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EMT 224 > Quiz Packet > Flashcards

Quiz Packet Flashcards

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1
Q

Foreign body airway obstruction is defined as a problem with:

A) Ventilation
B) Diffusion
C) Perfusion
D) Oxygenation

A

A) Ventilation

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2
Q

The process of air moving into and out of the lungs is:

A) Ventilation
B) Diffusion
C) Respiration
D) Oxygenation

A

A) Ventilation

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3
Q

Chronic bronchitis can be defined as:

A) Inflammatory changes and excessive mucus production in the bronchial tree
B) Chronic enlargement of the alveoli, with loss of elasticity
C) Recurrent reactive bronchospasm
D) A chronic fungal infection leading to pus-filled epithelial tissue and bronchoconstriction

A

A) Inflammatory changes and excessive mucus production in the bronchial tree

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4
Q

Clinical diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is made by the presence of:

A) A chronic cough for at least 1 year
B) Cough with sputum production occurring for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years
C) Cough and sputum production occurring seasonally each year for 5 years
D) Recurrent upper respiratory bacterial infections refractory to penicillin-based antibiotics

A

B) Cough with sputum production occurring for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years

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5
Q

Emphysema is described as a:

A) Reactive airway disease
B) Constriction of the bronchial passage
C) Permanent abnormal enlargement of the air spaces and destruction of alveoli
D) Long-term bacterial infection in the lungs

A

C) Permanent abnormal enlargement of the air spaces and destruction of alveoli

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6
Q

An elevated hematocrit level secondary to chronic hypoxia is known as:

A) Hemoglobinemia
B) Hemotocrititis
C) Polycythemia
D) Hemopoiesis

A

C) Polycythemia

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7
Q

Patients with emphysema have increased airway resistance during:

A) Inspiration
B) Expiration
C) Inspiration and expiration
D) Inspiration during an exacerbation

A

B) Expiration

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8
Q

Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:

A) Dilating the bronchi
B) Increasing mucus production
C) Preventing atelectasis
D) Increasing surfactant production

A

A) Dilating the bronchi

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9
Q

You are treating a patient who reports that she has COPD. If she has emphysema, you would expect:

A) A productive cough
B) Mild, chronic dyspnea
C) Chronic cyanosis
D) A thick, barrel-chested appearance

A

D) A thick, barrel-chested appearance

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10
Q

Asthma exacerbations result in:

A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
B) Drying of respiratory mucus
C) Loss of elasticity in the bronchial walls
D) Carbon dioxide offloading

A

A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction

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11
Q

Excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack may lead to:

A) Excessively increased preload
B) Hypertension
C) Hypocapnia
D) Pulsus paradoxus

A

D) Pulsus paradoxus

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12
Q

The current cornerstone of asthma treatment in the United States is:

A) Steroids
B) Albuterol
C) Racemic epinephrine
D) Aminophylline

A

B) Albuterol

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13
Q

You are called to the home of a 3-year-old boy whose parents report that he can’t stop wheezing. He has a history of asthma and recently began to have a runny nose and sniffles. The parents have administered three doses of albuterol from the child’s inhaler. Asthma that doesn’t resolve with repeated doses of bronchodilators is called:

A) Refractory asthma
B) Severe asthma
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Type II asthma

A

C) Status asthmaticus

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14
Q

Status asthmaticus is commonly triggered by:

A) Stress
B) Hormone imbalance
C) Physical exertion
D) Viral respiratory infection

A

D) Viral respiratory infection

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15
Q

A local preschool has closed because of an epidemic of pneumonia among the children. The most common cause of children’s pneumonia is:

A) Fungus growing in the preschool
B) Influenza A
C) Environmental exposure to allergens
D) Streptococcal pneumonia

A

B) Influenza A

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16
Q

Days after a seizure and a period of unconsciousness, a patient develops pneumonia. This patient is at high risk for:

A) Viral pneumonia
B) Aspiration pneumonia
C) Bacterial pneumonia
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia

