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EMT 224 > JBL Quizzes > Flashcards

JBL Quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

A 21-year-old woman experienced an acute onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea while playing softball. She is noticeably dyspneic, has an oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, and has diminished breath sounds to the upper right lobe. What should you do?

A) Assist her ventilations to increase her oxygen saturation
B) Perform a needle decompression to the right side of her chest
C) Apply a continuous positive airway pressure unit and start an intravenous line en route to the hospital
D) Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen and transport at once

A

D) Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen and transport at once

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2
Q

A 29-year-old woman is experiencing a severe asthma attack. Her husband reports that she was admitted to an intensive care unit about 6 months ago and had a breathing tube in place. Prior to your arrival, the patient took three puffs of her rescue inhaler without effect. She is anxious and restless, is tachypneic, and has audible wheezing. What should you do?

A) Begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen and prepare to intubate her trachea
B) Start an intravenous line of normal saline, administer methylprednisolone via intravenous push, and transport as soon as possible
C) Apply a continuous positive airway pressure unit, transport immediately, and attempt to establish vascular access en route to the hospital
D) Attempt to slow her breathing with respiratory coaching, administer a nebulized bronchodilator, and transport

A

C) Apply a continuous positive airway pressure unit, transport immediately, and attempt to establish vascular access en route to the hospital

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3
Q

A 36-year-old man with a history of asthma presents with severe respiratory distress and an altered mental status. You attempt to administer a nebulized beta-2 agonist, but his poor respiratory effort is inhibiting effective drug delivery via the nebulizer. What should you do?

A) Assist him with a metered-dose inhaler bronchodilator
B) Start an intravenous line of normal saline and administer a steroid
C) Apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask
D) Assist his ventilations and establish vascular access

A

D) Assist his ventilations and establish vascular access

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4
Q

A 76-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents with respiratory distress that has worsened progressively over the past 2 days. She is breathing through pursed lips and has a prolonged expiratory phase and an oxygen saturation of 76% on home oxygen at 2 L/min. What should you do?

A) Administer a beta-2 agonist via nebulizer
B) Auscultate her lungs for adventitious breath sounds
C) Increase her oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min
D) Place her in a position that facilitates breathing

A

D) Place her in a position that facilitates breathing

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5
Q

A hyperventilating patient:

A) may be acidotic and trying to increase her or his pH level.
B) is most effectively treated by administering a sedative drug.
C) presents with tachypnea and marked use of accessory muscles.
D) should rebreathe her or his carbon dioxide to effect resolution.

A

A) may be acidotic and trying to increase her or his pH level.

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6
Q

A patient with status asthmaticus commonly presents with:

A) accessory muscle use and inspiratory wheezing.
B) compensatory respiratory alkalosis and stridor.
C) physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.
D) audible expiratory wheezing and severe cyanosis.

A

C) physical exhaustion and inaudible breath sounds.

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7
Q

A person who experiences sharp chest pain followed by increasing dyspnea after he or she coughs most likely has:

A) a pneumothorax.
B) a pleural effusion.
C) pleurisy.
D) acute pneumonia.

A

A) a pneumothorax.

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8
Q

A pulse oximetry reading would be least accurate in a patient with:

A) poor peripheral perfusion.
B) warm extremities.
C) persistent tachycardia.
D) chronic hypoxia.

A

A) poor peripheral perfusion.

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9
Q

Bronchial plugging is caused by:

A) hypermagnesemia.
B) fluid overload.
C) hypersecretion of mucus.
D) ascites.

A

C) hypersecretion of mucus.

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10
Q

Difficulty with exhalation is most characteristic of:

A) a mild asthma attack.
B) upper airway obstruction.
C) obstructive lung disease.
D) supraglottic swelling.

A

C) obstructive lung disease.

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11
Q

Patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease typically experience an acute exacerbation of their condition because of:

A) environmental changes such as weather or the inhalation of trigger substances.
B) progressively worsening pneumonia that results in a diminished cough reflex.
C) a secondary condition such as congestive heart failure or a pneumothorax.
D) chronic noncompliance with their prescribed medications and home oxygen.

A

A) environmental changes such as weather or the inhalation of trigger substances.

