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Beechcraft King Air 350 > QUIZLET ADDTL > Flashcards

QUIZLET ADDTL Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Takeoff Torque

A

100%

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2
Q

Maximum Continuous Torque

A

100%

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3
Q

Maximum Transient Torque

A

156% (20 seconds)

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4
Q

Maximum Starting ITT

A

1000°C

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5
Q

Maximum Idle ITT

A

750°C

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6
Q

Maximum Takeoff ITT

A

820°C

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7
Q

Maximum Continuous ITT

A

820°C

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8
Q

Maximum Transient ITT

A

850°C (20 seconds)

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9
Q

Maximum Takeoff N1

A

104%

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10
Q

Minimum Idle N1

A

62%

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11
Q

Maximum Continuous N1

A

104%

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12
Q

Maximum Transient N1

A

104%

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13
Q

Maximum Takeoff Propeller RPM

A

1700 RPM

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14
Q

Maximum Continuous Propeller RPM

A

1700 RPM

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15
Q

Maximum Transient Propeller RPM

A

1870 (20 seconds)

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16
Q

Starting Oil Pressure

A

0-200 PSI

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17
Q

Takeoff Oil Pressure

A

90-135 PSI

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18
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Pressure

A

90-135 PSI

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19
Q

Maximum Transient Oil Pressure

A

200 PSI

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20
Q

Minimum Starting Oil Temperature

A

-40°C

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21
Q

Takeoff Oil Temperature

A

0-110°C

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22
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Temperature

A

0-110°C

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23
Q

Oil Temperature Limit for 99-110°C

A

10 minutes

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24
Q

External Power Volts

A

28.0-28.4 volts

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25
Q

External Power Amps - Continuously

A

300 amps

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26
Q

External Power Amps - Momentarily

A

1000 amps

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27
Q

Generator In Flight Limit - Sea Level to 34,000 feet

A

100%

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28
Q

Minimum Starting Oil Temperature

A

-40°C

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29
Q

Takeoff Oil Temperature

A

0-110°C

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30
Q

Maximum Continuous Oil Temperature

A

0-110°C

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31
Q

Oil Temperature Limit for 99-110°C

A

10 minutes

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32
Q

External Power Volts

A

28.0-28.4 volts

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33
Q

External Power Amps - Continuously

A

300 amps

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34
Q

External Power Amps - Momentarily

A

1000 amps

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35
Q

Generator In Flight Limit - Sea Level to 34,000 feet

A

100%

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36
Q

Generator In Flight Limit - 34,000 to 35,000 feet

A

95%

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37
Q

Generator Load Limit on Ground - 62-70% N1

A

75%

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38
Q

Generator Load Limit on Ground - 70-100% N1

A

100%

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39
Q

Starter Limits

A

30 sec ON, 5 min OFF
30 sec ON, 5 min OFF,
30 sec ON, 30 min OFF

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40
Q

Approved Engine Commercial Fuels

A

Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B

JP-4, JP-5, JP-8

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41
Q

Approved Emergency Engine Fuels

A

RED 80,
GREEN 91/96, 100,
BLUE 100LL,
PURPLE115/145

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42
Q

Conditions of Emergency Engine Fuels

A

Maximum of 150 hours between engine overhauls. Operations prohibited if either standby pump inoperative. Crossfeed capability is required over 20,000 feet.

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43
Q

Total Usable Fuel

A

3611 lbs.

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44
Q

Usable Fuel in Each Main Tank

A

1273 lbs.

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45
Q

Usable Fuel in Each Auxiliary Tank

A

533 lbs.

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46
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance Between Sides

A

300 lbs.

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47
Q

Conditions of Fuel Crossfeed

A

Only during single engine operations.

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48
Q

Yellow Arc of Fuel Gage

A

Do not attempt a takeoff.

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49
Q

Which fuel tank must be filled first?

