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Anatomy and Physiology > Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

vental is a direction term that is synonymous with the term _______ below?

a. posterior
b. dorsal
c. anterior
d. medial

A

anterior

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2
Q

an anatomical directional term that means the same as dorsal in humans is?

a. posterior
b. ventral
c. anterior
d. medial

A

posterior

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3
Q

what section below would divide the body into right and left halves?

a. transverse
b. sagittal
c. dorsal
d. frontal

A

sagittal

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4
Q

which form of cellular transport below requires energy?

a. passive diffusion
b. osmosis
c. exocytosis
d. none of the above

A

exocytosis

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5
Q

which cellular transport process below does NOT require energy?

a. phagocytosis
b. osmosis
c. exocytosis
d. none of the above

A

osmosis

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6
Q

in which of the abdominopelvic quadrants is the majority of the liver located in?

A

right upper quadrant

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7
Q

in which of the abdominopelvic regions is the bladder located?

A

hypogastric

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8
Q

which of the following organelles in nonmembranous?

a. nucleus
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi apparatus

A

ribosomes

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9
Q

which of the following organelles has a single cell membrane?

a. ribosomes
b. nucleus
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi apparatus

A

Golgi apparatus

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10
Q

after phagocytosis, what organelle is used to digest the contents contained within the phagosome?

A

lysosome

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11
Q

t/f, a person with atransferrinemia has low serum ferritin concentrations and low serum hemoglobin concentrations?

A

false

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12
Q

t/f, a person with atransferrinemia has elevated hemoglobin concentration?

A

false

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13
Q

which organelle would be absent from a mature RBC?

a. Golgi apparatus
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. nucleus
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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14
Q

t/f, a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution could crenate if left in this solution?

A

false

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15
Q

t/f, all ribosomes are found attached to cell membranes?

A

false

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16
Q

t/f, the small subunit of a ribosome binds to transfer RNA?

A

false

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17
Q

what medical term refers to a RBC?

A

erythrocyte

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18
Q

which epidermal cell type below is a touch receptor?

a. Merkel Cell
b. Melanocyte
c. keratinocyte
d. Langerhans cells

A

merkel cell

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19
Q

which epidermal cell type below is also known as a dendritic cell?

a. Merkel Cell
b. Melanocyte
c. Keratinocyte
d. Langerhans cell

A

Langerhans cell

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20
Q

which epidermal cell type below sends vesicles up thought its arm-like extensions to protect the nucleus from UV exposure?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Merkel cell
c. Melanocyte
d. Keratinocyte

A

melanocyte

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21
Q

what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin?

A

stratum lucidum

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22
Q

what layer of the epidermis is superior to the stratum lucidum?

A

stratum corneum

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23
Q

what layer of the epidermis is inferior to the stratum granulosum?

A

stratum spinosum

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24
Q

t/f, pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor that are located in the dermal reticular layer and that respond to deep pressure and adapt quickly?

A

true

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25
Q

t/f, Meissner’s corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor that are located within the dermal papillae and are responsible for sensitivity to light touch?

A

true

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26
Q

Mary was diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. When she heard this diagnosis the hair on the back of her arms stood straight up. This was due to what epidermal structure?

a. Meissner’s corpuscle
b. Pacinian corpuscle
c. Arrector pili muscle
d. Dermal papillae

A

arrestor pili muscle

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27
Q

which of the following are found in the epidermal-dermal junction?

a. Epidermal ridges
b. Dermal papillae
c. Anchoring filaments
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

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28
Q

henna tattoos are not permanent and are dying what skin layer?

A

epidermis

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29
Q

leather is made from which layer of the integument?

A

dermis

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30
Q

what cell in the epidermis is a specialized macrophage?

A

dendritic cell (langerhans)

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31
Q

individuals with two MCR1 mutations are more likely to have what color hair?

A

red

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32
Q

individuals with defective MCR1 alleles are less effective at making what protein?

