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Spinal Spring 2016 > Quiz Questions Exam 1 > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast - form bone;
osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone;
osteoclast - remodel bone

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3
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals.

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4
Q

What is the primary constituent of ground substance?

A

gylcosaminoglycans

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5
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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6
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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7
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to various stressors.

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8
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors, and to age.

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9
Q

Bone is the Embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues?

A

mesenchyme and/or cartilage.

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10
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification.

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11
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero.

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12
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

the Skull

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13
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is partially formed by intramembranous ossification

A

the Clavicle

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero.

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16
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endrochondral ossification?

A

chrondocranium

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17
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on the time of apperance?

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birth

secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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18
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism(gender variation), ontogenetic variation(growth or age variation), geogrpahic or population-based variation(ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation(Individual variation)

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19
Q

What are the more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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20
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal Anatomy?

A

Heterotopic and Accessory Bone

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21
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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22
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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23
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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24
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus. (pisiform is sesamoid)

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25
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

The parietal and sternum

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26
Q

What is characteristic of a pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces within the bone

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27
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

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28
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla & sphenoid

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29
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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30
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella, and pisiform

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31
Q

What are examples of Heterotopic Bone?

A

Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments

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32
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and boney spurs of vertebrae

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33
Q

What are the four basic surface feature characteristics?

A

Elevations, Depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

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34
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded & sharp

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35
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge, and crest

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36
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus.

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37
Q

What is the definition of an osseous trochanter?

A

a large, blunt projection from the surface of bone with a significant base and height.

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38
Q

What is the definition of an osseous Malleoulus?

A

a hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone

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39
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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40
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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41
Q

What are the categories of linear osseous depressions?

A

Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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42
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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43
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fovea?

A

a shallow depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone

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44
Q

What are the names given to the openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium, orface, and hiatus

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45
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone.

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46
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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47
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone.

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone.

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49
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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50
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of two adjacent bones.

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51
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facts and rounded facets

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52
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular Heads, and Articular Condyles.

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53
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

a knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation.

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54
Q

How many bones form the typical adult apendicular skeleton.

A

126 bones

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55
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs.

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56
Q

What is the name given to the skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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57
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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58
Q

How Many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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59
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, and Zygomatic.

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60
Q

How many bones form the facail skeleton? (AKA Splanchocranium or visceral skeleton)

A

14 bones

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61
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?

A

6 bones

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62
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

1 bone

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63
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?

A

7 Cervical, 12 Thoracic, and 5 Lumbar vertebrae, 1 Sacrum and 1 Coccyx

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64
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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65
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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66
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pretains to the vertebral column?

A

the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column.

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67
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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68
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni, and the xiphoid proccess.

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69
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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70
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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71
Q

What is the number of vetebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 Segments

side note, this includes 1 fused sacrum, and 1 fused coccyx

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72
Q

What is the number of vetebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

side note, spine = pre-sacral

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73
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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74
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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75
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vetebrae?

A

2-MA-3

2-M7 ( Ant Bear, 3 toed sloth)

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76
Q

Which mammals have more the seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Ant bear, and Three toed sloth

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77
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Two toed sloth, and Manatee.

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78
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

The region of the neck.

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79
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it is referred to the armor bearing region of the torso.

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80
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

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81
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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82
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip.

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83
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments.

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84
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the cavaria or calva

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85
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles.

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86
Q

What does the term “scarum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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87
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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88
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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89
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

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90
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inchs

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91
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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92
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region? (both measurements)

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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93
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region? (both measurements)

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

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94
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum? (both measurements)

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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95
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine? (Both measurements)

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches.

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96
Q

What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?

A

the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis

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97
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template.

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98
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface.

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99
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

Motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location.

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100
Q

What orgasn(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear.

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101
Q

What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm.

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102
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

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103
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

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104
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column?

A

somites

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105
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation fromed within the somite?

A

sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

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106
Q

What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

scelrotome

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107
Q

List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous.

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108
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

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109
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

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110
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae? (blastemae = pleural blastema’s)

A

intersegmental artery

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111
Q

cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features?

A

a loose cranial sclerotomite and an dense caudal scelrotomite

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112
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissue (fissure of Von Ebner)

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113
Q

what is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult inter vertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)

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114
Q

The union of a dense caudal scelrotomite and a loose cranail sclerotomite from adjacent pericordal blastemae give rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

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115
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

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116
Q

When will cartilage first from in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

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117
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

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118
Q

Chondrification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

the cervical region

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119
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center.

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120
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six… 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process.