A

B) Aspiration pneumonia

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17
Q

One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:

A) Rales
B) Rhonchi
C) Productive cough
D) Fever

A

D) Fever

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18
Q

A condition that exists when the capillaries in the lung have greater permeability, which leads to rales and stiff alveoli, is known as:

A) ARDS
B) COPD
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Asthma

A

A) ARDS

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19
Q

A bleb is a:

A) A weakened area of the lung
B) Type of cancer cell
C) Loss of lung elasticity
D) Type of cell that produces mucus

A

A) A weakened area of the lung

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20
Q

PEEP is used to:

A) Open constricted bronchi
B) Overcome upper airway obstructions
C) Keep alveoli open
D) Ventilate patients with pneumothorax

A

C) Keep alveoli open

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21
Q

Which of the following patients would be predisposed to spontaneous pneumothorax?

A) A female aged 60 to 70
B) A male aged 60 to 70
C) A patient who is thin and tall and has a narrow chest
D) A patient who is short and obese

A

C) A patient who is thin and tall and has a narrow chest

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22
Q

You are dispatched to the airport for a 34-year-old female who states, “I can’t catch my breath. I just missed the most important meeting of my life”. The patient appears upset and anxious. The patient is tachypneic with clear lung sounds bilat. She is complaining of numbness and tingling in her lips and fingertips. The patient has no medical history. The patient is most likely suffering from:

A) Pulmonary embolism
B) Spontaneous pneumothorax
C) Asthma
D) Hyperventilation syndrome

A

D) Hyperventilation syndrome

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23
Q

The most appropriate treatment for a patient with hyper ventilation syndrome would include:

A) High-flow oxygen
B) Calming the patient and supplying oxygen as necessary
C) Instructing the patient to breathe into a paper bag
D) Encouraging the patient to hold his breath for as long as possible

A

B) Calming the patient and supplying oxygen as necessary

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24
Q

If arterial blood gases were drawn on a hyperventilating patient, they most likely would reveal:

A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis

A

B) Respiratory alkalosis

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25
Q

The resultant respiratory alkalosis associated with hyperventilation syndrome is due to an excessive loss of:

A) O2
B) Na
C) CO2
D) N

A

C) CO2

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26
Q

You are treating a 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and atherosclerosis. Her chief complaint is persistent heartburn. You suspect:

A) This event is not related to her heart because she feels no chest pain
B) This may be a cardiovascular problem because women and patients with diabetes often present with atypical symptoms
C) That if this is absolutely a cardiovascular event, she will develop chest pain or shortness of breath
D) Treatment for diabetes is more appropriate than treatment for cardiovascular problems

A

B) This may be a cardiovascular problem because women and patients with diabetes often present with atypical symptoms

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27
Q

You are treating a 70-year-old male patient with atrial fibrillation. The patient’s ventricular heart rate is 180 beats per minute, the blood pressure is 90/60, and the patient complains of chest pain. The hallmark of atrial fibrillation is:

A) An irregularly irregular rhythm
B) Multifocal PVCs
C) P waves following the QRS complex
D) 1:3 conduction through the AV node

A

A) An irregularly irregular rhythm

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28
Q

You have determined that your atrial fibrillation patient is unstable and requires electrical therapy. You will perform ______________ countershock with ____ joules.

A) Unsynchronized; 50
B) Synchronized; 50
C) Unsynchronized; 100
D) Synchronized; 120

A

D) Synchronized; 120

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29
Q

If atrial fibrillation has been present for more than 48 hours, conversion of this rhythm may lead to:

A) Release of emboli
B) Sudden ventricular fibrillation
C) Refractory hypotension
D) Rebound tachycardia

A

A) Release of emboli

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30
Q

Prinzmetal angina occurs when:

A) Coronary arteries are blocked
B) Patients have angina only on exertion
C) Angina is progressively worsening
D) Coronary arteries spasm

A

D) Coronary arteries spasm

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31
Q

Most myocardial infarctions are caused by:

A) Acute thrombotic occlusion
B) Coronary spasm
C) Coronary embolism
D) Severe hypoxia

A

A) Acute thrombotic occlusion

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32
Q

The majority of acute myocardial infarctions involve the:

A) Left ventricle
B) Right ventricle
C) The anterior portion of both ventricles
D) The inferior portion of both ventricles

A

A) Left ventricle

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33
Q

The position of comfort for a patient with left ventricular failure is usually:

A) Sitting with legs dependent
B) Trendelenburg
C) Left lateral recumbent
D) Shock position

A

A) Sitting with legs dependent

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34
Q

Which of the following is most indicative of right ventricular infarct?

A) Foamy, blood-tinged sputum
B) Adventitious lung sounds
C) Peripheral edema
D) Orthopnea

A

C) Peripheral edema

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35
Q

What is a sign of cardiac tamponade?

A) Bradycardia
B) Flat neck veins
C) Decreased venous pressure
D) Muffled heart tones

A

D) Muffled heart tones

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36
Q

While assessing a patient, you note a pulsatile mass in the abdomen. Suddenly this mass is no longer palpable, and the patient’s blood pressure begins to drop. You suspect:

A) The mass is no longer a problem
B) The mass can’t be felt because of guarding in the abdominal muscles
C) The patient’s blood pressure will recover with a fluid bolus
D) The patient’s aneurysm has ruptured

A

D) The patient’s aneurysm has ruptured

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37
Q

You are called to the local airport to evaluate a 40-year-old obese woman who is complaining of pain in her left lower leg. She has just completed a 12-hour flight, and the pain developed as she got off the plane. Her leg is warm, swollen, and painful. You suspect:

A) Arterial occlusion of the popliteal artery
B) Dissection of the femoral artery
C) Deep-vein thrombosis
D) A venous aneurysm

A

C) Deep-vein thrombosis

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38
Q

The organ(s) most at risk in a hypertensive crisis include the:

A) Kidneys
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Eyes

A

A) Kidneys

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39
Q

You are treating a patient with blood pressure elevated to 200/140. The patient initially complained of headache and nausea. During your 3-hour transport, the patient began to seize and is now unresponsive to any stimulus. You suspect the patient has:

A) Stroke
B) Aortic aneurysm
C) Epilepsy
D) Hypertensive encephalopathy

A

D) Hypertensive encephalopathy

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40
Q

Treatment for a patient in a hypertensive crisis includes:

A) Labetalol
B) Morphine
C) Fibrinolytic therapy
D) Diazepam

A

A) Labetalol

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41
Q

A single elongated projection of a neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body is called a(n):

A) Neuroglia
B) Body
C) Dendrite
D) Axon

A

D) Axon

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42
Q

Afferent neurons transmit impulses:

A) Toward the brain
B) Toward the stimulus
C) Away from the brain
D) Away from the spinal cord

A

A) Toward the brain

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43
Q

Nodes of Ranvier occur on myelin sheaths of axons, allowing impulses to:

A) Be conducted more slowly
B) Jump from one node to the next
C) Propagate an impulse along the length of the axon
D) Select a pathway with the least resistance

A

B) Jump from one node to the next

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44
Q

The spacing between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another is called a:

A) Node
B) Myelin sheath
C) Synapse
D) Cleft

A

C) Synapse

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45
Q

The circle of Willis is a(n):

A) Important reflex arc
B) Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain
C) A large grouping of neurons attached to the medulla
D) A sensory nerve that transmits directly to the brain

A

B) Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain

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46
Q

If a patient is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:

A) Markedly increase
B) Moderately increase
C) Not be affected
D) Decrease

A

D) Decrease

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47
Q

Cushing’s triad consists of:

A) Elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
B) Decreased blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate
C) Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate
D) Decreased blood pressure, increased pulse and respiratory rate

A

C) Elevated blood pressure, decreased pulse and respiratory rate

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48
Q

The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:

A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Retrograde amnesia
C) Rapidly worsening level of consciousness
D) Hypoxia

A

C) Rapidly worsening level of consciousness

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49
Q

A mnemonic device that helps remember the common causes of coma is:

A) DCAP-BTLS
B) AEIOU TIPS
C) AVPU
D) OPQRST

A

B) AEIOU TIPS

50
Q

Administration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:

A) Metabolic
B) Structural
C) Hypoglycemic
D) Alcoholic

A

D) Alcoholic

51
Q

Why would an unconscious patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?

