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Surgery #2 > Quizes 1-10 w/o the instrument one > Flashcards

Quizes 1-10 w/o the instrument one Flashcards

1
Q

Term for surgical puncture of urinary bladder

A

Cytocentesis

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2
Q

term for fusion of a joint

A

Arthrodesis

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3
Q

Term for surgical fixation of the stomach to the abdominal wall

A

Gastropexy/gastropexis

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4
Q

term for surgical incision into the esophagus

A

esophagatomy

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5
Q

Term for surgical creation of new opening into the colon

A

Colostomy

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6
Q

term for surgical removal of the spleen

A

splenectomy

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7
Q

term for surgical reconstruction of the larynx

A

laryngoplasty

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8
Q

term for surgical suturing a hernia

A

herniorrhaphy

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9
Q

term for visullay examining the inside of a joint

A

arthroscopy

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10
Q

term for rupture of the intestine

A

enterorrhexis

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11
Q

infection that occurs in the hospital is called

A

nosocomial

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12
Q

process of destroying all microorganisms, including spores is known as

A

sterilization

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13
Q

T/F minimum standard for gravity displacement steam autoclave set to run at 15 psi and 250 F is 30 min

A

TRUE

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14
Q

T/F Strike through is the term used to describe contamination that occurs when moisture carries bacT from non-sterile surface to a sterile surface

A

True

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15
Q

T/F Antisepsis is the destruction of microorganisms on animate living objects whereas disinfection is the destruction of microorganisms on an inanimate object

A

True

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16
Q

T/F Solid bowls or basins should be placed upside down or on edge when placed in autoclave

A

True

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17
Q

T/F greatest resistance to steam sterilization is removal of air, therefore the pre-vaccum sterilizer is more effective than the gravity displacement sterilizer since it is more efficient at air removal

A

True

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18
Q

When a chemical sterilization indicator changes color, you can be assured that sterilization has occured

A

False

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19
Q

Regirgitation ans aspiration pneumonia are potential anesthetic complications that can be minimized by withholding food and/or water for a period of time before induction of anesthesia, What are the fasting protocols for these specieses:

Dog

Horse

Cow

A

Dog: 6-12 hrs, no food, free water

Horse: 6-12 hrs no food, free water

Cow: 24-48 hours no food, no water 12-24hours

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20
Q

T/F all body systems should be evaluated prior to anesthesia but you should concentrate on the cardiovascularm respiratory and central nervous system

A

True

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21
Q

The overall incidence of glove defects increases significantly in surgical procedures exceeding ____ minutes in length

A

60

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22
Q

T/F Best group of drugs to inhibit transmission of sensory afferent nerve impulses of pain are the local anesthetics

A

TRUE

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23
Q

T/F The concept of multimodal anesthesia is to attack the pain from multiple sites in the nervous system which allows the use of reduced drug dosages, greater safety and greater effectiveness

A

True

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24
Q

Where does wind up occure?

A

spinal cord

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25
Q

Hair removal prior to surgical skin preparation should be accomplished with:

A

40 clipper just prior to surgery

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of Halstead’s surgical principles:

Use aseptic technique
Use pre-op antibiotics
Use sharp tissue dissection
Employ meticulous hemostasis

A

USe of pre-op antibiotics

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27
Q

T/F one of the principles of restraint in large animals is that in most instances if you control the head, your control the animals

A

True

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28
Q

T/F It is important to use adequate protective padding when operating on large animal such as a horse or cow in recumbancy to prevent facial and radial nerve paralysis as well as ischemia myositis of the dependent musculature

A

True

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29
Q

What are the 5 major steps involved in the pain pathway?

A 
Transduction
Transmission
Modulation
Projection
Perception
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30
Q

Which tissue will heal more quickly when sutured under normal circumstances?

Urinary bladder
Skin
Muscle fascia
tendon

A

Urinary bladder

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31
Q

All nonabsorbale sutures induce a cellular response, but some are worse than others, which of the following would be considered the most potentially reactive?

Nylon
Polypropylene
Silk
Steel

A

Silk

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32
Q

What type of needle would be the most appropriate to use when anastomosing a blood vessel that has been severed?

A

Taper

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33
Q

Which of the following is the smallest diameter suture material?

0
00
000
0000

A

00000

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34
Q

Which of the following suture materials is broken down by hydrolysis?

polyester
polypropylene
polyglycolic acid
Chromic catgut

A

Polyglycolic acid

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35
Q

T/F Cat gut is a natural suture derivied from the submucosa of cats

A

False

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36
Q

What instrument does not remove the testicle when performing castration?

A

Burdizzo Emasculatome

37
Q

Which absorbable synthetic monofilament suture retains ~50% of its breaking strength out to 4 weeks?

A

PDS

38
Q

Which synthetic monofilament suture never looses its original tensile strength

A

Prolene

39
Q

Which of the following can be a possible consequence of protein-calorie malnutrition?

