Q

What is a dermatome? What is a cutaneous area? How are these two different?

A

A dermatome is the skin area innervated by one spinal nerve and all of its peripheral branches. There is much overlap between dermatomes.

A cutaneous area is a zone of skin supplied by nerves of similar function.

A dermatome is one nerve which may have multiple functions. A cutaneous area is multiple nerves with one function.

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12
Q

T/F: In the Withdrawal Reflex test the foot being stimulated retracts, and the contralateral foot extends.

A

TRUE

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13
Q

When performing the Withdrawal Reflex test, what are the three desired reactions and what does each one indicate?

A

1.) Foot receiving stimulus withdraws.
This indicates the reflex response is working and shows the ipsilateral interneurons are functioning properly.

2.) Contralateral foot extends.
This indicates the reflex response is working and shows the contralateral interneurons are functioning properly.

3.) Head turns to observe stimulus.
This indicates the dog’s conscious reception of the signal and shows that the ascending pathways are functioning properly.

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14
Q

T/F: On presynaptic neuron may synapse with a few to many thousand postsynaptic neurons.

A

TRUE

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15
Q

T/F: One presynaptic neuron may not have multiple synapses with a single postsynaptic neuron.

A

FALSE

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16
Q

Much of the sensory information sent to the brain is never perceived. For what two reasons is this true?

A
  • Inhibition in the cortical pathway prevents perception at that moment
  • Pathway to the cortex doesn’t exist, therefor there is no way for signal to be perceived
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17
Q

What is the term to describe the grouping of motor neurons which spans multiple contiguous spinal segments?

A

Motor neuron pool

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18
Q

T/F: Collateral distribution of one primary afferent sensory neuron includes many segments both rostral and caudal to the segment of entry.

A

TRUE

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19
Q

Motor neuron pools are organized in the ventral horn of the spinal cord. What is the manner of their organization? For instance, where would the nerve cell bodies be located for the brachial zone as compared to the antebrachial zone?

A

More proximal projections are located more medially in the ventral horn, and distal projections are more lateral.

For instance, the cell bodies for nerves of the brachial zone will be closer to the central canal (more medial) than those for the antebrachial zone.

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20
Q

Define: Nociception

A

A reflex; a reaction that occurs without nerves reaching the brain for processing.

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21
Q

Define: Pain response

A

A conscious reaction to a painful stimulus.

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22
Q

Describe the differences between nociception and pain perception.

A
  • Often difficult to differentiate
  • Important for lesion site determination
  • Nociception circuit does not enter brain and is therefore not a conscious response
  • Pain perception circuits do enter the brain and are a conscious response

EXAMPLES
Nociception –> withdraw limb; contralateral extension
Pain perception –> turns head; growls; whines

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23
Q

Which portion of the nervous system has the better neuron-regenerative capacities?

A

PNS

Peripheral Nervous System

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24
Q

In the case of spinal cord injury, where do signs of the injury manifest?

A

Signs appear level to, or caudal of, the site of the spinal cord injury.

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25
Q

What are some clinical signs of spinal cord injury?

A
  • Hyperreflexia/Areflexia
  • Muscle hypertonia/hypotonia
  • Loss or reduction of pain response
  • Muscle denervation
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26
Q

In the case of severe injury to the brachial enlargement, what would be the state of the Lower Motor Neurons (forelimb)? What of the Upper Motor Neurons (hindlimb)?

A

FORELIMBS (LMN)

  • Paralysis
  • Areflexia
  • Atonia
  • Denervation atrophy
  • Sensory disturbance

HINDLIMBS (UMN)

  • Paralysis
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Hypertonia
  • Diuse atrophy
  • Sensory disturbance
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27
Q

In the case of severe injury to the thoracolumbar region, what would be the state of the Lower Motor Neurons (forelimb)? What of the Upper Motor Neurons (hindlimb)?

A

FORELIMBS (LMN)

  • Mostly normal
  • Schiff-Sherrington (don’t worry about it)

HINDLIMBS (UMN)

  • Paralysis
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Hypertonia
  • Disuse atrophy
  • Sensory disturbance
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28
Q

In the case of severe injury to the lumbosacral enlargement, what would be the state of the Lower Motor Neurons (forelimb)? What of the Upper Motor Neurons (hindlimb)?

A

FORELIMBS (LMN)
-Normal

HINDLIMBS (UMN)

  • Paralysis
  • Areflexia
  • Atonia
  • Denervation atrophy
  • Sensory disturbance
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29
Q

Name one specific type of reflex test that can be used to determine lesion location.

A

Cutaneous trunci reflex test.

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30
Q

Define: Exteroceptors

A

Receptors that respond to external stimuli impinging on the skin.

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31
Q

Define: Proprioceptors

A

Receptors that signal changes in position that occur during movement. They are found in muscles, joints, ligaments, tendons, and the vestibular system.

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32
Q

Define: Interoceptors

A

Receptors that detect changes of a chemical or mechanical nature in the viscera of the body wall.

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33
Q

What are some practical uses for rapidly-adapting receptors? What about slowly-adapting receptors?

A

Rapidly-adapting:

  • Transient events such as stimulus contact
  • High frequency events like vibration

Slowly-adapting:
-Maintained events such as pressure

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34
Q

Which type of adapting receptor shows a negative spike in receptor potential when a stimulus ceases?

