Quiz Questions Flashcards by Ethan Chang

vental is a direction term that is synonymous with the term _______ below?

a. posterior
b. dorsal
c. anterior
d. medial

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an anatomical directional term that means the same as dorsal in humans is?

a. posterior
b. ventral
c. anterior
d. medial

posterior

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what section below would divide the body into right and left halves?

a. transverse
b. sagittal
c. dorsal
d. frontal

sagittal

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which form of cellular transport below requires energy?

a. passive diffusion
b. osmosis
c. exocytosis
d. none of the above

exocytosis

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which cellular transport process below does NOT require energy?

a. phagocytosis
b. osmosis
c. exocytosis
d. none of the above

osmosis

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in which of the abdominopelvic quadrants is the majority of the liver located in?

right upper quadrant

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in which of the abdominopelvic regions is the bladder located?

hypogastric

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which of the following organelles in nonmembranous?

a. nucleus
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi apparatus

ribosomes

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which of the following organelles has a single cell membrane?

a. ribosomes
b. nucleus
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi apparatus

Golgi apparatus

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after phagocytosis, what organelle is used to digest the contents contained within the phagosome?

lysosome

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t/f, a person with atransferrinemia has low serum ferritin concentrations and low serum hemoglobin concentrations?

false

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t/f, a person with atransferrinemia has elevated hemoglobin concentration?

false

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which organelle would be absent from a mature RBC?

a. Golgi apparatus
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. nucleus
e. all of the above

all of the above

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t/f, a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution could crenate if left in this solution?

false

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t/f, all ribosomes are found attached to cell membranes?

false

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t/f, the small subunit of a ribosome binds to transfer RNA?

false

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what medical term refers to a RBC?

erythrocyte

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which epidermal cell type below is a touch receptor?

a. Merkel Cell
b. Melanocyte
c. keratinocyte
d. Langerhans cells

merkel cell

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which epidermal cell type below is also known as a dendritic cell?

a. Merkel Cell
b. Melanocyte
c. Keratinocyte
d. Langerhans cell

Langerhans cell

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which epidermal cell type below sends vesicles up thought its arm-like extensions to protect the nucleus from UV exposure?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Merkel cell
c. Melanocyte
d. Keratinocyte

melanocyte

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what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin?

stratum lucidum

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what layer of the epidermis is superior to the stratum lucidum?

stratum corneum

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what layer of the epidermis is inferior to the stratum granulosum?

stratum spinosum

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t/f, pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor that are located in the dermal reticular layer and that respond to deep pressure and adapt quickly?

true

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t/f, Meissner’s corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor that are located within the dermal papillae and are responsible for sensitivity to light touch?

true

Mary was diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. When she heard this diagnosis the hair on the back of her arms stood straight up. This was due to what epidermal structure? a. Meissner’s corpuscle b. Pacinian corpuscle c. Arrector pili muscle d. Dermal papillae

arrestor pili muscle

which of the following are found in the epidermal-dermal junction? a. Epidermal ridges b. Dermal papillae c. Anchoring filaments d. All of the above

all of the above

henna tattoos are not permanent and are dying what skin layer?

epidermis

leather is made from which layer of the integument?

dermis

what cell in the epidermis is a specialized macrophage?

dendritic cell (langerhans)

individuals with two MCR1 mutations are more likely to have what color hair?

red

individuals with defective MCR1 alleles are less effective at making what protein?

melanin (eumelanin)

t/f, melanomas originate in the stratum basale and are always darkly pigmented?

false

t/f, skin cancers can develop in the stratum corneum because these cell are innervated?

false

Merkel cell carcinoma is a rare form of skin cancer that often metastasizes?

true

kidney dysfunction can lead to a lower production of which of the following D metabolites? A. 25(OH)D B. D3 C. 24,25(OH)2D D. Both B and C

24,25(OH)2D

which of the following D metabolites is the best biomarker of vitamin D status? A. 1,25OH)2D B. 24,25(OH)2D C. D3 D. 25(OH)D

25(OH)D

which of the following metabolizes would be expected to be elevated if the 1-alpha hydroxylate enzyme did not function? A. D3 B. 1,25(OH)2D C. 24,25(OH)2D D. Calcitriol

24,25(OH)2D

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes ACTH?

corticotrophs

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes prolactin?

lactotrophs

what is the name of the cell type in the pituitary that makes LH?

gonadotrophs

t/f, the anterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by a portal system?

