Quiz Review: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Flashcards
Beta 1 adrenergic receptors are linked to which G-protein:
-Gs
Which is the following is the main mechanism of signal termination for norepinephrine:
Presynaptic reuptake
Which medication has the highest risk of developing tachyarrhythmias?
-Epinephrine
To reduce the risk of toxicity with nitroprusside, which medication may be added to the same bag for prevention:
-sodium thiosulfate
Which medication is safest to reduce blood pressure for patients with coronary artery disease?
nitroglycerine
-When deciding between phenylephrine and ephedrine for a pregnant patient, which parameter should be considered:
heart rate
T/F: Vasopressin is always preferred over epinephrine due to improved effectiveness during cardiac arrest:
False
Which medication has the highest risk of agitation or psychosis when given for an extended period of time
- ephedrine
- norepinephrine
Hydralazine predominantly affects which part of the vasculature:
Dilates arteries to reduce afterload
Which electrolyte is responsible for aiding in Norepinephrine release from its presynaptic vesicle?
Calcium
What is the main mechanism of ephedrine tachyphylaxis?
-Reduced norepinephrine release
Enalaprilat is responsible for blocking the enzyme responsible for which reaction:
Angiotensin1 to angiotensin 2
Which of the following would be the least safe to give to a pregnant patient:
enalaprilat
Midazolam is a CYP3A4 substrate. Diltiazem is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. What reaction may happen when given together:
Over sedation
If dexmedetomidine is given as a rapid bolus, what cardiovascular side effects are possible:
-hypertension and bradycardia
Which electrolyte needs to be monitored closely when a patient is taking an ACE inhibitor?
-Potassium
Which pharmacokinetic parameter is responsible for esmolol’s short duration of action metabolim:
Metabolism
Which beta blocker has the highest risk of side effects due to its extended mechanism of action?
Labetalol
Which beta blocker could possibly exacerbate bronchospasms:
-Propranolol
When organ damage is caused by accelerate hypertension, it is important to correct the blood pressure as quickly as possible to avoid further damage:
FALSE
Which of the follwoing does not need to be tapered to avoid withdrawal symptoms:
Nicardipine
Which of the following is the most potent negative inotrope?
Verapamil
A patient experiencing clonidine withdrawal may have all of the following side effects except:
bradycardia
Which electrolyte abnormality greatly increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity:
hypokalemia
Increasing heart rate puts a patient at risk of developing arrhythmias. which of the following has the highest risk of arrhythmia developement:
Isoproterenol
Which lab value should be monitored closely after administration of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor:
Platelets
Which type of arrhythmia is the most frequent cause of death from digoxin toxicity:
Ventricular fibrillation
What may be present on EKG when a patient is taking digoxin to suggest digoxin therapy, not toxicity:
Swooping ST segment
According to the ALARM-AF trial, the use of inotropes has the possibility of increasing in hispital mortality.
TRUE
Which receptor does dobutamine not effect:
Dopamine
Which medication mmay potentially depress the ventilatory response to hypoemia due to it’s interaction with the carotid bodies:
Dopamine
What is the general principle of the Frank Starling Curve:
Stroke volume increases with End diastolic Volume
At high doses, which medication predominantly have alpha 1 effects:
- Norepinephrine
- Dopamine
- Epinephrine
Phase 0 of the action potential is effected by which electrolyte AND which class of antiarrhythmic:
- Sodium
- Class1
Reentry type arrhythmias are regulated predominantly by which electrolyte?
Sodium
Torsades de Pointes (TdP) may be exacerbated by which electrolyte abnormality?
-Hypomagnesemia
Which medication would be inappropriate for the treatment of atrial fibrillation?
-Lidocaine
Which class of medication carries the highest proarrhythmic risk:
1c
Lidocaine is classified as which type of antiarrhythmic:
1b
A patient with Lupus should avoid which antiarrhytmic if possible, due to exacerbation of the condition?
Procainamide
Adenosine produces an arrhythmia to stop an arrhythmia. What is seen on EKG after a dose of adenosine:
Third degree heart block
Amiodarone has several significant side effects. Which of the following would not be caused by amiodarone?
Acute kidney failure and electrolyte abnormalities
Verapamil will exacerbate an arrhythmia that has a re-entry mechanism?
True
Which of the following medication may precipitate TdP?
Amiodarone
Which adenosine receptor is primarily found in the cardiomyocytes:
A1
Which of the following medications inhibits both bound and unbound clotting factors?
Alteplase
Which ADP inhibitor only needs to be held 5 days prior to a procedure due to it’s reversible mechanism of action:
-Ticagrelor
Which clotting factor combines the intrinsic and extinsic pathways to inititae the common pathway, and is also a drug target for several medication s, including warfarin, heparin, and enoxaparin
Xa
A pregnant patient with a DVT may use which medication:
Enoxaparin
A patient with a history of heparin induced thrombocytopenia may safely use which medication in the future for anticoagulation:
Bivaludin
Which new oral medication has a similar mechanism of action to argatroban?
-Dabigatran
Which of the following medications has the longest hold time prior to surgery:
-Clopidogrel
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia occurs how soon after initiation of the medciation in a heparin naive patient :
1 to 2 weeks
Which of the following reaction is inhibited by amicar
Plasminogen to plasmin
Which new anticoagulant has recommendation for discontinuation prior to surgery based on the patient’s kidney function?
Dabigatran`
Which clotting factors are inhibited by Warfarin
- 2
- 7
- 9
- 10