A

Rapidly-adapting receptors

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35
Q

When conducting impulses, it can be seen that there are two peaks that occur: an A peak, and a C peak. What types of neurons are responsible for the A peak, and what types of neurons are responsible for the C peak?

A

A peak –> large number of myelinated neurons

C peak –> small, unmyelinated neurons

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36
Q

Using the roman numeral schema, what group(s) of nerves are responsible for proprioception? Which are responsible for pain and temperature?

A

Proprioception –> Groups I and II

Pain and Temperature –> Groups III and IV

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37
Q

T/F: The majority of touch is represented by A-delta and C fibers.

A

FALSE

Touch is represented by A-delta and C fibers, but the majority of touch receptors are supplied by A-beta afferents.

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38
Q

Local anesthetics affect which size nerve fibers most rapidly and for the longest duration?

A

Small diameter fibers

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39
Q

For pacinian corpuscles, what types of fibers are involved? Where are they located? What are they sensitive to?

A
  • Rapidly-adapting A-beta fibers
  • Located primarily in SQ
  • Sensitive to minimal gingival or skin distortion
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40
Q

For Meissner’s corpuscles, what types of fibers are involved? Where are they located? What are they sensitive to?

A
  • Rapidly-adapting A-beta fibers
  • Located superficially in skin of hand
  • Sensitive to skin distortion (less so than pacinian corpuscles).
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41
Q

For Merkel cells, what types of fibers are involved? Where are they located? What are they sensitive to?

A
  • Slowly-adapting fibers
  • Located in hairy skin of face, skin of hands
  • Sensitive to gingival or skin distortion
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42
Q

What is another term for pain receptors?

A

Nociceptors

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43
Q

Name some of the detail discrimination that is involved in the dorsal column system.

A
  • Direction and frequency of movement of tactile stimuli
  • Shape, texture, and location of tactile stimuli
  • Positional information from forelimb and hindlimb
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44
Q

What two fasciculi make up the lemniscal tracts, and from where does each transmit signals?

A

Fasciculus gracilis –> receives input from sacral, lumbar, and lower thoracic roots

Fasciculus cuneatus –> receives input from upper trunk, neck, and arm roots

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45
Q

Axons from the gracile and cuneate nuclei cross the ___________ fibers and collect to form the ________________.

A

…cross the Internal Arcuate fibers…

…collect to form the Medial Lemniscus.

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46
Q

Where does the medial lemniscus project to?

A

Ventrocaudal lateral nucleus (VCL)

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47
Q

Thalamocortical axons from the VCL terminate in which two places?

A
  • Primary somatic sensory cortex SI

- Secondary somatic sensory cortex SII

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48
Q

Which axons form the spinocerebellar tracts?

A

Axons of the dorsal horn neurons

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49
Q

What is the purpose of the spinocerebellar systems?

A

They convey proprioceptive information to the cerebellum.

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50
Q

Primary afferents synapse where?

A

In spinal cord gray matter.

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51
Q

What types of information are conveyed in the ventral ascending pathways?

A
  • Crude touch
  • Pain
  • Temperature
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52
Q

Describe the fibers that synapse in the dorsal horn.

A
  • Small diameter
  • Slow conducting
  • Peripheral afferent A-delta and C fibers
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53
Q

Where do dorsal horn neurons go to collect as the spinothalamic and spinoreticular tracts?

A

To the contralateral central funiculus

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54
Q

What, specifically, is the spinothalamic tract involved in?

A

Location and intensity of painful stimuli

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55
Q

What, specifically, is the spinoreticular tract involved in?

A

Affective qualities of painful stimuli

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56
Q

In what two areas can nerves be found within teeth?

A
  • Pulp

- Dentin tubules

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57
Q

Dramatic changes in the fluid flow within dentin tubules can be very painful. Name some stimuli that could affect fluid flow.

A
  • Mechanical stimuli
  • Evaporation
  • Sugar solutions
  • Cold
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58
Q

What are the three nuclei of the Trigeminal system, and what is each responsible for?

A

Chief Sensory nucleus
-Receives touch input from fave and oral cavity

Spinal nucleus

  • Oralis: oral cavity reflexes
  • Interpolaris: head and oral cavity; tactile reflexes
  • Caudalis: pain and temperature

Mesencephalic nucleus
-Proprioception from muscles of mastication

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59
Q

Axons from which of the Trigeminal nuclei cross, join the medial lemniscus, and project to the ventrocaudal medial nucleus (VCM)?

A
  • Chief Sensory nucleus
  • Oralis (of the Spinal nucleus)
  • Interpolaris (of the Spinal nucleus)
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60
Q

Axons from which of the Trigeminal nuclei cross, join the spinothalamic tract, and project to the intralaminar nucleus (IL)?

A

Caudalis (of the Spinal nucleus)

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61
Q

Name some of the separate representations the SI is able to process.

A
  • Cutaneous information
  • Deep receptors and proprioception
  • Muscle afferent information
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62
Q

T/F: Body regions with greater receptor density or greater behavioral relevance have larger cortical representations.

A

TRUE

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63
Q

The SI contains a complete body map. Describe the organization of the body on the SI.

A

Face laterally –> Hindlimb medially

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64
Q

Define: Pain

A

A sensory perception of a nociceptive event.

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65
Q

Describe the difference between acute and chronic pain.

A

Acute pain –> brief, elicits avoidance

Chronic pain –> long-term, produces depression

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66
Q

Describe the difference between superficial pain and deep pain.