A

melanin (eumelanin)

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33
Q

t/f, melanomas originate in the stratum basale and are always darkly pigmented?

A

false

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34
Q

t/f, skin cancers can develop in the stratum corneum because these cell are innervated?

A

false

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35
Q

Merkel cell carcinoma is a rare form of skin cancer that often metastasizes?

A

true

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36
Q

kidney dysfunction can lead to a lower production of which of the following D metabolites?

A. 25(OH)D
B. D3
C. 24,25(OH)2D
D. Both B and C

A

24,25(OH)2D

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37
Q

which of the following D metabolites is the best biomarker of vitamin D status?

A. 1,25OH)2D
B. 24,25(OH)2D
C. D3
D. 25(OH)D

A

25(OH)D

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38
Q

which of the following metabolizes would be expected to be elevated if the 1-alpha hydroxylate enzyme did not function?

A. D3
B. 1,25(OH)2D
C. 24,25(OH)2D
D. Calcitriol

A

24,25(OH)2D

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39
Q

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes ACTH?

A

corticotrophs

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40
Q

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes prolactin?

A

lactotrophs

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41
Q

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes LH?

A

gonadotrophs

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42
Q

t/f, the anterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by a portal system?

A

true

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43
Q

t/f, the posterior pituitary synthesizes hormones and releases these in response
to hormonal signals from the hypothalamus?

A

false

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44
Q

t/f, stimulatory and inhibitory hormones are released from the hypothalamus to
simulate production of hormones in the posterior pituitary

A

false

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45
Q

t/f, men with mutations in ER-alpha have bone ages that are older than their chronological age?

A

false

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46
Q

t/f, men with mutation in ER-alpha have elevated concentration of SHBG?

A

true

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47
Q

t/f, men with mutations in ER-alpha have elevated serum concentrations of estrogen?

A

true

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48
Q

the adrenal gland has 3 zones from superficial to deep that are called the zona glomerulosa, zona _________, and zona reticularis

A

fasiculata

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49
Q

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE?

A. An electrical gradient will drive sodium into the cell and potassium out of the
cell.
B. A chemical gradient will drive sodium out of the cell and potassium into the
cell.
C. An electrochemical gradient drives sodium into the cell and potassium out of
the cell
D. None of the above

A

an electrochemical gradient drives sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell

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50
Q

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE?

A. The resting membrane potential is maintained by the Na/K ATPase
B. Potassium concentrations are higher outside of the cell compared to K
concentrations in the cytosol
C. Sodium concentrations are higher inside the cell compared to Na
concentrations in the extracellular fluid
D. The electrochemical gradient drives sodium out of the cell

A

the resting membrane potential is maintained by the Na/K ATPase

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51
Q

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is FALSE?

A. The inside of the cell membrane is negative
B. Potassium leakage channels move potassium from the inside to the outside of
the cell
C. The outside of the cell membrane is positive
D. Sodium leakage channels move sodium from the inside to the outside of the
cell

A

sodium leakage channel move sodium from the inside to the outside of the cell

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52
Q

t/f, astrocytes are found in the CNS and they work to maintain the blood brain barrier?

A

true

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53
Q

t/f, ependymal cells are found in the PNS and line the ventricles of the brain?

A

false

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54
Q

t/f, schwann cells are found in the CNS and surround axons?

A

false

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55
Q

t/f, the efferent division of the PNS brings Moto information to the CNS?

A

false

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56
Q

t/f, the afferent division of the PNS brings information from the CNS to the effectors?

A

false

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57
Q

t/f, motor commands are delivered to effectors using the efferent division of the PNS?

A

true

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58
Q

which of the following membrane transporters use energy?

A. Pressure sensitive channels
B. Ligand gated channels
C. Ion pumps
D. None of the above

A

ion pumps

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59
Q

which of the following membrane transported uses energy?

A. leakage channel
B. voltage gated channel
C. ligand gated channel
D. none of the above

A

none of the above

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60
Q

t/f, graded potentials are all or nothing events?