true

t/f, the posterior pituitary synthesizes hormones and releases these in response to hormonal signals from the hypothalamus?

false

t/f, stimulatory and inhibitory hormones are released from the hypothalamus to simulate production of hormones in the posterior pituitary

false

t/f, men with mutations in ER-alpha have bone ages that are older than their chronological age?

false

t/f, men with mutation in ER-alpha have elevated concentration of SHBG?

true

t/f, men with mutations in ER-alpha have elevated serum concentrations of estrogen?

true

the adrenal gland has 3 zones from superficial to deep that are called the zona glomerulosa, zona _________, and zona reticularis

fasiculata

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE? A. An electrical gradient will drive sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell. B. A chemical gradient will drive sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell. C. An electrochemical gradient drives sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell D. None of the above

an electrochemical gradient drives sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is TRUE? A. The resting membrane potential is maintained by the Na/K ATPase B. Potassium concentrations are higher outside of the cell compared to K concentrations in the cytosol C. Sodium concentrations are higher inside the cell compared to Na concentrations in the extracellular fluid D. The electrochemical gradient drives sodium out of the cell

the resting membrane potential is maintained by the Na/K ATPase

Which of the following statements about the resting membrane potential is FALSE? A. The inside of the cell membrane is negative B. Potassium leakage channels move potassium from the inside to the outside of the cell C. The outside of the cell membrane is positive D. Sodium leakage channels move sodium from the inside to the outside of the cell

sodium leakage channel move sodium from the inside to the outside of the cell

t/f, astrocytes are found in the CNS and they work to maintain the blood brain barrier?

true

t/f, ependymal cells are found in the PNS and line the ventricles of the brain?

false

t/f, schwann cells are found in the CNS and surround axons?

false

t/f, the efferent division of the PNS brings Moto information to the CNS?

false

t/f, the afferent division of the PNS brings information from the CNS to the effectors?

false

t/f, motor commands are delivered to effectors using the efferent division of the PNS?

true

which of the following membrane transporters use energy? A. Pressure sensitive channels B. Ligand gated channels C. Ion pumps D. None of the above

ion pumps

which of the following membrane transported uses energy? A. leakage channel B. voltage gated channel C. ligand gated channel D. none of the above

none of the above

t/f, graded potentials are all or nothing events?

false

t/f, an action potential is an all or nothing event?

true

t/f, when a membrane is hyper polarized it is more difficult to set off an action potential?

true

when bone grows in length this type of bone growth is referred to as _______ growth?

interstitial

when the exterior shape of bone changes as it is modeled, this type of bone group is referred to as ________ growth?

appositional

a fetal femur forms by a processes called _______ formation?

endochondral

t/f, the diaphysis of a long bone has a high percentage of cortical bone?

true

t/f, the expanded ends of long bones contain a high percentage of trabecular bone?

true

t/f, dipole bone contains a medullary canal?

false

the sternum is an example of a/an ______ bone while the femur is an example of a _______ bone?

flat / long

a vertebrae is a/an _______ bone while the patella is a/an _____ bone?

irregular / sesamoid

t/f, the sarcoplasmic reticulum contains IP3 receptors that respond to intracellular second messengers?

true

t/f, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca after voltage gated channels in the t-tubule open?

true

t/f, energy is not needed to move calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum after a muscle stops contracting?

false

the epiphyseal growth plate is comprised of ______ cartilage and is abundant in this cell type _______?

hyaline / chondrocytes

the interaction between RANK-L and _______ stimulates osteoclast development?

RANK

the interaction between _____ and RANK-L stimulates bone formation?

OPG

RANK-L and _____ are produced by osteocytes?

OPG

which of the following sarcomere changes occur during muscle contraction? a. Zones of overlap get smaller b. The I band narrows c. Troponin moves off actin d. All of the above

the I band narrows

Which of the following sarcomere changes occur(s) during muscle contraction? a. Zones of overlap get smaller b. The A band narrows c. The Z lines move closer together d. Both A and C

the Z lines move closer together

Which of the following sarcomere changes occur(s) during muscle contraction? a. The Z lines move towards the M line b. Zones of overlap get smaller c. The H band gets larger d. The width of the I band stays constant

the Z line moves towards the M line

t/f, botulism is a bacterial toxin that can be lethal. If a baby is given honey at 2 months old and is exposed to the toxin, muscle contraction will not occur?