A

Superficial –> sharp; pricking; “first”

Deep –> aching; burning; “second”

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67
Q

Describe what is entailed in the sensory-discriminative dimension of pain.

A
  • Where is the stimulus?
  • What kind of stimulus?
  • How fast is the stimulus being applied?
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68
Q

Describe what is entailed in the motivational-affective dimension of pain.

A
  • How can the stimulus be avoided?

- How severe is the injury?

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69
Q

T/F: First (superficial) pain is fast, and signaled by unmyelinated C nociceptors.

A

FALSE
First (superficial, fast) and second (deep, slow)
pain are signaled by myelinated A delta and
unmyelinated C nociceptor fibers, respectively.

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70
Q

Name some factors that would affect one’s pain threshold.

A
  • Stress
  • Anxiety
  • Chronic conditions
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71
Q

What is the difference between one’s pain-detection threshold and one’s pain-tolerance threshold? What is the term for the area in between?

A

Pain-detection threshold –> point at which one consciously notices pain

Pain-tolerance threshold –> the maximum painful stimulus one will willingly tolerate

Range between these two terms is deemed the pain-sensitivity range.

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72
Q

Nociceptors are classified as “free nerve endings”. Why? Are all free nerve endings nociceptors?

A

Termed “free nerve endings” based on their unmyelinated structure and staining characteristics in light microscopy.

No. In humans and animals, free nerve endings also subserve thermal sensations and non-perceived visceral functions.

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73
Q

Name some of the stimuli nociceptors are capable of responding to.

A
  • Strong mechanical pressure
  • Heat
  • Excessive cold
  • Electrical
  • Chemical substances
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74
Q

T/F: Nociceptors do not normally respond to non-noxious levels of stimulation.

A

TRUE

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75
Q

Compared to non-nociceptors, nociceptors have (high/low) activation thresholds and (increase/decrease) their response magnitude throughout the noxious range.

A

High

Increase

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76
Q

Nociceptive fibers mostly terminate in what portion of the spinal cord?

A

In the superficial layers of the dorsal horn

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77
Q

Describe the differences between ipsilateral, contralateral, and bilateral pathways.

A

Ipsilateral –> fiber stays on the same side (left/right) of the spinal column

Contralateral –> fiber crosses over to the other side (left/right) of the spinal column

Bilateral –> fiber bifrucates and is apart of both sides (left/right) of the spinal column

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78
Q

Describe some properties of spinal nociceptive pathways.

A
  • Deep
  • Diffuse
  • Redundant through the white matter
  • Difficult to eliminate surgically
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79
Q

What is the size of the axons involved in the spinal nociceptive pathways?

A

Small-diameter axons

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80
Q

Spinal nociceptive pathways can be divided into two groups, one subserving the sensory-discriminative dimension of pain and the other subserving the motivational-affective dimension. Which is which?

A

Lateral group –> sensory-discriminative

Medial group –> motivational-affective

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81
Q

Describe the pathway for an ipsilateral ascending pathway.

A 
Primary afferent neuron enters dorsal horn of spinal cord -->
1st relay nucleus -->
2nd order neuron -->
2nd relay nucleus -->
3rd order neuron -->
Contralateral thalamus (aka 3rd relay nucleus) -->
4th order neuron -->
Contralateral cerebral cortex
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82
Q

Between an A-beta fiber and a C fiber in the dorsal horn, which acts as a stimulator and which acts as an inhibitor?

A

A-beta –> inhibitor

C –> stimulator

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83
Q

Describe the purpose of the tactile placing response (which is NOT a reflex).

A
  • Requires intact cortex and consciousness

- Tests non-nociceptive conscious proprioception pathways

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84
Q

T/F: There is not a correlation between a loss of reflex and a loss of pain perception.

A

TRUE

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85
Q

Name some conditions that can cause loss of the withdrawal reflex.

A
  • Damage to sensory innervation
  • Damage to the spinal cord
  • Damage to motor innervation to flexor muscles
  • Blockage of neuromuscular transmission
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86
Q

Name some effects chronic pain can have on pathways, sensitivity, hormonal balance, etc.

A
  • Allodynia
  • Hyperalgesia
  • Stress, anxiety, depression
  • Increase in cortisol and catecholamines
  • Tachycardia
  • Decreased motility
  • Delayed healing
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87
Q

What type of tissue does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) supply? Give some examples.

A

Visceral tissue

  • smooth muscle
  • cardiac muscle
  • glands
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88
Q

From what region of the spinal cord does the sympathetic region of the ANS originate? What of the parasympathetic region?

A

Sympathetic –> thoracolumbar

Parasympathetic –> craniosacral

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89
Q

What systems is the sympathethic nervous system related to? Parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic –> distribution to the entire body

Parasympathetic –> supplies only visceral cavities, head, and genitalia. Does NOT supply the skin or limbs.

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90
Q

Sympathetics travel via what nerve bundle?

A

Sympathetic trunk

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91
Q

The parasympathetic system originates from which four cranial nerve nuclei?

A
  • Oculomotor (CN III)
  • Facial (VII)
  • Glossopharyngeal (IX)
  • Vagus (X)
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92
Q

What does the sympathetic ANS respond to? How does it respond?

A

Responds to stress, fight/flight, or strenuous exercise.