A) It stimulates the brain stem
B) It depresses seizure activity
C) It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
D) It competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

A

D) It competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

52
Q

The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:

A) Hemorrhage and sepsis
B) Occlusion and hemorrhage
C) Occlusion and neoplasm
D) Neoplasm and sepsis

A

B) Occlusion and hemorrhage

53
Q

Your patient complains of the abrupt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. This is indicative of:

A) Cerebral thrombosis
B) Cerebral embolism
C) Transient ischemic attack
D) Hemorrhagic stroke

A

D) Hemorrhagic stroke

54
Q

A TIA differs from a stroke in that:

A) The only mechanism of a TIA is an occlusive injury
B) Patients undergoing a TIA exhibit only weakness and paralysis
C) The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours
D) Patients undergoing a TIA have no real risk of having a stroke

A

C) The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours

55
Q

The arm drift in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal if:

A) The patient cannot hold his or her arms in front of the body for 3 minutes
B) One arm drifts down compared to the other
C) Gripping an object in the hands causes the arms to drift
D) Pressure applied against outstretched arms causes them to drift

A

B) One arm drifts down compared to the other

56
Q

The most important action a paramedic can take in the treatment of a stroke patient is to:

A) Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility
B) Determine whether the stroke is hemorrhagic or occlusive
C) Administer glucose
D) Control seizure activity

A

A) Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility

57
Q

Epilepsy is a seizure disorder:

A) Caused by metabolic abnormalities
B) Secondary to infection
C) That occurs primarily in febrile children
D) With no known correctable or avoidable causes

A

D) With no known correctable or avoidable causes

58
Q

Your partner suddenly falls to the floor and becomes very rigid, with occasional relaxation of the muscles. His temperature is normal. He is apneic and incontinent of urine. This type of seizure activity is best described as:

A) Tonic-clonic
B) Clonic
C) Tonic
D) Petit mal

A

A) Tonic-clonic

59
Q

Your 4-year-old son stares off into space and doesn’t respond to your repeated questioning about whether he is all right. He displays no movement and remains in a standing position. This type of seizure activity is best defined as:

A) Tonic-clonic
B) Clonic
C) Tonic
D) Petit mal

A

D) Petit mal

60
Q

Your patient reports that she is having an auditory aura. This is a warning that she may have a:

A) Hemorrhagic stroke
B) Cerebral embolism
C) Brain tumor
D) Seizure

A

D) Seizure

61
Q

You have been on the scene with a patient who is experiencing a grand mal seizure. As soon as the seizure resolves, your priority in her management will be to:

A) Pad the rails of the stretcher to prevent injury in case she seizes again
B) Document a full description of the seizure activity and her postictal phase
C) Start an IV of lactated Ringer’s or normal saline and administer diazepam slowly over 5 minutes
D) Assist her in maintaining her airway and provide high-flow oxygen

A

D) Assist her in maintaining her airway and provide high-flow oxygen

62
Q

Status epilepticus is defined as:

A) A period of abnormal perception before a seizure
B) Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening
C) Seizure activity on only one side of the body
D) The medical term for psychogenic epilepsy

A

B) Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening

63
Q

A Jacksonian seizure is a type of:

A) Grand mal seizure
B) Tonic-clonic seizure
C) Partial seizure
D) Petit mal seizure

A

C) Partial seizure

64
Q

Diazepam has which of the following significant side effects?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Vomiting
C) Respiratory depression
D) Headache