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121
Q

what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

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122
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

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123
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers, and neural arch centers

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124
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

Neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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125
Q

what is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?

A

cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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126
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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127
Q

What are the names of the five centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers.

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128
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

five… 1 for the tip of of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate.

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129
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis.

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130
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis.

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131
Q

what is the range of appearance for the secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

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132
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and apophyseal regions.

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133
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular;
thoracic - triangular;
lumbar - reniform.

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134
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal ring, inferior epiphyseal ring.

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135
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate.

136
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina.

137
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral venous foramina.

138
Q

What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure;

the inferior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure.

139
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicale at each region of the spine?

A

cervical -posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar posterior

140
Q

What name is given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

The pedicle

141
Q

What name is given to the posterior part of the vertebral notch?

A

The lamina

142
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

posterior and median

143
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

shingling

144
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

145
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

Para-articular process

146
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

147
Q

What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical: articular pillar;

thoracic and lumbar: pars articularis

148
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

149
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

the apophyseal regions

150
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process.

151
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

152
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or Transverse Process?

A

the transverse tubercle

153
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and down to form the cervical and brachial plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.

154
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse progresses back.

155
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

156
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular facet

157
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular facet

158
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the?

A

pre-pzygapophysis

159
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the?

A

post-zygapophysis

160
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

161
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular process or superior articular apophysis

162
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum.

163
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

164
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

165
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament.

166
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.

167
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication?

168
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

the spinous tubercle

169
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle

170
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular
thoracic - oval
lumbar - triangular
Sacrum -triangular

171
Q

What what cord level does the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

172
Q

At what vertberal level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

L2

173
Q

Which of the segemental arteries will arise from the internal iliac artery?

A

the iliolumbar and lateral sacral arteries

174
Q

identify all segmental arteries

A

veterbral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median(middle) sacral.

175
Q

What are the segemental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery, and deep cervical artery.

176
Q

What are the segemental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery.

177
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery.

178
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery.

179
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery.

180
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

181
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

182
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

183
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

184
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

185
Q

What segmental level(s) are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

186
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

187
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) Sacral Artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

188
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

189
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

190
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

191
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

192
Q

Which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

193
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery. Posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior redicular artery, posterior radicular artery.

194
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery. posterior spinal canal artery

195
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

196
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

197
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery.

198
Q

Which vessel will supply ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

199
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

200
Q

Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?

A

the radicular artery

201
Q

What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries preesent in the adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries.

202
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

203
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

204
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries.

205
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery?

206
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord.

207
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries.

208
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries.

209
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries.

210
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

211
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating ateries.

212
Q

What artery gives of the ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries?

A

the anterior spinal artery

213
Q

What arteries form the pail perforating arteries?

A

the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries

214
Q

What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial vasa corona along the cord?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders.

215
Q

What vessels drain the cord?

A

pial veins

216
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

217
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins.

218
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

219
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

220
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?

A

posterior radicular veins

221
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

222
Q

What will lie in the subarachnoid space?

A

pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins.

223
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

224
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

225
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

226
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

dura mater - tough mother
arachnoid mater - spider mother
pia mater - tender or delicate mother

227
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

228
Q

What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?

A

anterior and posterior spinal canal artery & plexus;

anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus; basivertebral vein

229
Q

What are the neural contents of the epidural space?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

230
Q

What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligament

231
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein

232
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

233
Q

Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament and hoffman/anterior dural/meningovertbral ligaments

234
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

235
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

236
Q

Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

ligamentum flavum and hofmann/anterior dural/meningoveterbal ligaments

237
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

sub-dural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.

238
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus;
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinues vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningoverterbral ligaments.

239
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/Anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments.

240
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural spcae?

A

Serous fluid

241
Q

What is the name given top the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid.

242
Q

What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?

A

dentate/denticulate ligament

243
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate/denticulate ligament

244
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

245
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

246
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement.

247
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

248
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?

A

midsaggital or anterior posterior plane

249
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1-L3 spinal nerves

250
Q

What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 Cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 Cord levels in T10 Vertebra;
L5, S1 Cord levels in T11 Vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 Vertebra.

251
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

Conus Medullaris

252
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus Medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5, and Co1

253
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

254
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

Cauda Equina

255
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

256
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudel part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

257
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale internum?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum.

258
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins the peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3, and as low as S4.

259
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external sphincter

260
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on a angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

261
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

262
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige.

263
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conmus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

264
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigated damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord.

265
Q

At the intervetebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?

A

in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segement they were numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3.