  • Decreases visceral organ motility
  • Decreases sweating
  • Increases blood pressure
  • Increases cardiac function
  • Dilates bronchii
  • Dilates pupils
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93
Q

What types of neurotransmitters are released by preganglionic neurons? What are the types of receptors?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh) is released into Nicotinic receptors

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94
Q

Describe the sympathetic postganglionic release of neurotransmitter.

A
  • They’re releases from many varicosities along the length of the axon.
  • They diffuse through adjacent smooth muscle cells via gap junctions.
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95
Q

Describe the three types of Beta receptors.

A

Beta-1 –> excitatory in the heart
Beta-2 –> inhibitory to smooth muscle
Beta-3 –> lipolysis

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96
Q

Name three neurotransmitters commonly released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

A
  • Norepinephrine
  • Epinephrine
  • Dopamine
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97
Q

What neurotransmitter is most commonly released by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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98
Q

T/F: Muscarinic receptors are generally inhibitory.

A

FALSE

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99
Q

What chemical can be used to block the coupling of parasympathetic postganglionic cells to target cells?

A

Atropine

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100
Q

Describe the enteric nervous system (ENS).

A
  • Intrinsic mucosal neurons that can operate independently from the CNS
  • Regulates the inner circular smooth muscle layer with the outer longitudinal layer
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101
Q

What type of fibers connect two enteric plexi?

A

Interganglionic fibers

102
Q

Name some intrinsic reflexes that are triggered in response to distention.

A
  • Peristalsis
  • Segmentation-mixing movements
  • Tonic contraction of sphincters
103
Q

T/F: 90% of visceral sensory afferents are unmyelinated.

A

TRUE

104
Q

Compared to skin, there is a (high/low) peripheral receptor density in visceral tissue.

A

Low

105
Q

For visceral sensory afferents, where are the majority of the cell bodies located?

A

Dorsal root ganglia

106
Q

What two types of stimuli are visceral afferent terminals positioned to respond to?

A
  • Mechanical

- Chemical

107
Q

Afferents in sympathetic nerve trunks can lead to what? What of afferents in parasympathetic nerve trunks?

A

Sympathetic –> perceived visceral pain

Parasympathetic –> performing unperceived regulatory functions

108
Q

Describe the pathway of visceral afferent relays in the brain.

A 
Nucleus of tractus solitarius (NTS) -->
Parabrachial nucleus -->
Hypothalamus -->
Midline thalamic nuclei -->
Limic nuclei
109
Q

Describe visceral pain.

A
  • Poorly localized
  • Can be due to a blockage in a hollow organ
  • Can be due to a stretching in a solid organ
  • Often difficult to ameliorate
110
Q

What is “referred pain” and what causes it?

A

“Referred pain” is pain located somewhere other than the site of the negative stimulus.

Can be due to overlying serosal inflammation, or viscerosomatic convergence.

EX: when a person is having a heart attack and their left arm becomes painful.

111
Q

Describe the carotid sinus reflex.

A

A very important reflex for the control of systemic blood pressure, the carotid sinus reflex involves the integration of baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and both divisions of the ANS.

112
Q

Describe the micturition reflex.

A

The process of voiding the bladder, which can be voluntary or involuntary, requires the integration of neurons from all parts of the nervous system (sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic).

113
Q

The retina develops as an outgrowth of which major brain division?

A

Diencephalon

114
Q

T/F: The retina is considered part of the PNS.

A

FALSE

CNS

115
Q

Name the layers of the retina from inside (side of light entering) to outside (where signal is an impulse).

A 
Nerve fiber layer -->
Ganglion layer -->
Inner plexiform layer -->
Inner nuclear layer -->
Outer plexiform layer -->
Outer nuclear layer -->
Receptor layer
116
Q

Between rods and cones, which is more sensitive to light?

A

Rods

117
Q

Describe the two different pathways for optic tracts.

A

Optic tract –>
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus (LGN) –>
VI (primary visual cortex)

Optic tract –>
LGN –>
Brachium of rostral colliculus –>
Rostral colliculus and pretectal area

118
Q

What is the main pathway linking center for coordinated control of eye movement? (there is one in for each eye)

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

119
Q

The medial longitudinal fasciculus include the motor nuclei for which cranial nerves?

A
  • Oculomotor (CN III)
  • Trochlear (CN IV)
  • Abducens (CN VI)
120
Q

What mediates the consensual light reflex?

A

The caudal commissure

121
Q

Name three important functions of the Oculomotor nerve (CN III).

A
  • Converges the eyes through co-contraction of the medial rectus muscles.
  • Rounds the lens via contraction of the ciliary muscles.
  • Constricts the pupils to sharpen acuity.
122
Q

What is the auditory system responsible for?

A

Responsible for the detection and analysis of air-borne vibrations; transmitting this analysis to the brain as sounds.

123
Q

What is the vestibular system responsible for?

A

Responsible for sensing the position of the head; transmitting this analysis to the brain for feedback on balance.

124
Q

Name the three bones of the middle ear in order of an incoming sound wave.

A

Malleus –>
Incus –>
Stapes

125
Q

T/F: Incoming signals enter the cochlea through the round window and terminate through the oval window after completing its circuit.

A

FALSE
Incoming signals enter the cochlea through the OVAL window and terminate through the ROUND window after completing its circuit.

126
Q

Describe each of the three layers of the tympanic membrane (the ear drum).