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12
Q

Patients with obvious respiratory failure require immediate:

A) tracheal intubation.
B) ventilation support.
C) bronchodilator therapy.
D) passive oxygenation.

A

B) ventilation support.

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13
Q

Patients with pneumonia often experience a coughing fit when they roll from one side to the other because:

A) most cases of pneumonia occur in conjunction with bronchospasm.
B) pneumonia often occurs in the lung bases, typically on only one side.
C) movement loosens pulmonary secretions and stimulates coughing.
D) the secretions in their lungs suddenly disperse and impair breathing.

A

B) pneumonia often occurs in the lung bases, typically on only one side.

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14
Q

Pneumonitis is especially common in older patients with:

A) chronic food aspiration.
B) immunocompromise.
C) frequent infections.
D) a history of a stroke.

A

A) chronic food aspiration.

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15
Q

Reactive airway disease is characterized by:

A) chronic bronchoconstriction of varying severity.
B) acute, reversible swelling of the laryngeal muscles.
C) excessive mucus production and a chronic cough.
D) bronchospasm, edema, and mucus production.

A

D) bronchospasm, edema, and mucus production.

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16
Q

The barrel-chest appearance classically seen in patients with emphysema is secondary to:

A) carbon dioxide retention.
B) chest wall hypertrophy.
C) widespread atelectasis.
D) air trapping in the lungs.

A

D) air trapping in the lungs.

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17
Q

The classic presentation of chronic bronchitis is:

A) expiratory wheezing and jugular vein distention due to pulmonary hypertension.
B) excessive mucus production and a chronic or recurrent productive cough.
C) a thin adult with pursed-lip breathing and a history of heavy cigarette smoking.
D) a dry, hacking cough and a barrel chest due to chronic pulmonary air trapping.

A

B) excessive mucus production and a chronic or recurrent productive cough.

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18
Q

The hypoxic drive is a phenomenon in which:

A) bicarbonate ions migrate into the cerebrospinal fluid of a chronically hypoventilating patient, making the brain think that acid and base are in balance.
B) a chronically hypoxic patient’s primary respiratory drive is stimulated by increased levels of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood.
C) high levels of oxygen rapidly depress the respiratory rate and depth of a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, leading to worsened hypoxia and severe acidosis.
D) a relatively large percentage of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease become acutely apneic after receiving high-flow oxygen.

A

A) bicarbonate ions migrate into the cerebrospinal fluid of a chronically hypoventilating patient, making the brain think that acid and base are in balance.

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19
Q

The primary treatment for bronchospasm is:

A) humidified oxygen.
B) corticosteroid therapy.
C) assisted ventilation.
D) bronchodilator therapy.

A

D) bronchodilator therapy.

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20
Q

You are transporting a patient with a history of emphysema. The patient called 9-1-1 because his shortness of breath has worsened progressively over the past few days. He is on high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and has an intravenous line of normal saline in place. The cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia, and the pulse oximeter reads 85%. What should you do?

A) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway, administer a beta-2 agonist via nebulizer, and contact medical control for further orders
B) Remove the nonrebreathing mask and apply a nasal cannula
C) Administer a sedative and a paralytic and then intubate his trachea
D) Apply continuous positive airway pressure or bilevel positive airway pressure and then reassess his breathing status

A

D) Apply continuous positive airway pressure or bilevel positive airway pressure and then reassess his breathing status

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21
Q

A 75-year-old male patient presents with small reactive pupils. You should suspect:

A) Pontine dysfunction.
B) midbrain dysfunction.
C) diencephalic dysfunction.
D) third cranial nerve dysfunction.

A

C) diencephalic dysfunction.

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22
Q

A brain tumor would be found in the:

A) cerebellum.
B) spinal cord.
C) pons.
D) cranial cavity.

A

D) cranial cavity.

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23
Q

A computed tomography scan shows that a patient has a blood vessel pushing on a facial nerve. This condition will probably lead to:

A) hemifacial spasm.
B) intractable seizures.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.

A

A) hemifacial spasm.

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24
Q

A neoplasm is defined as a(n):

A) normal cell.
B) abnormal growth.
C) damaged cell.
D) cancerous tumor.

A

B) abnormal growth.