A

C) Respiratory depression

65
Q

Headaches that are precipitated by constriction and dilation of blood vessels and cause intense throbbing on one side of the head are called:

A) Tension headaches
B) Migraine headaches
C) Cluster headaches
D) Sinus headaches

A

B) Migraine headaches

66
Q

A brain abscess is a(n):

A) Tumor
B) Lesion inside the cranial vault
C) Neoplasm
D) Accumulation of pus

A

D) Accumulation of pus

67
Q

An inherited disease that causes slow but progressive degeneration of muscle fibers and usually causes the patient to die by the age of 12 is:

A) Muscular dystrophy
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) Polio

A

A) Muscular dystrophy

68
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by damage to or degeneration of nerve cells in the:

A) Cerebrum
B) Pons
C) Basal ganglia
D) Hypothalamus

A

C) Basal ganglia

69
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is:

A) A common neurological disorder
B) More common in women than men
C) Curable with aggressive brain surgery
D) Usually fatal within 2 to 4 years of diagnosis

A

D) Usually fatal within 2 to 4 years of diagnosis

70
Q

Which chemicals initiate the inflammatory process:

A) Bicarbonate, histamine, and heparin
B) Histamine and heparin
C) Heparin and bicarbonate
D) Bicarbonate and histamine

A

B) Histamine and heparin

71
Q

An allergic reaction is:

A) Stimulation of an endocrine response
B) An overly sensitive immune response
C) Stimulation of the peripheral efferent nerves
D) An oversensitive erythema response

A

B) An overly sensitive immune response

72
Q

An allergen can be defined as a(n):

A) An antibody that reacts to the immune response
B) Chemical released during anaphylaxis
C) Antigen causing an allergic response
D) Antibody causing an allergic response

A

C) Antigen causing an allergic response

73
Q

The primary antibody affecting an anaphylactic reaction is:

A) IgM
B) IgE
C) IgA
D) IgG

A

B) IgE

74
Q

Anaphylactoid reactions:

A) Are antigen-antibody-mediated reactions
B) Must be identified to be treated correctly
C) Present quite differently from anaphylactic reactions
D) Are treated in the same way as anaphylactic reactions

A

D) Are treated in the same way as anaphylactic reactions

75
Q

Localized allergic reactions are best managed with:

A) Topical steroids
B) Antihistamines
C) Hot packs and elevation
D) Beta-blockers

A

B) Antihistamines

76
Q

In sensitized individuals, the risk of anaphylaxis increases most with:

A) Type of antigen
B) Frequency of exposure
C) Length of exposure
D) Site of inoculation

A

B) Frequency of exposure

77
Q

The chemical released in an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:

A) Leukotriene
B) Histamine
C) Heparin
D) Kinin

A

B) Histamine

78
Q

Histamines promote the contraction of nonvascular smooth muscle, especially muscles in the:

A) Endocrine system
B) Urinary tract
C) Bronchial tree
D) Eyes

A

C) Bronchial tree

79
Q

The most life-threatening result of an anaphylactic reaction is:

A) Airway compromise
B) Nonvascular smooth muscle constriction
C) Hypotension due to third-spacing
D) Increased intracranial pressure

A

A) Airway compromise

80
Q

During an anaphylactic reaction, urticaria may be noted on the skin, and swelling may be noted in the __________________.

A) Legs and feet
B) Abdomen
C) Face and tongue
D) Fingers and toes

A

C) Face and tongue

81
Q

Angioedema results from the swelling of the:

A) Face and tongue
B) Subcutaneous tissue
C) Epidermis
D) Muscles

A

B) Subcutaneous tissue

82
Q

A patient calls 911 because he fears that the cookie he has just eaten may have contained peanuts, which he is highly allergic to. He ate the cookie 1 hour ago. You tell him:

A) Anaphylaxis usually occurs within 30 minutes of the introduction of the antigen
B) If you haven’t developed symptoms by now you will have no problems
C) Symptoms can be delayed for up to 3 hours
D) He should watch for symptoms of anaphylaxis for the next 48 hours