A
  • Outer layer: continuous with the skin of the external meatus
  • Middle layer: sheets of collagenous connective tissue
  • Inner layer: continuous with the lining of the middle ear
127
Q

What additional factor do animals have in the ear canal that makes them more susceptible to chronic ear infections?

A

The auditory canal of dogs, for instance, is L-shaped. This makes it difficult to medicate infections near the ear drum.

128
Q

What muscle is responsible for the malleus? What nerve innervates this muscle?

A

Tensor tympani

innervated by the Mandibular division of the Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

129
Q

What muscle is responsible for the stapes? What nerve innervates this muscle?

A

Stapedius

innervated by the Facial nerve (CN VII)

130
Q

What two openings maintain pressure in the middle ear?

A
  • Auditory canal

- Eustachian tube

131
Q

Describe the process of sound entering the ear through its integration in the cochlea.

A

Sound enters pinna and travels through auditory canal –>
Sounds hit tympanic membrane –>
Tympanic membrane hits ossicles –>
Ossicles hit the oval window and send vibrations through the cochlea –>
Sounds travel through cochlea and exit round window

132
Q

What is a difference between the eustachian tubes of infants and adults?

A

Infant’s tube are more curved and, therefore, more difficult for transmission of fluids/pressure.

133
Q

What fluid fills the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear? What fluid surrounds it?

A

Fills –> Endolymph

Surrounds –> Perilymph

134
Q

T/F: The fluids in the inner ear have similar ionic concentrations as respective cellular fluids (extracellular = high Na, low K; intracellular = low Na, high K).

A

TRUE

135
Q

Name the 2 major divisions of the bony labyrinth, and which system each is apart of.

A

Vestibule and Semicircular canals –> Vestibular

Cochlea –> Auditory

136
Q

Name the 3 major divisions of the membranous labyrinth.

A
  • Semicircular canals
  • Sacule, utricle (vestibule)
  • Cochlear duct (cochlea)
137
Q

What is the modiolus and what is its purpose?

A

The modiolus is a hollow bony canal through the center of the cochlea through which the cochlear nerve enters at the basal turn and travels.

138
Q

What is the osseous spiral lamina, and what is its purpose?

A

The osseus spiral lamina is a hollow shelf that coils around the modiolus like the threads of a screw.

139
Q

The spiral ganglion contains the origin of which nerve within the modiolus?

A

Auditory nerve (CN VIII)

140
Q

For each of the following cavities, what kind of fluid runs through them?

  • Scala Vestibuli
  • Scala Media
  • Scala Tympani
A
  • Scala Vestibuli –> Perilymph
  • Scala Media –> Endolymph
  • Scala Tympani –> Perilymph
141
Q

T/F: Reissner’s membrane is very thick.

A

FALSE

Reissner’s membrane is only 2 cells thick.

142
Q

The basilar membrane, a fibrous ribbon that spans the whole cochlea, is made of bundles of microfilaments. This is essential for what property of sound?

A

Essential for frequency (pitch) resolution

143
Q

There are two types of hair cells, Inner and Outer. How many rows are there of each one, and what is each type responsible for?

A

1 row of Inner hair cells –> sensory transduction

3 rows of outer hair cells –> mechanical processes which influence frequency tuning in the cochlea

144
Q

Both types of hair cells are locked at their apical ends into a ridged matrix called the…?

A

Reticular lamina

145
Q

What nerve innervate the hair cells (both types)?

A

Peripheral processes of the Cochlear nerve (CN VIII)

146
Q

Which end of the cochlea (base or apex) is more sensitive to low frequency sounds? Which is more sensitive to high frequency?

A

Base –> high frequency

Apex –> low frequency

147
Q

Describe how the hammering of the stapes on the oval window results in release of nerves discharges from hair cells.

A

Hammering on oval window sends vibrations through cochlea –>
Tectorial membrane is gelatinous substance attached to hair cells that moves along with vibrations –>
Movement of tectorial membrane creates shearing forces on hair cells –>
Depending on direction of forces, hair cells either depolarize or hyperpolarize

148
Q

Hair cells have two different types of “hairs”. What are they, and what are their major differences?

A

Stereocilia –> multiple, shorter “hairs”

Kinocilium –> a single, long “hair”

149
Q

What direction do the shearing forces have to be for hair cells to depolarize? To hyperpolarize?

A

Towards kinocilium –> depolarize

Away from kinocilium –> hyperpolarize

150
Q

The Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) passes through which foramina of the skull?

A

Internal auditory meatus (IAM)

151
Q

Name the three major causes of damage to hair cells, and give an example of each.

A
  • Disease: Meiniere’s disease
  • Oto-toxicity: antibiotic intoxication
  • Sound: gun shots
152
Q

In the central auditory pathway, what kind of organization can be found on every level of processing?

A

Tonotopic organization

153
Q

In the central auditory pathway, where do all signals converge, and where do they then go?

A

With the lateral lemniscus tract they converge to go to the inferior colliculus at midbrain level.

154
Q

Some some contributions to binaural interactions provided by the superior olive.

A
  • Sound localization

- Diagnostic characteristics

155
Q

Name one nervous structure (and its location) that serves as a mechanism to filter out unnecessary noise.

A

Medial geniculate body in the auditory division of the thalamus

156
Q

What are the two otolithic organs of the inner ear?

A
  • Utricle

- Saccule

157
Q

Describe the function of the otolithic organs.