A

false

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61
Q

t/f, an action potential is an all or nothing event?

A

true

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62
Q

t/f, when a membrane is hyper polarized it is more difficult to set off an action potential?

A

true

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63
Q

when bone grows in length this type of bone growth is referred to as _______ growth?

A

interstitial

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64
Q

when the exterior shape of bone changes as it is modeled, this type of bone group is referred to as ________ growth?

A

appositional

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65
Q

a fetal femur forms by a processes called _______ formation?

A

endochondral

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66
Q

t/f, the diaphysis of a long bone has a high percentage of cortical bone?

A

true

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67
Q

t/f, the expanded ends of long bones contain a high percentage of trabecular bone?

A

true

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68
Q

t/f, dipole bone contains a medullary canal?

A

false

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69
Q

the sternum is an example of a/an ______ bone while the femur is an example of a _______ bone?

A

flat / long

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70
Q

a vertebrae is a/an _______ bone while the patella is a/an _____ bone?

A

irregular / sesamoid

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71
Q

t/f, the sarcoplasmic reticulum contains IP3 receptors that respond to intracellular second messengers?

A

true

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72
Q

t/f, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca after voltage gated channels in the t-tubule open?

A

true

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73
Q

t/f, energy is not needed to move calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum after a muscle stops contracting?

A

false

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74
Q

the epiphyseal growth plate is comprised of ______ cartilage and is abundant in this cell type _______?

A

hyaline / chondrocytes

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75
Q

the interaction between RANK-L and _______ stimulates osteoclast development?

A

RANK

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76
Q

the interaction between _____ and RANK-L stimulates bone formation?

A

OPG

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77
Q

RANK-L and _____ are produced by osteocytes?

A

OPG

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78
Q

which of the following sarcomere changes occur during muscle contraction?

a. Zones of overlap get smaller
b. The I band narrows
c. Troponin moves off actin
d. All of the above

A

the I band narrows

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79
Q

Which of the following sarcomere changes occur(s) during muscle contraction?

a. Zones of overlap get smaller
b. The A band narrows
c. The Z lines move closer together
d. Both A and C

A

the Z lines move closer together

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80
Q

Which of the following sarcomere changes occur(s) during muscle contraction?

a. The Z lines move towards the M line
b. Zones of overlap get smaller
c. The H band gets larger
d. The width of the I band stays constant

A

the Z line moves towards the M line

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81
Q

t/f, botulism is a bacterial toxin that can be lethal. If a baby is given honey at 2 months old and is exposed to the toxin, muscle contraction will not occur?

A

true

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82
Q

t/f, a drug that stimulates acetylcholine release would prevent muscle contraction?

A

false

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83
Q

if a person ingest an animal killed by curare, release of acetylcholine will be blocked and muscles cannot function?

A

false

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84
Q

Which of the following statements about Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is false?

a. A man carrying this mutation has a 50% chance of transmitting it to his son
b. This disease can be caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene
c. Dystrophin helps anchor the cytoskeleton of the muscle fiber to the basal lamina
d. There is no cure for Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

A

a man carrying this mutation has a 50% chance of transmitting it to his son

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85
Q

Which of the following statements about Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is false?

a. This disease is caused by a mutation in myosin
b. This disease has no cure
c. A woman carrying this disease has a 50% chance of passing this to her son
d. None of the above

A

this disease is caused by a mutation in myosin

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86
Q

which of the following statements about duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is true?

a. This disease is transmitted on the y chromosome
b. This disease only affects skeletal muscles
c. There is no cure for this disease at present
d. Both B and C

A

There is no cure for this disease at present

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87
Q

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is/ are TRUE?

a. STEMI can be observed in individuals with ACS
b. Muscle proteins such as creatine kinase may be released during cardiac muscle damage
c. Atherosclerosis increases the resistance to blood flow
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