A

A) Anaphylaxis usually occurs within 30 minutes of the introduction of the antigen

83
Q

Your patient is a 28-year-old female who is complaining of a rash on her abdomen and tightness in her chest. She ate shellfish approximately 2 hours ago. The symptoms first appeared approximately 1 hour ago and have not worsened. Her vital signs are normal and lung sounds are clear, with good tidal volume. The patient is without any further complaint. Given these symptoms, you suspect that the patient is experiencing:

A) A mild allergic reaction
B) An anaphylactic reaction
C) An allergic reaction that will progress to anaphylaxis
D) A problem other than an allergic reaction

A

A) A mild allergic reaction

84
Q

Expect that a fluid bolus of up to ____________ may be needed to restore blood pressure in anaphylactic patients.

A) 500 mL
B) 1 L
C) 2 L
D) 4 L

A

D) 4 L

85
Q

Your patient is in cardiac arrest following a severe anaphylactic reaction. The patient’s face and neck are severely swollen. Administration of epinephrine should be:

A) Via SQ injection
B) At half the usual dose for cardiac arrest
C) Withheld until the airway is established
D) The normal dose of 1mg 1:10,000 IVP

A

D) The normal dose of 1mg 1:10,000 IVP

86
Q

The standard subcutaneous dose of epinephrine used in treating an adult with severe anaphylaxis is:

A) 0.1 to 0.3 mg of 1:1000 solution
B) 0.1 to 0.3 mg of 1:10,000 solution
C) 0.3 to 0.5 mg of 1:1000 solution
D) 0.3 to 0.5 mg of 1:10,000 solution

A

C) 0.3 to 0.5 mg of 1:1000 solution

87
Q

The primary treatment for hypotension resulting from anaphylaxis is:

A) Dopamine
B) IV fluids
C) Epinephrine
D) Diphenhydramine

A

B) IV fluids

88
Q

Urticaria is:

A) A general term given to describe the GI symptoms associated with anaphylaxis
B) Used to describe upper airway swelling
C) Caused by intact/stable mast cells in an anaphylactic reaction
D) Caused by increased capillary permeability and the leaking of fluid into the interstitial spaces

A

D) Caused by increased capillary permeability and the leaking of fluid into the interstitial spaces

89
Q

You are called to the scene to treat a 28-year-old male who was attacked by a swarm of bees. The fire department has responded and foamed the bees. The scene is safe. Your patient is unconscious and covered with swelling and urticaria. Lung sounds reveal diminished tidal volume and wheezes. You hear stridor with respirations. His blood pressure is 70/40. After administering high-flow oxygen and securing the airway, the initial treatment of this patient would be:

A) SQ epinephrine 0.3 to 0.5 mg 1:1000 solution
B) IV epinephrine 0.15 to 0.3 mg 1:10,000 solution
C) IM diphenhydramine 25 to 50 mg
D) Albuterol inhaler

A

A) SQ epinephrine 0.3 to 0.5 mg 1:1000 solution

90
Q

SQ or IM epinephrine may not be effective for a patient having severe anaphylactic reactions because of:

A) The patient’s age
B) Decreased peripheral perfusion
C) Bronchoconstriction
D) The type of allergen

A

B) Decreased peripheral perfusion

91
Q

You might suspect a patient has cholecystitis if he or she has pain in the:

A) Right upper quadrant
B) Left upper quadrant
C) Right lower quadrant
D) Left lower quadrant

A

A) Right upper quadrant

92
Q

Your patient is complaining of cramping pain that varies in level of intensity. This type of pain is called:

A) Visceral pain
B) Somatic pain
C) Organ pain
D) Referred pain

A

A) Visceral pain

93
Q

Peritonitis causes what type of pain?