A
  • Both consist of a flat sheet of hair cells with a specialized membrane (otolithic membrane) balanced on top.
  • This sheet is weighted with calcium carbonate crystals.
  • During linear acceleration, the weight of the crystals cause the membrane to lag behind the movement and create a shearing force.
  • The shearing force, same as in the cochlea, moves the “hairs” of the hair cells and transducts signals through the vestibular nerve.
158
Q

Describe the lateral vestibulo-spinal tract (LVST).

A
  • Vestibular nerve fibers which innervate the otolithic organs terminate on cells in the lateral vestibular nucleus in the medulla.
  • The axons forms a major tract which descends to the spinal cord LVST
  • It acts to excite/facilitate extensor motorneurons
159
Q

How many semicircular canals are there, and what are their directionalities?

A

3 total: 1 horizontal and 2 vertical

160
Q

Where are the cilia located in the semicircular canals?

A

They’re embedded in a gelatinous membrane called the cupula, which is located in a small swelling of the canal where it meets the ampule.

161
Q

What do the semicircular canals detect?

A

Angular acceleration

162
Q

What is the most important function of the semicircular canals?

A

To help maintain constant eye orientation in spite of movements of the head.

163
Q

What is the name of the fiber tract that connects the vestibular nuclei (in the brainstem) to CNs III, IV, and VI?

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

164
Q

If one were to turn one’s head to the left, describe the vestibular actions required to keep one’s eyes fixed on a single position.

A

TURNING LEFT!!
-Activates L-semicircular canal
-Increases firing in the L-vestibular nerve
-Increases input into the L-vestibular nucleus
-Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF) connections activate motor neurons innervating the R-lateral rectus muscle in the right eye
-Right eye turns right
MLF connections activate motorneurons innervating the L-medial rectus muscle in the left eye
-Left eye turns right

165
Q

Each olfactory receptor neuron has how many different protein receptors on it?

A

Only one.

166
Q

In the olfactory bulb, what is the purpose of the glomeruli?

A

A glomerulus is a focal spherical region where the terminal aborizations of many olfactory nerves contact the dendritic tree of a single mitral cell.

Each glomerulus processes information about a specific class of odorant molecules.

167
Q

Explain how every odorant molecule elicits a unique pattern of responses in a set of related olfactory receptor neurons (ORNs).

A

Each odor molecule stimulates the proteins of a specific subfamily, some strongly and others weakly.

168
Q

Describe the vomeronasal organ.

A
  • Incisive ducts open into paired, elongated ducts located in the hard palate.
  • The ducts are lined by olfactory and respiratory epithelium, surrounded by cartilage.
  • Vomeronasal system is specialized for pheromones involved in social and mating behaviors.
169
Q

Name some of the targets of olfactory bulb projections in the pyriform lobe.

A
  • Olfactory cortex
  • Olfactory trigone
  • Amygdala
  • Entorhinal cortex
170
Q

T/F: The amygdala is strongly interconnected with the olfactory system.

A

TRUE

171
Q

From the olfactory regions of the pyriform lobe, where are the projections?

A
  • Through the dorsomedial thalamus

- To the orbitofrontal and insular cortex

172
Q

Name some functional considerations of olfaction.

A
  • Feeding behavior (foraging, inspection, ingestion)
  • Mating
  • Trained sniffing dogs
173
Q

What are the four basic tastes? What causes each?

A
  • Saltiness –> presence of Na ions
  • Sourness –> acidity; hydronium ions
  • Sweetness –> presence of sugars
  • Bitterness –> distaste to avoid poisons
174
Q

As far as taste is concerned, what nerves innervate what?

A

CN VII –> rostral 2/3 of tongue
CN IX –> caudal 1/3 of tongue
CN X –> epiglottis, palate, larynx, pharynx

175
Q

What three stimuli result in what we refer to as “flavor”?

A

Taste + Smell + Chemical irritation

176
Q

From the cranial nerves associated with taste, where does the signal go next?

A

Rostral solitary nucleus in the medulla.

177
Q

What taste function does the gustatory neocortex near the SI face are serve?

A

Discriminative function

178
Q

What taste function does the anterior insular cortex serve?

A

Affective function

179
Q

What types of neurons are considered the final common pathway by which the brain and spinal cord influence motor output?

A

Alpha-motorneurons

180
Q

Define: Motor unit

A

A single alpha motorneuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

181
Q

T/F: Smaller motor units are found in muscles involved in fine motor control.

A

TRUE

182
Q

What is the result of more motor units being recruited, each firing more rapidly?

A

An increase in muscle tension

183
Q

Where do both alpha and gamma motor neurons originate?

A

Trigeminal motor nucleus

184
Q

If alpha-motorneurons innervate striated muscled fibers, what do gamma-motorneurons innervate?

A

Muscle spindles (aka intrafusal fibers)

185
Q

Where are golgi tendon organs located and what do they do?

A

Located in muscular tendons

They detect muscle tension

186
Q

What is the name of the test where a patient’s knee is tapped with a mallet? Describe the mechanics of the outcome.

A

The Myotactic reflex
A rapid stretching of the muscle and muscle spindles activates 1A afferents, producing a monosynaptic muscle contraction.

187
Q

In the example of the hand on hot stove, describe the Flexor reflex.

A
  • Extensors are inhibited when flexors are excited
  • Interneuron with filled cell body is inhibitory
  • Unfilled cell body is excitatory
188
Q

In the example of stepping on a nail, describe the crossed extension reflex.