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88
Q

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is/ are TRUE?

a. Many ACS occur in individuals that do not have significant occlusion of the vessel
b. Percutaneous interventions are often used to acutely treat ACS
c. Men and women often have different symptoms that precede ACS and heart attacks
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

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89
Q

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is/ are TRUE?

a. Many ACS occur in individuals that do not have significant occlusion of the vessel
b. Percutaneous interventions are often used to acutely treat ACS
c. Men and women often have different symptoms that precede ACS and heart attacks
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

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90
Q

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) are FALSE?

a. Many ACS occur in individuals that do not have significant occlusion of the vessel
b. Atherosclerosis progressively narrows the vessel lumen
c. People rarely have abrupt changes from asymptomatic atherosclerotic heart disease to acute
coronary syndromes
d. Women often have different symptoms during acute coronary syndromes compared to men

A

people rarely have abrupt changes from asymptomatic atherosclerotic heart disease to ACS

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91
Q

which component of an ECG reflects ventricular repolarization?

a. P wave
b. PR interval
c. QRS
d. T wave

A

T wave

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92
Q

Which of the following components of an ECG reflects the duration of ventricular muscle
depolarization?

a. PR interval
b. T wave
c. QRS complex
d. QT interval

A

QRS complex

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93
Q

Which of the following reflects the interval between ventricular depolarization and
repolarization?

QRS complex
ST interval
PR interval
QT interval

A

ST interval

94
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

a. Arteries have more elastic fibers in the tunica media than veins
b. EPO is produced by the bone marrow and increases production of red blood cells
c. Atherosclerotic plaque builds up under the tunica intima
d. All of the above

A

arteries have more elastic fibers in the tunica media then veins & atherosclerotic plaque builds up under the tunica intimia

95
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?

a. Pressure within a blood vessel decreases as the lumen diameter increases
b. Vascular sinusoids are found in the spleen and in the kidney
c. Arterial valves can become damaged and lead to varicose veins
d. All of the above

A

arterial valves can become damaged and lead to varicose veins

96
Q

Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
a. As the length of a vessel decreases, the resistance decreases
b. The viscosity of blood does not impact resistance
c. Polycythemia increases blood viscosity
d. Veins contain valves to prevent pooling of blood in the extremities

A

the viscosity of blood does not impact resistance

97
Q

What structure that is unique to cardiac muscle, links cells together and promotes the
coordinated contraction of cardiac muscle?

A

intercalated disks/desmosomes/fascia adherens

98
Q

cardiac cells are mechanically linked through specific structures called?

A

desmosomes/ intercalated discs/ fascia adherens

99
Q

cardiac cells are chemically connected through structures referred to as?

A

gap junctions/ intercalated discs

100
Q

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open, both the
pulmonary valve and the bicuspid valve are closed.

A

false

101
Q

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open, the aortic
valve is closed.

A

true

102
Q

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open; the bicuspid
valve is open and the aortic valve is closed.

A

true

103
Q

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles are highly vascularized and primarily use
aerobic metabolism.

A

true

104
Q

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have lower levels of mitochondria and
independent muscle fibers.

A

false

105
Q

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have long relative refractory periods due to
long acting sodium channels

A

false

106
Q

A heart attack is triggered by an electric malfunction of the autorhythmic cells

A

false

107
Q

creatine kinase is a useful biomarker of cardiac damage after myocardial infarction?