true

t/f, a drug that stimulates acetylcholine release would prevent muscle contraction?

false

if a person ingest an animal killed by curare, release of acetylcholine will be blocked and muscles cannot function?

false

Which of the following statements about Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is false? a. A man carrying this mutation has a 50% chance of transmitting it to his son b. This disease can be caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene c. Dystrophin helps anchor the cytoskeleton of the muscle fiber to the basal lamina d. There is no cure for Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

a man carrying this mutation has a 50% chance of transmitting it to his son

Which of the following statements about Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is false? a. This disease is caused by a mutation in myosin b. This disease has no cure c. A woman carrying this disease has a 50% chance of passing this to her son d. None of the above

this disease is caused by a mutation in myosin

which of the following statements about duchenne's muscular dystrophy is true? a. This disease is transmitted on the y chromosome b. This disease only affects skeletal muscles c. There is no cure for this disease at present d. Both B and C

There is no cure for this disease at present

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is/ are TRUE? a. STEMI can be observed in individuals with ACS b. Muscle proteins such as creatine kinase may be released during cardiac muscle damage c. Atherosclerosis increases the resistance to blood flow d. All of the above

all of the above

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is/ are TRUE? a. Many ACS occur in individuals that do not have significant occlusion of the vessel b. Percutaneous interventions are often used to acutely treat ACS c. Men and women often have different symptoms that precede ACS and heart attacks d. All of the above

all of the above

Which of the following statements about Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) are FALSE? a. Many ACS occur in individuals that do not have significant occlusion of the vessel b. Atherosclerosis progressively narrows the vessel lumen c. People rarely have abrupt changes from asymptomatic atherosclerotic heart disease to acute coronary syndromes d. Women often have different symptoms during acute coronary syndromes compared to men

people rarely have abrupt changes from asymptomatic atherosclerotic heart disease to ACS

which component of an ECG reflects ventricular repolarization? a. P wave b. PR interval c. QRS d. T wave

T wave

Which of the following components of an ECG reflects the duration of ventricular muscle depolarization? a. PR interval b. T wave c. QRS complex d. QT interval

QRS complex

Which of the following reflects the interval between ventricular depolarization and repolarization? QRS complex ST interval PR interval QT interval

ST interval

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? a. Arteries have more elastic fibers in the tunica media than veins b. EPO is produced by the bone marrow and increases production of red blood cells c. Atherosclerotic plaque builds up under the tunica intima d. All of the above

arteries have more elastic fibers in the tunica media then veins & atherosclerotic plaque builds up under the tunica intimia

Which of the following statement(s) is/are false? a. Pressure within a blood vessel decreases as the lumen diameter increases b. Vascular sinusoids are found in the spleen and in the kidney c. Arterial valves can become damaged and lead to varicose veins d. All of the above

arterial valves can become damaged and lead to varicose veins

Which of the following statement(s) is/are false? a. As the length of a vessel decreases, the resistance decreases b. The viscosity of blood does not impact resistance c. Polycythemia increases blood viscosity d. Veins contain valves to prevent pooling of blood in the extremities

the viscosity of blood does not impact resistance

What structure that is unique to cardiac muscle, links cells together and promotes the coordinated contraction of cardiac muscle?

intercalated disks/desmosomes/fascia adherens

cardiac cells are mechanically linked through specific structures called?

desmosomes/ intercalated discs/ fascia adherens

cardiac cells are chemically connected through structures referred to as?

gap junctions/ intercalated discs

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open, both the pulmonary valve and the bicuspid valve are closed.

false

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open, the aortic valve is closed.

true

During the process of a regular heart contraction, if the tricuspid valve is open; the bicuspid valve is open and the aortic valve is closed.

true

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles are highly vascularized and primarily use aerobic metabolism.

true

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have lower levels of mitochondria and independent muscle fibers.

false

Compared to skeletal muscles, cardiac muscles have long relative refractory periods due to long acting sodium channels

false

A heart attack is triggered by an electric malfunction of the autorhythmic cells

false

creatine kinase is a useful biomarker of cardiac damage after myocardial infarction?

true

The coronary sinus returns deoxygenated blood to the left atrium

false

A blood pressure measurement of 125 mm Hg for systolic pressure and 85 mm Hg diastolic pressure would be categorized as what according to the American Heart Association? a. Normal b. Elevated c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension

stage 1 hypertension

Which of the following helps prevent regurgitation through the AV valves? a. The interventricular septum b. The trabeculae carnae c. The chordae tendinae d. The fossa ovalis

chordae tendinae

Which of the following is open during ventricular systole? a. The chordae tendinae b. The atrioventricular (AV) valves c. The fossa ovalis d. The semilunar valves

semilunar valves

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in atrial depolarization? a. QRS complex b. T wave c. P wave d. PR interval