A
  • On side of nail, extensors are inhibited and flexors are excited
  • On side counter to nail, extensors are excited and flexors are inhibited
  • As a result, posture is maintained
189
Q

Describe central pattern generators.

A
  • They operate at the local spinal level
  • They generate basic rhythmic motor output
  • Their activity is modified by descending input
190
Q

Which descending motor tracts maintain posture?

A

Ventromedial tracts

191
Q

What muscles are controlled by the ventromedial tracts?

A
  • Muscles of the axial skeleton
  • Muscles of limb girdles
  • Muscles of the proximal limb
192
Q

The lateral vestibulospinal tract is responsible for what, in reference to the descending motor tracts?

A
  • Stimulates extensors

- Inhibits flexors

193
Q

The reticulospinal tract is responsible for what, in reference to the descending motor tracts?

A
  • Stimulates flexors

- Inhibits extensors

194
Q

The tectospinal tract is responsible for what, in reference to the descending motor tracts?

A
  • Muscles of the neck and upper trunk

- Orienting responses

195
Q

What muscles are controlled by the dorsolateral tracts?

A

Distal muscles of the limbs

196
Q

T/F: The dorsolateral tracts are involved in involuntary movements.

A

FALSE

Involved in voluntary movements

197
Q

The rubropinal tract is responsible for what, in reference to the descending motor tracts?

A

Affects forelimb muscles

198
Q

The corticospinal tract is responsible for what, in reference to the descending motor tracts?

A

Affects distal muscles of both sets of limbs

199
Q

The corticopontine tracts, where do they terminate and what do they do?

A

erminates in the pontine nuclei

Influence the cerebellum

200
Q

The corticobulbar tracts, where do they travel and what do they do?

A

Travel from cortex to brainstem

Influence cranial nerve motor nuclei via the reticular formation.

201
Q

To what two areas does the corticospinal tract terminate?

A
  • Red nucleus

- Brainstem

202
Q

Name the descending pathways from the brainstem that modify the programs generated by spinal cord CPGs.

A
  • Vestibulospinal (VST)

- Reticulospinal (RetST)

203
Q

Name the descending pathways from the midbrain that modify the programs generated by spinal cord CPGs.

A
  • Tectospinal (TST)

- Rubrospinal (RST)

204
Q

Name the descending pathways from the cerebral cortex that modify the programs generated by spinal cord CPGs.

A
  • Corticorubral
  • Corticobulbar
  • Corticospinal
205
Q

Name some elements required for coordinated movement.

A
  • Intended direction
  • Force
  • Target
  • Feedback on the status of the current movement
206
Q

What is the role of the basal ganglia in the coordination of motor activity?

A

Continually updates which cortical activity is important, then gates the thalamus accordingly

207
Q

What is the role of the cerebellum in the coordination of motor activity?

A

Provides for precise timing of movements, with continual direct sensory feedback.

208
Q

What comprises the dorsal striatum in the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate + Putamen

209
Q

What comprises the ventral striatum in the basal ganglia?

A

Nucleus accumbens + Olfactory tubercle

210
Q

In the basal ganglia, each striatal neurons receives ~ 10,000 synapses. Are they mostly excitatory or inhibitory, and where are they coming from?

A

Excitatory

Cerebral cortex and Thalamus

211
Q

What is another name for the lateral hemisphere of the cerebellum?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

212
Q

What two sections comprise the spinocerbellum?

A

Vermis (central portion, saggitally)
+
Medial hemisphere (aka intermediate zone)

213
Q

What two structures comprise the vestibulocerebellum?

A

Nodulus + Flocculi

214
Q

Describe the roles of all three cerebellar peduncles.

A

Rostral Cerebellar Peduncle –> output to red nucleus
Middle Cerebellar Peduncle –> input from the pons
Caudal Cerebellar Peduncle –> input from vestibular nuclei, spinal cord; output to reticular formation and vestibular nn.

215
Q

T/F: All Purkinje cells project to deep cerebellar nuclei, which generate the outputs of the cerebellum to other brain regions.

A

FALSE
An exception is that Purkinje cells of the vestibulocerebellum synapse
directly on neurons in the vestibular nuclei. So in this resepct the
vestibular nuclei act as an additional deep cerebellar nucleus.

216
Q

For the vestibulocerebellum, what are the inputs? The outputs? The functions?

A

Inputs –> vestibular nerve and nuclei
Outputs –> vestibular nuclei
Function –> equillibrium; coordination of head and eye movements

217
Q

For the spinocerebellum, what are the inputs? The outputs? The functions?

A

Inputs –> spinal cord; trigeminal nerve; vestibular nerve
Outputs –> fastigial –> globose –> emboliform nuclei –> brainstem motor centers
Function –> vermis = posture and locomotion; medial hemispheres = motor coordination of extremities

218
Q

For the cerebrocerebellum, what are the inputs? The outputs? The functions?

A

Inputs –> pontine nuclei
Outputs –> dentate nucleus –> red nucleus –> motor thalamus –> motor and premotor cortex
Function –> planning movements and fine motor control

219
Q

For the following cerebellar dysfunction, give a brief description:

  • Ataxia
  • Dysmetria
  • Hypermetria
  • Wide-gait standing/walking
A

Ataxia –> incoordination in locomotion
Dysmetria –> inaccuracy of movement
Hypermetria –> overshooting of target
Wide-gait standing/walking –> width of stance

220
Q

Contrast the discriminative and affective components of sensation and experience.