A

true

108
Q

The coronary sinus returns deoxygenated blood to the left atrium

A

false

109
Q

A blood pressure measurement of 125 mm Hg for systolic pressure and 85 mm Hg diastolic
pressure would be categorized as what according to the American Heart Association?

a. Normal
b. Elevated
c. Stage 1 hypertension
d. Stage 2 hypertension

A

stage 1 hypertension

110
Q

Which of the following helps prevent regurgitation through the AV valves?

a. The interventricular septum
b. The trabeculae carnae
c. The chordae tendinae
d. The fossa ovalis

A

chordae tendinae

111
Q

Which of the following is open during ventricular systole?

a. The chordae tendinae
b. The atrioventricular (AV) valves
c. The fossa ovalis
d. The semilunar valves

A

semilunar valves

112
Q

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in
atrial depolarization?

a. QRS complex
b. T wave
c. P wave
d. PR interval

A

P wave

113
Q

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in
depolarization of the ventricles?

a. T wave
b. QRS complex
c. P wave
d. PR interval

A

QRS complex

114
Q

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in
ventricular repolarization?

a. QRS complex
b. P wave
c. T wave
d. PR interval

A

T wave

115
Q

The moderator band is found in the left atrium.

A

false

116
Q

The moderator band is found in the left atrium.

A

false

117
Q

During ventricular contractions, the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle is
greater than the volume of blood pumped out of the right ventricle because of the thicker
ventricular wall in the left ventricle.

A

false

118
Q

During ventricular contractions, the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle is
greater than the volume of blood pumped out of the right ventricle because of the thicker
ventricular wall in the left ventricle.

A

false

119
Q

The AV node depolarizes faster than the SA node.

A

false

120
Q

According to the CF video on gene therapy, in the lung the secretory cells are enriched with
CFTR protein

A

false

121
Q

According to the CF video on gene therapy, in the lung the secretory cells are enriched with
CFTR protein

A

false

122
Q

According to the CF video on gene therapy, gene editing is most effective if implemented in
basal cells due to their regenerative capacity

A

true

123
Q

According to the CF video on gene therapy, RNA based therapies typically provide a lasting
cure for CF.

A

false

124
Q

An individual lives in LA. What process helps remove inhaled dust particles from the
trachea?

A

mucociliary escalator

125
Q

speech occurs from intermittent release of expired air while opening and closing the vocals cords which are located in the part of the respiratory system called the _____?

A

larynx

126
Q

An individual drinks a glass of water but starts choking as the water enters the trachea.
What cartilaginous structure normally functions to prevent this from happening?

A

epiglottis

127
Q

Type II cells in the alveoli are simple stratified epithelial cells.

A

false

128
Q

Type I cells in the alveoli are in contact with the basement membrane.

A

true

129
Q

Dust cells in the alveoli are resident macrophages

A

true

130
Q

Dust cells in the alveoli are resident macrophages

A

true

131
Q

In bronchiectasis the airways lose the ability to clear mucus

A

true

132
Q

Bronchiectasis is a disease where the trachea becomes widened and enlarged.

A

false

133
Q

in bronchiectasis the walls of the bronchi become narrowed from inflammation

A

false

134
Q

the gas law that deals with solubility of as gas in a liquid in relation to its partial pressure is called _______ law

A

henrys

135
Q

The gas law that deals with the partial pressure of an individual gas in a mixture of gases is
called _____ law

A

dalton’s

136
Q

The gas law that deals with the partial pressure of an individual gas in a mixture of gases is
called _____ law

A

dalton’s

137
Q

The gas law that deals with the concept P=1/V is called _______ law

A

boyles

138
Q

Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed by the CFTR protein in the reabsorptive duct of the
sweat gland.

A

false

139
Q

Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed by the CFTR protein in the reabsorptive duct of the
sweat gland.

A

false

140
Q

A pilocarpine test stimulates the secretory coil of a sweat gland

A

true

141
Q

A sweat gland is a merocrine gland and contains both a secretory and a reabsorptive duct

A

true

142
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Hemoglobin is almost completely saturated with CO2 at a p02 of 70 mm Hg
b. The oxygen- hemoglobin saturation curve is a linear curve
c. Hemoglobin is almost 100% saturated with O2 at a p02 of 40 mm Hg
d. None of the statements above are true

A

none of the statements above are true

143
Q

Which of the following factors does not cause the oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin
more readily?

a. An increase in temperature
b. An increase in the pC02
c. An increase in pH
d. A decrease in BPG