P wave

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in depolarization of the ventricles? a. T wave b. QRS complex c. P wave d. PR interval

QRS complex

Which of the following ECG components could be used to help diagnose abnormalities in ventricular repolarization? a. QRS complex b. P wave c. T wave d. PR interval

T wave

The moderator band is found in the left atrium.

false

The moderator band is found in the left atrium.

false

During ventricular contractions, the volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle is greater than the volume of blood pumped out of the right ventricle because of the thicker ventricular wall in the left ventricle.

false

The AV node depolarizes faster than the SA node.

false

According to the CF video on gene therapy, in the lung the secretory cells are enriched with CFTR protein

false

According to the CF video on gene therapy, in the lung the secretory cells are enriched with CFTR protein

false

According to the CF video on gene therapy, gene editing is most effective if implemented in basal cells due to their regenerative capacity

true

According to the CF video on gene therapy, RNA based therapies typically provide a lasting cure for CF.

false

An individual lives in LA. What process helps remove inhaled dust particles from the trachea?

mucociliary escalator

speech occurs from intermittent release of expired air while opening and closing the vocals cords which are located in the part of the respiratory system called the _____?

larynx

An individual drinks a glass of water but starts choking as the water enters the trachea. What cartilaginous structure normally functions to prevent this from happening?

epiglottis

Type II cells in the alveoli are simple stratified epithelial cells.

false

Type I cells in the alveoli are in contact with the basement membrane.

true

Dust cells in the alveoli are resident macrophages

true

Dust cells in the alveoli are resident macrophages

true

In bronchiectasis the airways lose the ability to clear mucus

true

Bronchiectasis is a disease where the trachea becomes widened and enlarged.

false

in bronchiectasis the walls of the bronchi become narrowed from inflammation

false

the gas law that deals with solubility of as gas in a liquid in relation to its partial pressure is called _______ law

henrys

The gas law that deals with the partial pressure of an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called _____ law

dalton's

The gas law that deals with the partial pressure of an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called _____ law

dalton's

The gas law that deals with the concept P=1/V is called _______ law

boyles

Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed by the CFTR protein in the reabsorptive duct of the sweat gland.

false

Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed by the CFTR protein in the reabsorptive duct of the sweat gland.

false

A pilocarpine test stimulates the secretory coil of a sweat gland

true

A sweat gland is a merocrine gland and contains both a secretory and a reabsorptive duct

true

Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Hemoglobin is almost completely saturated with CO2 at a p02 of 70 mm Hg b. The oxygen- hemoglobin saturation curve is a linear curve c. Hemoglobin is almost 100% saturated with O2 at a p02 of 40 mm Hg d. None of the statements above are true

none of the statements above are true

Which of the following factors does not cause the oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin more readily? a. An increase in temperature b. An increase in the pC02 c. An increase in pH d. A decrease in BPG

c & d

Which of the following statements is TRUE. a. Most C02 is transported in blood as carbonic acid b. Most oxygen is transported bound to globin c. 1.5% of oxygen is dissolved in plasma d. The reverse chloride shift occurs in the tissues

1.5% of oxygen is dissolved in plasma

Individuals with chronic kidney disease rarely get a kidney transplant because they die from _____

cardiovascular disease

Individuals with chronic kidney disease rarely get a kidney transplant because they die from _____

cardiovascular disease

Individuals that have chronic kidney disease have elevated phosphorus that increases the concentration of the hormone made in osteocytes called ______

FGF23

In individuals with chronic kidney disease, high concentrations of FGF23 would inhibit or stimulate [blank1] the production of calcitriol?

inhibit

gastrin inhibits HCL secretion?

false

CCK is a hormone made by the duodenum that increases the release of insulin?

false

VIP is made in the duodenum and works to dilate intestinal capillaries

true

Which of the following statements about Ulcerative Colitis is false? a. The typically affects the rectum and large intestine b. This disease impacts the entire thickness of the bowel wall c. This disease can cause widespread ulcers d. All of the above

this disease impacts the entire thickness of bowel wall

Which of the following statements about Crohn's disease are false? a. This can affect any part of the GI tract b. This disease can affect the eyes, skin and joints c. This disease typically affects the ileum d. None of the above

none of the above

Cells in the macula densa function primarily as mechanoreceptors.