A

Main Tanks

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50
Q

Time Limit with L Fuel Pressure

A

10 hours before standby pump must be overhauled

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51
Q

Maximum Propeller Reverse RPM

A

1650 RPM

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52
Q

Minimum Propeller RPM

A

1050 RPM

53
Q

Propeller RPM Overspeed Limit

A

1768 RPM (96% torque or less)

54
Q

Autofeather Must be Operable for What Conditions?

A

All flight conditions.

55
Q

Autofeather Must be Armed for What Conditions?

A

Takeoff, climb, approach, landing.

56
Q

Cabin Differential Pressure Gage Green Arc

A

0-6.6 PSI

57
Q

Cabin Differential Pressure Gage Red Arc

A

Above 6.6 PSI

58
Q

Pneumatic Pressure Gage Green Arc

A

12-20 PSI

59
Q

Pneumatic Pressure Gage Red Line

A

20 PSI

60
Q

Vacuum Gage Narrow Green Arc (15,000 to 35,000 feet)

A

2.8-4.3”Hg

61
Q

Vacuum Gage Wide Green Arc (Sea Level to 15,000 feet)

A

4.3-5.9”Hg

62
Q

Vacuum Gage 35K Mark

A

3.0 PSI

63
Q

Vacuum Gage 15K Mark

A

4.3 PSI

64
Q

Propeller Deice Ammeter Green Arc

A

26-32 AMPS

65
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

A

15,100 lbs.

66
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

15,000 lbs.

67
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

15,000 lbs.

68
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

12,500 lbs.

69
Q

Maximum Cargo Weight

A

550 lbs.

70
Q

Maximum Flaps Up Load Factor

A

+3.1g’s , -1.24g’s

71
Q

Maximum Flaps Down Load Factor

A

+2.0g’s , -0.0g’s

72
Q

Maximum Altitude

A

35,000 feet

73
Q

Maximum Operating Air Temperature Sea Level to 25,000’

A

ISA +37°C

74
Q

Maximum Operating Air Temperature 25,000’ to 35,000’

A

ISA +31°C

75
Q

Landing Gear Cycle Limits

A

1 Cycle X 6 then 15 min cool down

76
Q

Maximum Temperature for Operating Brake Deice

A

15°C

77
Q

Minimum Ambient Temperature for Deicing Boots

A

-40°C

78
Q

Minimum Airspeed for Icing

A

140 knots

79
Q

Electric heat must be turned off ____ minutes before and during engine start.

A

2 minutes

80
Q

Cockpit door must be ____ while using electric heat.

A

open

81
Q

All aft facing seats must be in the _____ position and the headset must be fully _____ for takeoff and landing.

A

upright, extended

82
Q

Composite mode operation is limited to _____.

A

failures, training

83
Q

The pilot and co-pilot Air Data Computers must be _____ for takeoff.

A

operative

84
Q

AHRS 1 and 2 must be ____ for takeoff.

A

operative

85
Q

The pilot PDF and MFD and co-pilot PFD must be ____ for takeoff.

A

installed and operational in normal mode

86
Q

The MFD must be ____ prior to engine start.

A

operational

87
Q

During autopilot operations a pilot must be ____.

A

seated at the controls with the seat belt and shoulder harness fastened

88
Q

Autopilot preflight check must be ____.

A

satisfactory prior to each flight on which the autopilot is to be used

89
Q

Minimum autopilot engage height after takeoff:

A

400’ AGL

90
Q

Minimum autopilot use height during cruise:

A

1000’ AGL

91
Q

Minimum autopilot use height during approach:

A

79’ AGL

92
Q

Minimum autopilot use height during a steep approaches:

A

160’ AGL

93
Q

Maximum airspeed for autopilot:

A

Vmo

94
Q

Autopilot and yaw damper must not be used during ____.

A

takeoff and landing

95
Q

Autopilot system operation with a pitch trim malfunction is _____.

A

prohibited

96
Q

Maximum coupled intercept angle intercept angle for NAV and LOC is _____.

A

90°

97
Q

Maximum coupled intercept angle intercept angle for LOC BC is _____.