A

c & d

144
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE.

a. Most C02 is transported in blood as carbonic acid
b. Most oxygen is transported bound to globin
c. 1.5% of oxygen is dissolved in plasma
d. The reverse chloride shift occurs in the tissues

A

1.5% of oxygen is dissolved in plasma

145
Q

Individuals with chronic kidney disease rarely get a kidney transplant because they die from _____

A

cardiovascular disease

146
Q

Individuals with chronic kidney disease rarely get a kidney transplant because they die from _____

A

cardiovascular disease

147
Q

Individuals that have chronic kidney disease have elevated phosphorus that increases the
concentration of the hormone made in osteocytes called ______

A

FGF23

148
Q

In individuals with chronic kidney disease, high concentrations of FGF23 would inhibit or
stimulate [blank1] the production of calcitriol?

A

inhibit

149
Q

gastrin inhibits HCL secretion?

A

false

150
Q

CCK is a hormone made by the duodenum that increases the release of insulin?

A

false

151
Q

VIP is made in the duodenum and works to dilate intestinal capillaries

A

true

152
Q

Which of the following statements about Ulcerative Colitis is false?

a. The typically affects the rectum and large intestine
b. This disease impacts the entire thickness of the bowel wall
c. This disease can cause widespread ulcers
d. All of the above

A

this disease impacts the entire thickness of bowel wall

153
Q

Which of the following statements about Crohn’s disease are false?

a. This can affect any part of the GI tract
b. This disease can affect the eyes, skin and joints
c. This disease typically affects the ileum
d. None of the above

A

none of the above

154
Q

Cells in the macula densa function primarily as mechanoreceptors.

A

false

155
Q

The juxtaglomerular cells contain chemoreceptors that sense concentrations of Na and regulate GFR.

A

false

156
Q

The juxtaglomerular cells contain mechanoreceptors and secrete renin when blood pressure falls

A

true

157
Q

In response to an increase in ACE more of the hormone ________________ would be
produced

A

angiotensin II

158
Q

In response to hormonal signaling, what protein would be inserted into the collecting duct of
the nephron to reabsorb water and help increase blood pressure?

A

aquaporins

159
Q

In response to low glomerular pressure, the juxtaglomerular cells of the nephron secrete the
hormone called renin. This acts on the hepatic protein called ________

A

angiotensinogen

160
Q

Which of the following hormones is produced in response to high blood pressure or high blood
volume?

a. Angiotensin II
b. ADH
c. Aldosterone
d. Atrial naturietic hormone
e. Both A, B and C

A

atrial naturietic hormone

161
Q

Both atrial naturietic peptide and brain naturietic peptide can be produced by the heart. These are released in response to which factor below?

a. Low blood pressure
b. Low GFR
c. High blood pressure
d. Low salt concentrations in blood

A

high blood pressure

162
Q

Which of the following hormones are made by the heart in response to increasing blood
pressure and volume?

a. Atrial natriuretic peptide
b. Brain natriuretic peptide
c. Antidiuretic hormone
d. Both A and B

A

both a and B

163
Q

More substances typically enter from the peritubular space into the tubule lumen in the:

a. Proximal convolute tubule
b. Glomerulus
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

distal convoluted tubule

164
Q

Most facultative water reabsorption occurs in the:

a. Collecting duct
b. Glomerulus
c. Proximal convoluted tubule
d. None of the above

A

collecting duct

165
Q

Most obligatory water reabsorption occurs in the:

a. Glomerulus
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Collecting duct
d. None of the above

A

proximal convoluted tubule

166
Q

n individuals with CKD, elevated serum phosphorus concentrations would inhibit 1-alpha hydroxylase enzymatic activity

A

true

167
Q

A person with CKD would likely be anemic due to increased inflammation and its effect on
increasing hepcidin production

A

true

168
Q

In those with CKD, the kidney produces FGF23 in response to elevated serum phosphorus
concentrations

A

false

169
Q

In smooth muscle, varicosities release neurotransmitters into diffuse junctions

A

true

170
Q

Smooth muscle has sarcomeres

A

false

171
Q

Smooth muscle relies primarily on extracellular calcium for the calcium needed to contract

A

true

172
Q

The parietal cells secrete a substance that is required for the absorption of B12

A

true

173
Q

Parietal cells produce HCL in the cytosol and secrete this into the stomach

A

false

174
Q

chief cells produce pepsinogen?