false

The juxtaglomerular cells contain chemoreceptors that sense concentrations of Na and regulate GFR.

false

The juxtaglomerular cells contain mechanoreceptors and secrete renin when blood pressure falls

true

In response to an increase in ACE more of the hormone ________________ would be produced

angiotensin II

In response to hormonal signaling, what protein would be inserted into the collecting duct of the nephron to reabsorb water and help increase blood pressure?

aquaporins

In response to low glomerular pressure, the juxtaglomerular cells of the nephron secrete the hormone called renin. This acts on the hepatic protein called ________

angiotensinogen

Which of the following hormones is produced in response to high blood pressure or high blood volume? a. Angiotensin II b. ADH c. Aldosterone d. Atrial naturietic hormone e. Both A, B and C

atrial naturietic hormone

Both atrial naturietic peptide and brain naturietic peptide can be produced by the heart. These are released in response to which factor below? a. Low blood pressure b. Low GFR c. High blood pressure d. Low salt concentrations in blood

high blood pressure

Which of the following hormones are made by the heart in response to increasing blood pressure and volume? a. Atrial natriuretic peptide b. Brain natriuretic peptide c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Both A and B

both a and B

More substances typically enter from the peritubular space into the tubule lumen in the: a. Proximal convolute tubule b. Glomerulus c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Collecting duct

distal convoluted tubule

Most facultative water reabsorption occurs in the: a. Collecting duct b. Glomerulus c. Proximal convoluted tubule d. None of the above

collecting duct

Most obligatory water reabsorption occurs in the: a. Glomerulus b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Collecting duct d. None of the above

proximal convoluted tubule

n individuals with CKD, elevated serum phosphorus concentrations would inhibit 1-alpha hydroxylase enzymatic activity

true

A person with CKD would likely be anemic due to increased inflammation and its effect on increasing hepcidin production

true

In those with CKD, the kidney produces FGF23 in response to elevated serum phosphorus concentrations

false

In smooth muscle, varicosities release neurotransmitters into diffuse junctions

true

Smooth muscle has sarcomeres

false

Smooth muscle relies primarily on extracellular calcium for the calcium needed to contract

true

The parietal cells secrete a substance that is required for the absorption of B12

true

Parietal cells produce HCL in the cytosol and secrete this into the stomach

false

chief cells produce pepsinogen?

true

Which of the following statements are true about the function of the large intestine a. The sphincter to the proximal large intestine is the ileocecal valve b. fatty appendices are sacs of fat on the serosa of the colon (exterior of the large intestine) c. A major function of the large intestine is water absorption d. All of the above

all of the above

Which of the following statements about the large intestine are false? a. The large intestine plays a major role in nutrient absorption b. Several important vitamins are made by bacteria in the large intestine c. Longitudinal bands of smooth muscle that run along the surface of the colon are called taeniae coli d. All of the above

the large intestine plays a major role in nutrient absorption

Of the following statements about the large intestine are true? a. Mesenteries provide a structure for veins and arteries that vascularize the large intestine b. The surface of the large intestine contains villi c. The large intestine contains circular and longitudinal muscle d. Both A and C

both A and C

both smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are involuntary

true

smooth muscle contains varicosities and cardiac muscle contains triads

false

in skeletal muscle intracellular calcium binds to the troponin C subunit while in smooth muscle intracellular calcium binds to calmodulin

true

In a genetically male embryo the Mullerian duct produces AMH which causes the Wolffian ducts to regress

false

In a genetically female embryo the Wolffian duct produces AMH

false

In the gonads of a genetically male fetus the Sertoli cells secrete AMH

true

FSH stimulates the nurse cells to produce androgen binding protein

true

FSH stimulates the interstitial cells to produce inhibin

false

LH stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone

true

The gall bladder stores and concentrates bile that is made in the live

true

Bile is produced in the gall bladder and concentrated there before being released into the proximal small intestine

false

The exocrine tissue in the pancreas produces a number of enzymes that break down fats, carbohydrates, proteins and nucleic acid

true

Which of the following STI’s can be prevented with a vaccine? a. Trichomoniasis b. Syphilis c. Genital HPV d. Chlamydia

genital HPV

Which of the following STI’s is caused by a bacteria? a. Trichomoniasis b. Syphilis c. Gonorrhea d. All of the above e. Both and B and C

both B and C

Which of the following STI’s are treatable but not curable? a. Hepatitis B b. Syphilis c. Trichomoniasis d. Chlamydia

hepatitis B

the most common STI in 20-24y old males and females is _______

chlamydia

the STI _______ is becoming resistant to virtually all antibiotics

gonorrhea

in females, chlamydia gets into the peitoneal cavity by exiting the structure called the _______?