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25
Q

A neurologically intact conscious patient should be able to move his or her eyes in how many directions?

A) 8
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2

A

B) 6

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26
Q

A vagal nerve stimulator is used for some patients:

A) who have bradycardia.
B) with frequent seizures.
C) who have atherosclerosis.
D) who have allergies to aspirin.

A

B) with frequent seizures.

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27
Q

An unresponsive, poorly breathing patient is found with an empty bottle of oxycodone. What should you do?

A) Ventilate with a bag-mask device
B) Administer intravenous fluids
C) Give 25 g of 50% dextrose
D) Give naloxone immediately

A

A) Ventilate with a bag-mask device

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28
Q

As a paramedic, relocation to which region of the United States would require that you put extra emphasis on reviewing material on stroke due to the higher prevalence in the region?

A) Upper Midwest
B) Southeast
C) Middle Atlantic
D) West Coast

A

B) Southeast

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29
Q

For which “D” of stroke management is the public responsible?

A) Door
B) Drug
C) Detection
D) Delivery

A

C) Detection

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30
Q

How many pairs of nerves from the central nervous system form the peripheral nervous system?

A) 18
B) 36
C) 43
D) 23

A

C) 43

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31
Q

Problems with insulation of the axon would arise from issues with the:

A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) dendrites.
D) myelin.

A

D) myelin.

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32
Q

The greatest number of neurotransmitters would be found in the:

A) axon.
B) synapse.
C) nucleus.
D) cell body.

A

B) synapse.

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33
Q

Unlike a seizure, syncope usually begins:

A) without warning.
B) immediately after a meal.
C) while the patient is standing.
D) with tachycardia and nausea.

A

C) while the patient is standing.

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34
Q

Upon entering the home of a patient, you notice cluttered and disorganized living conditions. You recognize that this can be an indicator of which of the following?

A) Increased intracranial pressure
B) Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)
C) Degenerative nervous system condition
D) Seizures

A

C) Degenerative nervous system condition

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35
Q

What is the probability of a patient with a transient ischemic attack returning to the emergency department with a major stroke within the next 12 months?

A) 33%
B) 60%
C) 50%
D) 25%

A

A) 33%

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36
Q

What score on the Glasgow Coma Scale clearly indicates severe brain injury?

A) 10
B) 5
C) 14
D) 9

A

B) 5

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37
Q

Which of the following cerebral perfusion pressures would indicate a patient with decreased cerebral blood flow?

A) 68 mm Hg
B) 35 mm Hg
C) 51 mm Hg
D) 82 mm Hg

A

B) 35 mm Hg

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38
Q

Which of the following is the latest clinical indicator of high intracranial pressure?

A) Headache
B) Nausea
C) Hypertension
D) Vomiting

A

C) Hypertension

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39
Q

Which of the following is the most immediate priority when caring for a patient with a possible stroke?

A) Complete the Cincinnati Stroke Scale.
B) Alert the hospital.
C) Provide oxygen.
D) Ensure airway patency.

A

D) Ensure airway patency.

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40
Q

Which of the following shows the correct order in terms of the portion of the space inside the skull taken up by each component?

A) Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, brain tissue
B) Cerebrospinal fluid, blood, brain tissue
C) Cerebrospinal fluid, brain tissue, blood
D) Brain tissue, blood, cerebrospinal fluid

A

D) Brain tissue, blood, cerebrospinal fluid

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41
Q

A patient with a pituitary tumor would most likely present with which of the following?

A) Diabetes
B) Addison disease
C) Graves disease
D) Cushing syndrome

A

D) Cushing syndrome

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42
Q

A patient with an adrenal gland tumor might have:

A) Graves disease.
B) Cushing syndrome.
C) diabetes.
D) Addison disease.

A

B) Cushing syndrome.

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43
Q

An older adult patient with dementia and thickened skin is found passed out in the snow. You should suspect:

A) hyperthyroidism.
B) Graves disease.
C) myxedema coma.
D) diabetes.

A

C) myxedema coma.

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44
Q

Digestion begins in the:

A) mouth.
B) esophagus.
C) small intestine.
D) stomach.

A

A) mouth.

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45
Q

Endocrine dysfunction should make the paramedic suspicious of:

A) malnutrition.
B) exposure to cold.
C) dehydration.
D) excess exercise.