A

true

175
Q

Which of the following statements are true about the function of the large intestine

a. The sphincter to the proximal large intestine is the ileocecal valve
b. fatty appendices are sacs of fat on the serosa of the colon (exterior of the large intestine)
c. A major function of the large intestine is water absorption
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

176
Q

Which of the following statements about the large intestine are false?

a. The large intestine plays a major role in nutrient absorption
b. Several important vitamins are made by bacteria in the large intestine
c. Longitudinal bands of smooth muscle that run along the surface of the colon are called
taeniae coli
d. All of the above

A

the large intestine plays a major role in nutrient absorption

177
Q

Of the following statements about the large intestine are true?

a. Mesenteries provide a structure for veins and arteries that vascularize the large intestine
b. The surface of the large intestine contains villi
c. The large intestine contains circular and longitudinal muscle
d. Both A and C

A

both A and C

178
Q

both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are involuntary

A

true

179
Q

smooth muscle contains varicosities and cardiac muscle contains triads

A

false

180
Q

in skeletal muscle intracellular calcium binds to the troponin C subunit while in smooth muscle
intracellular calcium binds to calmodulin

A

true

181
Q

In a genetically male embryo the Mullerian duct produces AMH which causes the Wolffian ducts to regress

A

false

182
Q

In a genetically female embryo the Wolffian duct produces AMH

A

false

183
Q

In the gonads of a genetically male fetus the Sertoli cells secrete AMH

A

true

184
Q

FSH stimulates the nurse cells to produce androgen binding protein

A

true

185
Q

FSH stimulates the interstitial cells to produce inhibin

A

false

186
Q

LH stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone

A

true

187
Q

The gall bladder stores and concentrates bile that is made in the live

A

true

188
Q

Bile is produced in the gall bladder and concentrated there before being released into the proximal small intestine

A

false

189
Q

The exocrine tissue in the pancreas produces a number of enzymes that break down fats,
carbohydrates, proteins and nucleic acid

A

true

190
Q

Which of the following STI’s can be prevented with a vaccine?

a. Trichomoniasis
b. Syphilis
c. Genital HPV
d. Chlamydia

A

genital HPV

191
Q

Which of the following STI’s is caused by a bacteria?

a. Trichomoniasis
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. All of the above
e. Both and B and C

A

both B and C

192
Q

Which of the following STI’s are treatable but not curable?

a. Hepatitis B
b. Syphilis
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Chlamydia

A

hepatitis B

193
Q

the most common STI in 20-24y old males and females is _______

A

chlamydia

194
Q

the STI _______ is becoming resistant to virtually all antibiotics

A

gonorrhea

195
Q

in females, chlamydia gets into the peitoneal cavity by exiting the structure called the _______?

A

fallopain tube

196
Q

FSH stimulates the ______ to produce estrogen

A

corpus luteum

197
Q

luteinizing hormone stimulates the _______ to produce testosterone

A

leydig cells, interstitial cells

198
Q

FSH stimulates the _______ to produce AMH

A

sertoli or nurse cells

199
Q

During early gonad development AMH causes the Wolffian duct to regress

A

false

200
Q

During early gonad development AMH causes the Wolffian duct to regress

A

false

201
Q

Peristalsis occurs in the gastrointestinal tract and functions to mix the intestinal contents back and forth.

A

false

202
Q

Segmentation occurs in the gastrointestinal tract and functions to push the intestinal contents in a forward direction.