266
Q

At the intervetebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?

A

in the thoracic and lumbar spine, and for the sacrum, spinal nerves extis below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception to this rule). T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7.

267
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

rib number always equates to the same vertebral number at the constocentral joint, rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the T2 Segment;
only ribs 1, 11, and 12 typically joint with a single segement.

268
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoraic interveterbral number.

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple. I.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with the vertebral couple.

269
Q

What is the name given to the front of the C1 bony ring?

A

The anterior arch

270
Q

What osseous modification is observed to the front of the anteior arch of C1?

A

the anterior tubercle.

271
Q

What is observed on the the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

Fovea Dentis

272
Q

What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?

A

Lateral Mass

273
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament.

274
Q

What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

275
Q

What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?

A

groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery.

276
Q

What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?

A

Arcuate rim

277
Q

What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of atlas?

A

a complete ponticulus posticus.

278
Q

Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus, or a complete ponticulus posticus.

279
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by trhe ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

280
Q

What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the inferior vertebral notch

281
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the costal element.

282
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the true transverse process.

283
Q

What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle.

284
Q

What opening is identified in the transverse process of C1?

A

the transverse foramen.

285
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

the dens or odontoid process.

286
Q

What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?

A

Facet for fovea dentis, groove for tranverse alantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament.

287
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?

A

the longus coli muscle attachment

288
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the posterior lip

289
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the anterior lip

290
Q

What features are present at the lateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?

A

right and left lateral groove.

291
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the superior articular proccess.

292
Q

What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?

A

on the lamina pedicle junction

293
Q

What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure.

294
Q

What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?

A

costal element, posterior tubercle and true transverse process.

295
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?

A

it is bifid.

296
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

297
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves.

298
Q

What attaches to the posterolateral margin and in the center of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the pedicle

299
Q

What surface feature is located at the lower margin of the pedicle?

A

inferior vertebral notch/incisure

300
Q

What surface feature is located at the upper margin of the pedicle?

A

superior vertebral notch/incisure

301
Q

What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?

A

the articular pillar

302
Q

What is located at the top of the articular pillar?

A

the superior articular process.

303
Q

The superior articular process will provide support for what bony feature?

A

the superior articular facet.

304
Q

What is located at the bottom of the articular pillar?

A

the inferior articular process

305
Q

The inferior articular process will provide support for what bony feature?

A

the inferior articular facet.

306
Q

What is the name for the of the surfaced feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve.

307
Q

What bone feature is attached to the posterior part of the articular pillar?

A

the lamina

308
Q

What is ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum.

309
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular process.

310
Q

To what parts of the typical cervical veterbra is the transverse process attached.

A

the vertebral body and the articulate pillar.

311
Q

List, in order the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

Costal Element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process.

312
Q

What is the distal modification of the costal element of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

the anterior tubercle

313
Q

What is the distal modification of the true transverse process of typical cervicals?

A

the posterior tubercle.

314
Q

What bony feature connects the anterior and posterior tubercles of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

costotransverse bar, or intertubercular lamella

315
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve.

316
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle.

317
Q

What is the usual condition for the Caucasian typical cervical spinous process?

A

they are bifid

318
Q

What is the usual condition for the African american typical cervical spinous process?

A

the are non-bifid.

319
Q

What is the osseous modification at the distal end of the spinous process?

A

spinous tubercle

320
Q

What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?

A

Anterior Groove, Posterior Groove, Left and right uncinate processes

321
Q

What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process.

322
Q

What are the features of the spinous process of C7?

A

long, horizontal, nonbifid.

323
Q

What features will allow discrimination between T2-T4 and T5-T8 segmental groups?

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process.

324
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the T2-T4 group?

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides.

325
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the T5-T8 group?

A

the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex.

326
Q

What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?

A

Aortic Impression

327
Q

What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?

A

the superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

328
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

the right and left superior, and the right and left infrerior costal demi-facets.

329
Q

Which of the demi-facets on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic larger?

A

superior costal demi-facet.

330
Q

What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the typical thoracic vertebral body?

A

the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally.

331
Q

What is the appearance and position of the lamina in a typical thoracic?

A

the lamina is short, broad and thick and lies next to the spinous process.

332
Q

What is the direction of the transverse process in the typical thoracics?

A

the transverse process projects more posterior with each inferior verterba.

333
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-T4 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process diameter for a given segment.

334
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-T8 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same or equal to the inferior articular process diameter for a given segment.

335
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process of T2-T4?

A

the under surface of T2-T4 spinous processes will angle up to forty degrees from the horizontal plane.

Spinal Spring 2016 (9 decks)

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