A

A) malnutrition.

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46
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is secreted by the:

A) testis.
B) hypothalamus.
C) adrenals.
D) pituitary.

A

D) pituitary.

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47
Q

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is secreted by the:

A) hypothalamus.
B) testis.
C) pituitary.
D) adrenals.

A

A) hypothalamus.

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48
Q

If a diabetic patient is experiencing problems with bile acid, you should consider administering:

A) dulaglutide.
B) metformin.
C) exenatide.
D) colesevelam.

A

D) colesevelam.

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49
Q

If you were reading about a newly discovered endocrine hormone, you would know it reaches the blood:

A) via a duct.
B) directly.
C) via the lymphatic system.
D) through axons.

A

B) directly.

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50
Q

On scene, you find a patient passed out next to an insulin syringe. Assessment reveals that the patient’s breathing is slow and shallow. What should you suspect?

A) Type II diabetes
B) Injection of an illicit drug
C) Type I diabetes
D) Decreased insulin levels

A

B) Injection of an illicit drug

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51
Q

The endocrine gland that dysfunctions in patients with diabetes mellitus is the:

A) pancreas.
B) ovary.
C) testis.
D) pituitary.

A

A) pancreas.

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52
Q

The first food substances to enter the blood after eating are:

A) lipids.
B) proteins.
C) amino acids.
D) carbohydrates.

A

D) carbohydrates.

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53
Q

The generic form of Glucophage is:

A) miglitol.
B) glyburide.
C) metformin.
D) repaglinide.

A

C) metformin.

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54
Q

To prevent the accumulation of glycogen, you could:

A) breathe rapidly.
B) take a dose of insulin.
C) use your muscles.
D) lower your heart rate.

A

C) use your muscles.

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55
Q

What occurs after a patient takes a dose of insulin?

A) Glucose enters the cell.
B) Glycogen accumulates.
C) Additional glucagon is made.
D) Insulin is removed from the body.

A

A) Glucose enters the cell.

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56
Q

Which kind of cell produces glucagon?

A) Gamma
B) Delta
C) Beta
D) Alpha

A

D) Alpha

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57
Q

Which of the following is important for signaling, but not in the endocrine system?

A) Ovary
B) Thyroid
C) Adrenals
D) Spinal cord

A

D) Spinal cord

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58
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the process of glycogenolysis?

A) Cortisol
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Testosterone

A

C) Glucagon

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59
Q

You are working with a patient who has had type II diabetes for 20 years. Which of the following would you expect is happening?

A) Decreased glucagon production
B) Increased insulin production
C) Decreased insulin production
D) Increased glucagon production

A

C) Decreased insulin production

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60
Q

You find a patient with warm, flushed skin and protruding eyes. What should you suspect?

A) Cushing syndrome
B) Graves disease
C) Diabetes
D) Hypothyroidism

A

B) Graves disease

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61
Q

A common cause of a perforated eardrum is:

A) pneumonia.
B) allergies.
C) infection.
D) impaction.

A

C) infection.

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62
Q

A patient with labyrinthitis would be expected to experience:

A) draining ears.
B) edema.
C) vertigo.
D) a headache.

A

C) vertigo.

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63
Q

Aqueous humor flows out from the eye through which type of channel?

A) Convoluted
B) Wide
C) Meshlike
D) Narrow

A

C) Meshlike

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64
Q

One of the main causes of vision loss in central retinal vein occlusion is:

A) glaucoma.
B) retinal detachment.
C) vascular occlusion.
D) macular edema.

A

D) macular edema.

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65
Q

Patients with epiglottitis often present with:

A) dysphagia.
B) wheezing.
C) hyperosmia.
D) dentalgia.

A

A) dysphagia.

66
Q

Symptoms of temporomandibular joint disorder include:

A) sinus drainage.
B) tongue pain.
C) high fever.
D) an uneven bite.

A

D) an uneven bite.

67
Q

Systemic signs of a dental abscess include:

A) fever and chills.
B) mandibular pain.
C) inflammation.
D) swelling and pain.

A

A) fever and chills.

68
Q

The maxillary sinuses are located:

A) behind the cheekbones.
B) on the top of the head.
C) in the back of the head.
D) in the forehead.