Muscle atrophy due to protein catabolism
impaired immunocompetence
delayed wound healing

A

ALL of them

40
Q

In situations of severe trauma there is an increased blood cortisol level, what is the mechansim for this increase

A

corticotropin releasing hormone released from hypothalamus

stimulates the release of SCTH from anterior pituitary gland

activates pathways in the zona fasiculata of the adrenal gland

leads to teh pdx of cortisol

41
Q

In small animals the Systemic Response Syndrome SIRS is characterized by 2 or more specific criteria, What are they?

A

Decreased or increased temperature, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, and increased/decreased white blood cell count

42
Q

It is important for the surgeon to recognize the metabolic changes that occur in a traumatized patient, and to provide the proper nutritional support to counteract the adverse effects that occur. Which of the following best summarizes the metabolic response to injury?

A

Increased protein catabolism, increased Basal Energy Requirement (BER), increased utilization of triglycerides for energy, increased gluconeogenesis, and decreased utilization of glucose in muscle.

43
Q

What is the predominant energy source during critical illness and following severe injury?

A

Triglycerides from adipose stores in the body

44
Q

The most common nutritional state in the post-operative patient is a negative nitrogen balance due to

A

Increased metabolic demand and decreased caloric intake

45
Q

The most common nutritional state in the post-operative patient is a negative nitrogen balance due to

A

Increased metabolic demand and decreased caloric intake

46
Q

T/F If the post-operative small animal patient will not eat, but the GI tract is still functional, then enteral hyperalimentation is much preferred to over parenteral hyperalimentation.

A

True

47
Q

Analgesics must be given before a painful stimulus in order to prevent central nervous system “wind up”

A

True

48
Q

Pain perception requires a series of steps within the nervous system. Match the step with the nervous system location.

Transduction
Transmission
Modualtion
Projection
Perception
A

Transduction Tissue level nociceptors
Transmission Peripheral sensory nerves
Modualtion doral horn of spinal cord grey matter
Projection spinal cord nerve tracts
Perception multiple areas of the brain

49
Q

Which of the following is considered the 4th vital sign in veterinary medicine?

temperature
pulse
respiration
behavior
pain eval
A

pain eval

50
Q

Which of the following suture patterns should never be used to close the skin?

Ford interlocking
Halstead
Vertical mattress
Horizontal mattress

A

Halstead

51
Q

Which of the following is not an inverting suture pattern?

Cushing
Lembert
Gambee
Connell

A

Gambee

52
Q

If you see granulation tissue in a wound you know atleast that part of the wound is in the _______ phase of wound healing

A

Proliferation/repair

53
Q

Which of the following tissue components is NOT present in granulation tissue?

fibroblasts
capillaries
nerves
collagen

A

NErves

54
Q

T/F Wound contraction will not occur until there is a complete bed of healthy granulation tissue present.

A

True

55
Q

T/F Remodeling and maturation of the scar may take a year or more, but eventually the wound regains its original strength

A

False

56
Q

Which growth factor is considered to have the greatest “profibrotic” influence on wound repair?

A

TGF-B

57
Q

The primary cell type responsible for hemostasis and the initiation of the inflammatory phase of wound healing is the

A

platelet

58
Q

Which of the following can be used as a tension suture pattern?

Far-far-near-near
Far-near-near-far
Vertical mattress

A

All of the above

59
Q

Which wound dressing would NOT be appropriate for use in a wound that is in the reparative phase and you are trying to encourage epithelialzation?

Hydrogel
Telfa (perforated polyester film)
Adaptic petrolatum emulsion guaze
Rayon/polyethylene fabric

A

Adaptic petrolatum emulsion guaze

60
Q

Which of the following dressings will provide mechanical debridement of a wound in the inflammatory/debridement phase of wound healing?

Calcium Alginate dressing
Hyrogel dressing
Wet-to-dry gauze dressing
Hydrocolloid dressing

A

Wet-to-dry gauze dressing

61
Q

T/F
Exuberant granulation tissue in the horse appears to be caused by motion and chronic inflammation leading to an imbalance in growth factors and cytokines leading to a proliferation of fibroblasts and extracellular matrix production.

A

True

62
Q

The topical steroid of choice in inhibiting exuberant granulation tissue in the horse is

dexamethasone
methylprednisolone
triamcinolone
betamethasone

A

triamcinolone

63
Q

The characteristic radiographic changes that occur with the development of superficial osteitis and sequestrum formation can usually be detected within

A

12-14 days

64
Q

The most common type of dressing used to protect a post operative incision is

A

Polyurethane film (Opsite)

65
Q

T/F For any given wound allowed to heal on its own by second intention, the more contraction that takes place and the less epithelialization that is required, the smaller the scar and the better the cosmetic result.

