Quiz questions patho midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Urge incontinence is characterized by:

A) Continuous leaking of urine
B) Sudden, intense urges to urinate
C) Leakage due to weak abdominal muscles
D) Overflow of retained urine

A

B) Sudden, intense urges to urinate

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2
Q

Wilms’ tumor is a kidney cancer that primarily affects:

A) Elderly adults
B) Middle-aged men
C) Children
D) Pregnant women

A

C - Wilms’ tumor is a rare kidney cancer in children.

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3
Q

Factors that determine the osmotic pressure include all of the following except:
A. the permeability of the cell membrane
B. the size of the molecule
C. the charge of the molecule
D. the molecule’s concentration gradien

A

C. the charge of the molecule

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4
Q

What of the electrolytes is found in the highest concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF)?

sodium
calcium
potassium
chloride

A

Potassium

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5
Q

What is the client with edema at risk of developing?

pressure ulcers
increased cellular oxygenation
hypotension
bradycardia

A

Pressure Ulcers

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6
Q

Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF) compartments is determined by:
plasma oncotic pressure
osmotic forces
buffer systems
antidiuretic hormone

A

Osmotic forces

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7
Q

Which of the following patients is most at risk of developing hypernatremia? A patient with:
diuretic use
hyoaldosteronism
dehydration
vomiting

A

dehydration

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8
Q

Which of the following patients is most at risk of developing hypochloremia? A patient with:

hypercalcemia
hypernatremia
increased bicarbonate intake
hypokalemia

A

Increased Bicarb intake

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9
Q

Which accurately describes electrolytes?

small lipid soluble molecules
micronutrients used to produce ATP
electrically charged molecules
large protein molecules

A

Electrically charged moleucules

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10
Q

When planning care for the elderly, the nurse must remember that the elderly are at greater risk of dehydration because they have a(n):

higher total body water volume
increased tendency toward developing edema
increase in thirst
decreased muscle mass

A

decreased muscle mass

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11
Q

A 35 year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is ICF?

42 liters
5 liters
28 liters
65 liters

A

28 liters

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12
Q

Mutations can result in abnormal:
DNA
DNA, RNA, and proteins
proteins
RNA

A

DNA, RNA, and proteins

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13
Q

Which is true of autosomal recessive inheriance?
Cosanguinity is never present
Males and females are effected equally
One-third of offspring are affected

A

Males and females are effected equally

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14
Q

The nurse is teaching about x-linked recessive disorders. He needs to include all of the following information except:

the trait is seen much more often in females than males
the gen is passed from an affected father to all his daughters
the trait is never transmitted from father to son
the gene can be transmitted through a series of female carriers

A

the trait is seen much more often in females than males

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15
Q

The patient asks what causes cystic fibrosis. The nurse responds by stating “Cystic fibrosis is caused by a(n) _______ gene.”

A

autosomal recessive

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16
Q

The nurse is discussing the most common cause of Down’s syndrome. This is described as:
maternal translocation
paternal translocation
paternal nondisjunction
maternal nondisjunction

A

maternal nondisjunction

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17
Q

A normal male and a carrier for red-green colorblindness mate. Given that red-green color blindness is an x-linked recessive trait, what is the likelihood of their offspring being affected?

A

50%
Males most affected, no females affected
females most affected, no males affected
25%

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18
Q

A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karotype would reveal which of the following?
XX
XY
XYY
XXY

19
Q

The nurse recalls the basic components of DNA include:

codons, oxygen and cytosine
a phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases
adenine, guanine, ad purine
pentose sugars and four nitrogenous bases

A

a phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases

20
Q

A 42-year-old female presents to the Emergency Room with dyspnea, rapid, shallow breathing, respiratory crackles, decreased lung compliance and hypoxemia. Test reveal a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Malignant respiratory failure
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Postoperative respiratory failure
Sarcoidosis

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

21
Q

A 20-year-old male presents to the Emergency Room with complaints of sudden onset of right sided chest pain and shortness of breath that occurred while he was riding his bicycle. He is 6 ft. 5 inches tall and weighs 150 pounds. A chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax. This type of pneumothorax is called a:

spontaneous pneumothorax
sudden pneumothorax
tension pneumothorax
traumatic pneumothorax

A

spontaneous pneumothorax

22
Q

COPD is a term that includes the following diseases. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
chronic bronchitis
emhysema
pulmonary fibrosis
pneumonia
pulmonary artery hypertension

A

chronic bronchitis
emhysema

23
Q

In an effort to decrease the work of breathing in a patient diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the HCP will note all of the following EXCEPT

Kussmaul’s respirations
shallow respirations with decreased tidal volume
maintenence of a normal minute volume
rapid respirations

A

Kussmaul’s respirations

24
Q

The pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a marked increase in goblet cells
inflammatory infiltration and fibrosis of the bronchiolar wall
breakdown of alveolar walls
hypersecretion of mucous in the large airways