A

70°

98
Q

Do not rely on the Terrain Awareness Display for ____.

A

navigation

99
Q

Inhibit the Terrain Awareness Display by ____.

A

selecting TERR INHIBIT switch when winthin 15nm of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport not contained in the EGPWS Airport Database

100
Q

The Terrain Awareness alerting must be inhibited by selecting the TERR INHIB switchlight when ____.

A

the FMS is operating in the DR mode

101
Q

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is prohibited unless ____.

A

the pilot verified either the currency of the database or the accuracy of each selected waypoint and navaid by reference to current approved data

102
Q

The FMS position must be ____.

A

checked for accuracy prior to use as means of navigation

103
Q

The FMS shall not be used for navigation ____.

A

during periods of dead reckoning

104
Q

FMS based instrument approaches must be accomplished in accordance with ____.

A

approved instrument approach procedures that are retrieved from the FMS-3000 database

105
Q

GPS instrument approaches must be conducted with ____.

A

GPS integrity monitoring (RAIM) and must be available by the Final Approach FIX

106
Q

To indicated the FMS is in the Approach Mode:

A

Green APPR or GPS APPR annunciator must be displayed on the PFD at the FAF.

107
Q

When the NO APPR annunciator is displayed on the PFD:

A

Use of FMS guidance for conducting instrument approach procedures is prohibited.

108
Q

Accomplishment of ILS, LOV, LOC BC, LDA and SDF approaches are ____.

A

not authorized utilizing the FMS from the FAF to the MAP

109
Q

When an alternate airport is required by the applicable rules ____.

A

it must be served by an approach based on other than GPS navigation

110
Q

Use of FMS to capture and track a DME arc outside the published end points is ____.

A

prohibited

111
Q

Fuel management parameters are advisory only and ____.

A

must not replace the primary fuel quantity indications

112
Q

When using the VNAV system, the barometric altimeters must be used as the primary altitude reference for ____.

A

all operations

113
Q

Use of VNAV guidance for a V-MDA approach that includes a step-down fix between the final approach fix and missed approach point ____.

A

is prohibited

114
Q

VNAV altitudes must be displayed in the MFD map page or CDU legs page when ____.

A

utilizing VNAV for flight guidance

115
Q

Use of VNAV while conducting a missed approach procedure is ____.

A

prohibited

116
Q

If the FMS is receiving usable sensor inputs, it meets the ____.

A

accuracy specifications of VNAV operation in accordance with AC 20-129

117
Q

VNAV approach guidance to a DA is not authorized if the reported surface temperature is ____.

A

below the Baro-VNAV minimum temperature limitation specified on the applicable RNAV approach procedure chart

118
Q

Maximum approved approach angle is ____.

A

5.5°

119
Q

One-Engine-Inoperative steep approaches ____.

A

not approved

120
Q

Flaps UP steep approaches ____.

A

not approved

121
Q

Steep approaches are only approved when the following configuration is established no later than the final approach fix, or 3 nm from the runway during visual approaches: both engines:____, flaps:____, prop levers:____, approach speed:____.

A

operative, full down, full forward, Vref or Vref+15 with ice

122
Q

Steep approaches are approved only when using vertical guidance provided by an approved ____.

A

FMS or ILS or Ground Based Visual Reference System

123
Q

FMS defined approaches ____.

A

not approved using autopilot; use of flight director approved

124
Q

Maximum tailwind for steep approaches ____.

A

5 knots

125
Q

Stall Speed (Vso) - Flaps Down, Power Idle, Max Weight

A

81 KIAS

126
Q

Stall Speed (Vs1) - Flaps Approach, Power Idle, Mas Weight

A

89 KIAS

127
Q

Stall Speed (Vs1) - Flaps Up, Power Idle, Max Weight

A

96 KIAS

128
Q

satisfactory prior to each flight on which the autopilot is to be used

A

400’ AGL

Beechcraft King Air 350 (13 decks)

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