A

Discriminative –> what is it? what color is it? What size is it?

Affective –> how does it feel to me?

221
Q

Name some locations the axons of dopaminergic neurons in the ventral tegmental area project to.

A
  • Amygdala
  • Septum
  • Ventral striatum
  • Ventral pallidum
  • Limbic cortex
222
Q

What major brain divisions are involved in the emotional brain?

A
  • Diencephalon
  • Brainstem
  • Spinal cord
223
Q

Name some of the components of the diencephalon that play a role in the emotional brain.

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Anterior thalamic nucleus
  • Mediodorsal thalamic nucleus
  • Mamillary body
224
Q

Name some of the components of the brainstem that play a role in the emotional brain.

A
  • Periaquductal gray
  • Monoaminergic cell bodies
  • Parabrachial nucleus
  • Solitary nucleus
  • Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X
225
Q

Name some of the components of the spinal cord that play a role in the emotional brain.

A
  • Intermediolateral cell column

- Sacral cord parasympathetics

226
Q

T/F: The hypothalamus and amygdala are strongly interconnected via the stria terminalis.

A

TRUE

227
Q

T/F: Neurons in several portions of the emotional brain contain neurons with receptors for steroid hormones.

A

TRUE

228
Q

What are the two main subcortical axon tracts linking the prosencephalic and brainstem portions of the emotional brain? Describe the axons of these tracts.

A
  • Medial forebrain bundle
  • Dorsal longitudinal fasciculus

Axons are thinly myelinated.

229
Q

Name the major regions of motor output from the emotional brain.

A
  • Amygdala
  • Hypothalamus
  • Septum
  • Cingulate
  • Orbitofrontal cortex
  • Insular cortex
230
Q

Name some common neurotransmitters used by monoaminergic neurons in the emotional brain.

A
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Noradrenaline
231
Q

The emotional brain functions in coordination with which three major body systems?

A
  • Somatomotor
  • Visceromotor
  • Endocrine
232
Q

Name some emotional behaviors that are goals of the emotional brain.

A
  • Eating food
  • Drinking
  • Fighting
  • Escaoe
  • Courtship
  • Mating
  • Social
233
Q

What system is often referred to as the “reward pathway”?

A

The mesolimbic dopaminergic system

234
Q

Name the main target of dopaminergic input in the “reward pathway”. This goal is apart of the…?

A

Nucleus accumbens

main component of the ventral striatum

235
Q

Compare and contrast the functions and aspects of the two parallel striato-pallidal pathways.

A 
VENTRAL
Behavioral role --> emotional
Pallidal target --> ventral pallidum
Thalamic target --> mediodorsal nucleus
Source of input --> ventral tegmental area
DORSAL
Behavioral role --> cognitive
Pallidal target --> dorsal pallidum
Thalamic target --> ventrolateral nucleus
Source of input --> substantia nigra
236
Q

What role in the emotional brain does the periaqueductal gray of the midbrain play?

A

Coordinates behavioral and autonomic responses to threatening situations.

  • Fight/Flight response
  • Freezing response
  • Vocal expression
237
Q

What types of reactions does the amygdala manage?

A

Survival reactions, particularly those associated with fear.

238
Q

Name some systems acting upon the amygdala.

A
  • Visual system
  • Auditory system
  • Somatic sensory system
  • Olfactory system
  • Stress hormones from the adrenal gland
239
Q

Describe the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC).

A
  • Receives input from olfactory, taste, vision, and somatosensation.
  • Involved in learning which stimuli are rewarding and which are not.
240
Q

Name some of the information integrated by the insular cortex.

A
  • Body homeostasis
  • Pain
  • Temperature
  • Visceral afferents
  • Sensations of stress

**Collectively known as interoception

241
Q

How are afferents from the insular cortex conveyed to the thalamus?

A

Via small caliber axons that travel with the spinothalamic tract (STT).

242
Q

Contrast the insula and the cingulate cortex.

A

Insula –> feeling

Cingulate cortex –> motivations

243
Q

The temporal pole cortex is important in representing what?

A

Abstract, conceptual knowledge.

244
Q

What are some valuable questions to ask an owner when getting a neurological history?

A
  • Vaccination status
  • Travel history
  • Toxin exposure
  • History of trauma
  • Previous therapy
  • Other illness
245
Q

Name some signs of a pons deformity.

A
  • Depression
  • Trigeminal atrophy of the head
  • Reflexes normal or hyper
  • Ipsilateral hemiparesis
246
Q

Name some signs of idiopathic facial nerve paralysis.

A
  • Inability to move eyelid, lip, and ear
  • Loss of palpebral reflex
  • Decreased tear production
247
Q

What is vestibular syndrome?

A
  • Loss of balance
  • Difficulty walking
  • Abnormal posture
  • Abnormal eye movement
248
Q

Name some factors that influence neuroplasticity.

A
  • Hormones
  • E-Stimulation
  • Disease
  • Experience
  • Injury
  • Drugs
249
Q

T/F: Brain reorganization is learning independent.

A

FALSE

Dependent

250
Q

Name the four measurements of neuroplasticity following a stroke.

A
  • Behavioral
  • Motor mapping
  • Histological
  • Functional MRI

my Veterinary Neuroscience (6 decks)

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