A

TRUE

66
Q

There are multiple ways in which to deliver low pressure wound lavage. Which system provides the most consistent pressure of 7-8 PSI?

A

IV bag and tubing, and 18 ga. needle using pressure bag set to 300 mmHg

67
Q

You are treating a degloving injury to the distal extremity of a dog.
The wound has a complete layer of granulation tissue and is starting to contract and epithelialize but it still producing a heavy amount of exudate. What type of primary wound dressing would be most appropriate in this situation?

A

Foam

68
Q

You are presented with a wound to the metacarpus of a 3 yr. old Quarter Horse gelding. The wound occurred an hour ago when the horse tangled with a barbed wire fence. Your assessment is that no vitals structures have been damaged and you can suture the wound. The horse is very easy to handle so you can complete the procedure with the horse standing. List the correct order of steps to be followed in managing this wound.

A

Admin prophylatic antibiotics IV

Admin IV sedation

Pack wound w/ saline soaked gauze and clip the hisr around the wound

pack wound w/ saline soaked gauze and clean the skin w/ antiseptic detergent

Anesthetize the skin around wound w/ local anesthetic

Debride wound of all dead/damaged tissue using sharp dissection and wound lavage using saline PSI 8

Suture skin w/ 2-0 nylon in simple interrupted

Apply sterile non-adherent dressing and sheet cotton or combine bandage in place in Vetrap

69
Q

Which bandage materials is used for the tertiary layer of a soft padded bandage in the dog?

A

Vetrap

70
Q

Which dressing will provide mechanical debridement of a wound in the inflammatory/debridement phase of wound healing?

A

Wet-to-dry gauze dressing

71
Q

The Robert Jones bandage can be used for pre-operative coaptation and temporary support of several small animal limb fractures. However, it would be contraindicated for use in a fracture of the

A

femur

72
Q

T/F
Following surgery to repair a lacerated flexor tendon, you should apply a soft padded bandage to provide support to the limb.

A

False

73
Q

The most common type of dressing used to protect a post operative incision is

A

Polyurethane film (Opsite)

74
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the differences in healing between lower extremity and upper body wounds?

Lower extremity wounds heal faster and with more contraction and less epithelialization than upper body wounds.

Lower extremity wounds heal slower and with more contraction and more epithelialization than upper body wounds.

Lower extremity wounds heal slower and with less contraction and more epithelialization than upper body wounds.

Lower extremity wounds heal faster and with less contraction and less epithelialization than upper body wounds.

A

Lower extremity wounds heal slower and with less contraction and more epithelialization than upper body wounds.

75
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics should be administered

A

intravenously 30-60 minutes prior to the start of surgery, repeated every 2 hours during surgery and discontinued at the end of surgery

76
Q

The most common source of post operative infections is

A

the patient’s endogenous bacterial flora

77
Q

The most important thing you can do to assist the healing of a traumatic wound is

A

thoroughly debride all necrotic and devitalized tissue and foreign material

78
Q

The challenge is to distinguish between post-traumatic or postsurgical inflammation, and postsurgical infection. It is important to realize that most postoperative infections take __________ to develop the classic signs.

A

2-5 days

79
Q

A graft transferred from one site to another on the same individual is termed a

A

Autograft

80
Q

Transplanted skin survives on the recipient bed for the first 24-48 hrs by

A

Plasmatic imbibition

81
Q

Healthy appearing granulation tissue may still harbor enough bacteria to interfere with graft acceptance. The best way to reduce the bacterial load prior to grafting is

A

Avulse or shave off the granulation tissue 24 hrs prior to grafting

82
Q

T/F
Because island grafts are inserted into the recipient bed granulation tissue, they are less susceptable to disruptive shearing forces that can dislodge them compared to sheet grafts that are laid on the wound bed surface, and they have more surface area for revascularization, giving them a high success rate of take.

A

True

83
Q

T/F
Revascularization of any type of free graft is dependent upon an intact fibrin layer to act as a scaffold for capillary ingrowth from the recipient bed.

A

True

84
Q

Removal of a rubber ball from the stomach of a dog through a gastrotomy incision would be classified as

A

Clean-contaminated

85
Q

Which of the following suture patterns provides the best opportunity for primary healing of the intestine?

Simple continuous
Lembert
Cushing
Connell

A

simple continuos

86
Q

Which layer of the bowel has the greatest suture holding strength and must be incorporated in each bite?

A

Submucosa

87
Q

T/F When performing elective surgery, if possible, always make your incision parallel to the animals natural skin tension lines. This makes closure easier and helps prevent dog ears

A

True

88
Q

Which of these complications of small intestinal surgery can be attributed to poor surgical technique?

Leakage > peritonitis
Dehiscence > peritonitis
Stricture > Obstruction
All the above

A

All of them

Surgery #2 (2 decks)

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