A

false

203
Q

In the small intestine circular muscle contracts and narrows the gut lumen and longitudinal muscle contracts and shortens the intestinal segment which together serves to push the bolus in the lumen forward

A

true

204
Q

in the majority of ectopic pregnancies, the zygote implants in the peritoneal cavity.

A

false

205
Q

Ectopic pregnancies are one of the leading causes of maternal mortality in early gestation

A

true

206
Q

In rare circumstances an embryo can implant in the peritoneal cavity and the placenta will develop and support the fetus until term

A

true

207
Q

Which of the male accessory organs produces a fluid that contains a protein with antibiotic properties?

a. Seminal glands
b. Vas deferens
c. Prostate gland
d. Bulbourethral gland

A

prostate gland

208
Q

Which of the male accessory organs produces a nutrient to support the sperm?

a. Seminal glands
b. Vas deferens
Prostate gland (this one is also correct)
Bulbourethral gland

A

seminal glands and prostate gland

209
Q

Which of the male accessory organs produces a nutrient to support the sperm?

a. Seminal glands
b. Vas deferens
Prostate gland (this one is also correct)
Bulbourethral gland

A

seminal glands and prostate gland

210
Q

Which of the glands below becomes enlarged in older men leading to difficulties with urination.

a. Seminal gland
b. Bulbo-urethral gland
c. Cowper’s gland
d. Prostate gland

A

prostate gland

211
Q

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is/are false?

a. According to the CDC, Chlamydia is a notifiable condition
b. This is a common STI on the Cornell campus
c. This can be cured with common antibiotics
d. This can cause discharge from the penis or vagina
e. None of the above

A

none of the above

212
Q

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is/are false?

a. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection
b. Chlamydia and gonorrhea cause similar symptoms
c. Chlamydia can cause infertility in males and females
d. Chlamydia can cause genital warts

A

chlamydia can cause genital warts

213
Q

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is false?

a. Chlamydia can enter the peritoneal cavity
b. Chlamydia often becomes resistant to antibiotics
c. Chlamydia can cause neonatal conjuntivitis
d. Chlamydia often has no symptoms in women

A

chlamydia often becomes resistant to antibiotics

214
Q

the vaginal epithelium in non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

A

true

215
Q

the lining of the endocervix is ciliated columnar epithelium

A

true

216
Q

Which of the following hormones surge when ovulation occurs?

a. Progesterone
b. LH
c. Estrogen
d. None of the above

A

LH

217
Q

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A. LH
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. B and C

A

progesterone

218
Q

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A. LH
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. B and C

A

progesterone

219
Q

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Progesterone
b. LH
c. AMH
d. None of the above

A

none of the above

220
Q

leydig cells are found on the exterior of the blood testis barrier

A

true

221
Q

sertoli cells produce AMH

A

true

222
Q

The embryonic trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin that prolongs the life of the corpus luteum

A

true

223
Q

The blastocyst attaches to the maternal endometrium at about 5-6 days post fertilization

A

true

224
Q

Early in gestation, extravillous trophoblast cells block the maternal uterine spiral arteries

A

true

225
Q

The placenta is a fetally derived organ

A

true

226
Q

The placenta is an ephemeral (temporary) organ

A

true

227
Q

Histiotrophic nutrition means the developing embryo obtains its nutrition from the corpus luteum

A

false

228
Q

Hemotrophic nutrition means he developing fetus obtains its nutrition from the maternal blood supply

A

true

229
Q

In early gestation the maternal spiral arteries are occluded and the fetus obtains its nutrition through hemotrophic nutrition.

A

false

230
Q

Women delivering infants following uterine transplantation surgeries should deliver the infant vaginally

A

false

231
Q

Women with a uterine transplant typically deliver their infants prematurely

A

true

232
Q

Women receiving uterine transplants from deceased donors have had successful pregnancy outcomes following this type of uterine transplant

A

true

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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