A) Visceral pain
B) Somatic pain
C) Organ pain
D) Referred pain

A

B) Somatic pain

94
Q

Biliary pain is commonly referred to the:

A) Neck and jaw
B) Right subscapular area
C) Left flank
D) Lower back

A

B) Right subscapular area

95
Q

The most common cause of lower GI bleeding includes:

A) Ulcerative colitis
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Polyps
D) Diverticulosis

A

D) Diverticulosis

96
Q

You are called to the home of a 50-year-old alcoholic man with a history of cirrhosis of the liver. He called 911 today because he has been vomiting bright-red blood. His vital signs are pulse 110, BP 98/60, R 20. You suspect this patient’s bleeding is due to:

A) Hypertension
B) Variceal rupture
C) Cancer of the esophagus
D) Peptic ulcers

A

B) Variceal rupture

97
Q

Gastroenteritis is:

A) Caused by the influenza virus
B) Inflammation of the stomach and intestines
C) Limited primarily to small children
D) Has slow onset and causes intestinal cramping but rarely vomiting or diarrhea

A

B) Inflammation of the stomach and intestines

98
Q

The H. pylori bacterium is a common cause of:

A) Appendicitis
B) Gastric ulcers
C) Colitis
D) Crohn’s disease

A

B) Gastric ulcers

99
Q

A 32-year-old male presents with abdominal pain. He states that the pain began 2 hours ago and was primarily around the umbilicus. The original pain is described as crampy and diffuse. The patient states that the pain is now centered in the lower right quadrant and is intense and stabbing. The physical examination reveals that the patient is diaphoretic and that there is an increase in pain on palpation in the lower right quadrant; he is lying in the fetal position. Considering the patient’s presentation and history, you suspect:

A) Gastritis
B) Pancreatitis
C) Diverticulitis
D) Appendicitis

A

D) Appendicitis

100
Q

A 32-year-old male presents with abdominal pain. He states that the pain began 2 hours ago and was primarily around the umbilicus. The original pain is described as crampy and diffuse. The patient states that the pain is now centered in the lower right quadrant and is intense and stabbing. The physical examination reveals that the patient is diaphoretic and that there is an increase in pain on palpation in the lower right quadrant; he is lying in the fetal position. The original diffuse, crampy pain surrounding the umbilicus can be described as:

A) Visceral pain
B) Somatic pain
C) Referred pain
D) Sympathetic pain

A

A) Visceral pain

101
Q

Intense, localized, stabbing pain can be described as:

A) Visceral pain
B) Somatic pain
C) Referred pain
D) Sympathetic pain

A

B) Somatic pain

102
Q

The most common locations of ulcers that are the result of peptic ulcer disease are the:

A) Jejunum and ileum
B) Large intestine and rectum
C) Stomach and duodenum
D) Stomach and esophagus

A

C) Stomach and duodenum

103
Q

The cause of Crohn’s disease is thought to be:

A) Autoimmunity
B) Alcohol ingestion
C) Chronic use of NSAIDs
D) Bacteria

A

A) Autoimmunity

104
Q

Hernias result from:

A) A weakening in the stomach wall that ruptures
B) Pockets that develop in the large intestine
C) The kinking of the small intestine
D) The peritoneum pushing through the abdominal musculature

A

D) The peritoneum pushing through the abdominal musculature

105
Q

The most common cause of esophageal varices is:

A) Portal hypertension
B) Caustic ingestion
C) Bacterial infection
D) Advanced age

A

A) Portal hypertension

106
Q

The tearing of the mucosa of the esophagus as the result of prolonged, violent vomiting is known as:

A) Kerr’s sign
B) Crohn’s disease
C) Mallory-Weiss syndrome
D) Chronic emesis pressure syndrome

A

C) Mallory-Weiss syndrome

107
Q

You would expect bleeding from ruptured esophageal varices to be:

A) Dark red and minimal
B) Bright red and copious
C) Usually self-limited and minor
D) Bright red and easily controlled

A

B) Bright red and copious

108
Q

You are evaluating a 45-year-old obese woman who is complaining of upper right quadrant pain that radiates to her right scapula. The woman is diabetic and takes oral contraceptives. She had just finished a fast-food meal of french fries and a hamburger when the pain started. You suspect this patient’s pain may be caused by:

A) Cholecystitis
B) Appendicitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Colitis

A

A) Cholecystitis

109
Q

You are evaluating a 45-year-old obese woman who is complaining of upper right quadrant pain that radiates to her right scapula. The woman is diabetic and takes oral contraceptives. She had just finished a fast-food meal of french fries and a hamburger when the pain started. In the majority of cases, this condition is caused by:

A) Gallstones
B) Bacterial infection
C) Alcohol ingestion
D) Poor dietary fiber intake

A

A) Gallstones

110
Q

Hepatitis B is most commonly spread through:

A) Oral/fecal transmission
B) Airborne exposure
C) Blood or serum secretions
D) Bacterial infection

A

C) Blood or serum secretions

111
Q

The most common cause of urinary retention in men is:

A) Enlarged prostate
B) Foreign body obstruction
C) CNS dysfunction
D) Use of parasympatholytic drugs

A

A) Enlarged prostate

112
Q

Urinary tract infections usually develop first in the:

A) Urethra
B) Ureters
C) Kidneys
D) Nephrons

A

A) Urethra

113
Q

Which of the following is true of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A) UTIs are more common in men than in women
B) UTIs commonly occur when enteric flora enter the urethra
C) Many contraceptive devices help to kill the causative agents of UTIs
D) UTIs are rarely caused by sexually transmitted diseases

A

B) UTIs commonly occur when enteric flora enter the urethra

114
Q

Unlike epididymitis, testicular torsion:

A) Is a true urological emergency
B) Requires antibiotic treatment
C) Is typically associated with a fever
D) Is characterized by tenderness and pain

A

A) Is a true urological emergency

115
Q

Analgesia for genitourinary pain is generally:

A) Given in the prehospital setting
B) Encouraged, to make patients more comfortable for long transports
C) Avoided, so that pain will not be masked during the physician’s evaluation
D) Achieved by oral medications

A

A) Given in the prehospital setting

116
Q

In the United States, chronic renal failure is most commonly the result of:

A) Trauma to the kidneys
B) Congenital abnormalities
C) Systemic diseases
D) Prolonged pyelonephritis

A

C) Systemic diseases

117
Q

You are dispatched to the home of a 43-year-old female who has just finished 3 hours of dialysis. She complains of dizziness, fatigue, nausea, and a headache. Her blood pressure is 84/44 mm Hg. Which of the following is true regarding the fluid resuscitation of this patient?

A) IV fluids are contraindicated in patients receiving dialysis
B) It will probably take 1 L of normal saline per hour of dialysis to make this patient normotensive
C) Special dialysis solutions will be required to restore her circulation
D) She will probably respond to small boluses of normal saline (approximately 200 to 300 mL)

A

D) She will probably respond to small boluses of normal saline (approximately 200 to 300 mL)

118
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the onset of mild chest pain during dialysis?

A) The patient is most likely experiencing a myocardial infarction
B) An air embolus has likely traveled to the heart
C) The chest pain has probably resulted from the transient hypotension and hypoxemia that are common during dialysis
D) The chest pain is caused by the hypokalemia associated with predialysis states

A

C) The chest pain has probably resulted from the transient hypotension and hypoxemia that are common during dialysis

119
Q

You are called to the home of a 47-year-old man who has missed two of his regularly scheduled dialysis treatments in one week. His only complaint is generalized weakness. What ECG changes would you expect?

A) Sinus dysrhythmia
B) Tall T waves
C) Elevated ST segments
D) Shortened PR intervals

A

B) Tall T waves

120
Q

Mild symptoms of headache, restlessness, nausea, and fatigue occurring after dialysis are termed:

A) Postictal dialysis syndrome
B) Disequilibrium syndrome
C) Refractory dialysis syndrome
D) Postdialysis syndrome

A

B) Disequilibrium syndrome

EMT 224 (2 decks)

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