A

breakdown of alveolar walls

25
Q

The oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve indicates that:
as blood enters an active tissue the oxygen saturation increased
as PaO2 increases from 80 to 100 mmHg the amount of oxygen attached to hemoglobin increases.
a change in PaO2 from 100mmHg to 80 mmHg has little effect on oxygen saturation
oxyhemoglobin in found in a reduced PaO2 environment

A

a change in PaO2 from 100mmHg to 80 mmHg has little effect on oxygen saturation

26
Q

The FNP is treating a patient diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. The NP recalls that it is caused by:

accumulation of anti-glomerular membrane antibodies
swelling of the mesangial cells in the Bowman’s space in response to bacteria
antigen-antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage
inflammatory factors that stimulate cellular proliferation of the epithelial cells

A

antigen-antibody complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage

27
Q

A 6-year-old is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following is the most common finding in this condition?

A

proteinuria

28
Q

A 27-year-old female presents with fever, chills and flank pain. She is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. The FNP recalls that the infection is located in the:
renal tubules
renal pelvis
bladder
glomerulus

A

Renal pelvis

29
Q

A 35-year-old is severely burned and hospitalized. She now has developed acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Which is the most likely term for the type of acute kidney injury that will appear on her chart?
extrarenal
postrenal
intrarenal
prerenal

A

intrarenal

30
Q

A 42-year-old is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a great deal of blood. The NP realizes his acute kidney injury is caused by:

kidney stones
immune complex deposition in the glomeruli
obstruction of the proximal tubure
inadequate renal blood flow

A

inadequate renal blood flow

31
Q

When turning a patient with end stage renal failure, it is important to recall bone fractures are a risk in ESRD because:
autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop
osteoblast activity is excessive
calcium is lost i the urine
the kidneys fail to activate Vitamin D

A

the kidneys fail to activate Vitamin D

32
Q

The FNP is discussing dietary changes with a patient who has end stage renal failure. The diet includes moderately restricting:
protein
complex carbohydrates
glucose
fats

33
Q

A sexually active female presents to the clinic with complaints of cloudy urine, suprapubic pain, hematuria and fever. The FNP suspects she has:
hydronephrosis
renal calculi
chronic renal failure
acute cystitis

A

acute cystitis

34
Q

Clot retraction and clot dissolution acts by all of the following EXCEPT:
allowing blood flow to resume at the injured area
pulling the edges of the injured vessel together
stimulating a hyercoagulability state
the formation of plasmin to dissolve the clot

A

stimulating a hyercoagulability state

35
Q

The stages of hemostasis include all of the following EXCEPT:
blood coagulation
vascular contriction
formation of a platelet plug
fibrinolysis

A

fibrinolysis

36
Q

On the WBC differential, there are 90% neutrophils with 12% bands. What does this Indicate?
The patient is suffering from an acute viral infection
The patient has a major bacterial infection with a risk of sepsis
The patient is recovering from a recent bacterial infection
The patient has a major allergic reaction occurring

A

The patient has a major bacterial infection with a risk of sepsis

37
Q

The main causes of anemia include all of the following EXCEPT:
excessive blood loss
lack of defective RBCs
hemolysis of RBCs
insufficient RBCs produced by the bone marrow

A

lack of defective RBCs

38
Q

Megablastic anemia can be caused by a lack of folate and Vitamin B12 deficiency. On the CBC, the FNP will note:
an increased hematocrit
a MCV of >100
an elevated hemoglobin
an elevated MCHC

A

a MCV of >100

39
Q

Which of the following individuals are most at risk for developing a Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?
A 2-year-old who is a fussy eater
A 26-year-old in the second trimester of pregnancy
A 47-year-old who had a subtotal gastrectomy
An 87-year-old who has a GI bleed due to peptic ulcers

A

A 47-year-old who had a subtotal gastrectomy

40
Q

A 40-year-old develops disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). After obtaining the history, which finding is the most likely cause of this condition?
Sepsis
Immune thrombocytic purpura
A blood transfusion
A snake bite

41
Q

The parents of a 2 month old infant recently received confirmation that their son has sickle cell anemia. They brought in a hemoglobin electrophoresis report and want you to explain the results. Which of the following indicated sickle cell anemia?
HgAS
HgSS
HgAC
HgSD

42
Q

The FNP checks for liver disease in individuals with clotting problems because:

treatment medications for liver disease causes fibrinolysis
clotting factors are produced in the liver
the liver is the site for platelet pooling
high levels of bilirubin interferes with clotting

A

clotting factors are produced in the liver

43
Q

A 67-year-old presents to the clinic with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera (PV). The FNP realizes the patient’s symptoms are primarily the result of:

vessel injury
rapid blood flow to the major organs
a decreased erythrocyte count
increased blood viscosity

A

increased blood viscosity