fallopain tube

FSH stimulates the ______ to produce estrogen

corpus luteum

luteinizing hormone stimulates the _______ to produce testosterone

leydig cells, interstitial cells

FSH stimulates the _______ to produce AMH

sertoli or nurse cells

During early gonad development AMH causes the Wolffian duct to regress

false

During early gonad development AMH causes the Wolffian duct to regress

false

Peristalsis occurs in the gastrointestinal tract and functions to mix the intestinal contents back and forth.

false

Segmentation occurs in the gastrointestinal tract and functions to push the intestinal contents in a forward direction.

false

In the small intestine circular muscle contracts and narrows the gut lumen and longitudinal muscle contracts and shortens the intestinal segment which together serves to push the bolus in the lumen forward

true

in the majority of ectopic pregnancies, the zygote implants in the peritoneal cavity.

false

Ectopic pregnancies are one of the leading causes of maternal mortality in early gestation

true

In rare circumstances an embryo can implant in the peritoneal cavity and the placenta will develop and support the fetus until term

true

Which of the male accessory organs produces a fluid that contains a protein with antibiotic properties? a. Seminal glands b. Vas deferens c. Prostate gland d. Bulbourethral gland

prostate gland

Which of the male accessory organs produces a nutrient to support the sperm? a. Seminal glands b. Vas deferens Prostate gland (this one is also correct) Bulbourethral gland

seminal glands and prostate gland

Which of the male accessory organs produces a nutrient to support the sperm? a. Seminal glands b. Vas deferens Prostate gland (this one is also correct) Bulbourethral gland

seminal glands and prostate gland

Which of the glands below becomes enlarged in older men leading to difficulties with urination. a. Seminal gland b. Bulbo-urethral gland c. Cowper’s gland d. Prostate gland

prostate gland

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is/are false? a. According to the CDC, Chlamydia is a notifiable condition b. This is a common STI on the Cornell campus c. This can be cured with common antibiotics d. This can cause discharge from the penis or vagina e. None of the above

none of the above

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is/are false? a. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection b. Chlamydia and gonorrhea cause similar symptoms c. Chlamydia can cause infertility in males and females d. Chlamydia can cause genital warts

chlamydia can cause genital warts

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is false? a. Chlamydia can enter the peritoneal cavity b. Chlamydia often becomes resistant to antibiotics c. Chlamydia can cause neonatal conjuntivitis d. Chlamydia often has no symptoms in women

chlamydia often becomes resistant to antibiotics

the vaginal epithelium in non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

true

the lining of the endocervix is ciliated columnar epithelium

true

Which of the following hormones surge when ovulation occurs? a. Progesterone b. LH c. Estrogen d. None of the above

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle A. LH B. Progesterone C. FSH D. B and C

progesterone

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle A. LH B. Progesterone C. FSH D. B and C

progesterone

Which of the following hormones are elevated during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle? a. Progesterone b. LH c. AMH d. None of the above

none of the above

leydig cells are found on the exterior of the blood testis barrier

true

sertoli cells produce AMH

true

The embryonic trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin that prolongs the life of the corpus luteum

true

The blastocyst attaches to the maternal endometrium at about 5-6 days post fertilization

true

Early in gestation, extravillous trophoblast cells block the maternal uterine spiral arteries

true

The placenta is a fetally derived organ

true

The placenta is an ephemeral (temporary) organ

true

Histiotrophic nutrition means the developing embryo obtains its nutrition from the corpus luteum

false

Hemotrophic nutrition means he developing fetus obtains its nutrition from the maternal blood supply

true

In early gestation the maternal spiral arteries are occluded and the fetus obtains its nutrition through hemotrophic nutrition.

false

Women delivering infants following uterine transplantation surgeries should deliver the infant vaginally

false

Women with a uterine transplant typically deliver their infants prematurely

true

Women receiving uterine transplants from deceased donors have had successful pregnancy outcomes following this type of uterine transplant

true