A

A) behind the cheekbones.

69
Q

The septum of the nose is comprised of:

A) cartilage.
B) just bone.
C) muscle.
D) fatty tissue.

A

A) cartilage.

70
Q

Which of the following is a function of the retina?

A) Keeps the eye moist
B) Receives light from outside sources
C) Protects the eye from foreign bodies
D) Sends messages through the optic nerve to the brain

A

D) Sends messages through the optic nerve to the brain

71
Q

Which of the following is a typical symptom of sinusitis?

A) Pressure on one side of the head
B) Non-productive cough
C) Pressure in the neck
D) Progressive loss of peripheral vision

A

A) Pressure on one side of the head

72
Q

Which of the following is affected by glaucoma?

A) Retina
B) Lens
C) Cranial nerve
D) Optic nerve

A

D) Optic nerve

73
Q

Which of the following is the best way to prevent the spread of conjunctivitis?

A) Using a saline solution to rinse the eye
B) Wearing an eyepatch
C) Using a wetting drop to keep the eye moist
D) Proper handwashing

A

D) Proper handwashing

74
Q

Which of the following is the earliest sign of glaucoma?

A) Total loss of vision
B) Loss of peripheral vision
C) Swollen eyelids
D) Severe eye drainage

A

B) Loss of peripheral vision

75
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cerumen removal from the ears is correct?

A) Irrigation with cold water should be performed.
B) Ear candling is the most effective method.
C) Cotton swabs should be used.
D) Cerumen should not be removed from the ears.

A

D) Cerumen should not be removed from the ears.

76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding epiglottitis is correct?

A) It affects children younger than 2 years.
B) It is less severe than croup.
C) It occurs more often in adults.
D) It is caused by the Staphylococcus bacterium.

A

C) It occurs more often in adults.

77
Q

Which of the following would most likely cause conjunctivitis?

A) Headache
B) Sinus infection
C) Nasal polyps
D) Pollen

A

D) Pollen

78
Q

Which part of the ear is affected by otitis media?

A) Pinna
B) Eustachian tube
C) Middle ear
D) Ear canal

A

C) Middle ear

79
Q

You are assessing an older man who has asthma and uses an inhaled corticosteroid on a regular basis. He has white patches on his tongue and the inside of his mouth. He is conscious and alert, and his airway is patent. You should:

A) suspect that he has leukoplakia.
B) carefully scrape the lesions from his tongue.
C) irrigate his mouth with sterile water.
D) provide supportive care and transport.

A

D) provide supportive care and transport.

80
Q

You would most likely encounter oral candidiasis in a patient:

A) who takes oral corticosteroids.
B) who is immunocompromised.
C) with a history of gingivitis.
D) who has had numerous cavities.

A

B) who is immunocompromised.

81
Q

A patient reports that they have been experiencing diarrhea for 3 days. They tell you that they have also been experiencing muscle weakness and cramps. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should you suspect?

A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypernatremia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hyperkalemia

A

C) Hyponatremia

82
Q

By the age of 50 years, what percentage of people develop hemorrhoids?

A) 60%
B) 50%
C) 30%
D) 15%

A

B) 50%

83
Q

Mallory-Weiss syndrome is associated with:

A) lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
C) use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
D) cancers of the esophagus.

A

B) upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

84
Q

Pain when dropping from standing on the toes to the heels with a jarring landing is known as the:

A) McBurney sign.
B) Markle sign.
C) Cullen sign.
D) Rovsing sign.

A

B) Markle sign.

85
Q

Rising from a recumbent position to a sitting or standing position with a concurrent rise in pulse rate of how many beats/min after 1 minute indicates significant blood volume depletion and decreased perfusion?

A) 8 to 10
B) 10 to 15
C) 2 to 5
D) 4 to 8

A

B) 10 to 15

86
Q

Severe, unrelenting right upper quadrant or epigastric pain that may refer to the right subscapular area is characteristic of:

A) diverticulitis.
B) pancreatitis.
C) peritonitis.
D) cholecystitis.

A

D) cholecystitis.

87
Q

The condition in which food or liquid travels backward from the stomach to the esophagus is known as:

A) gastroesophageal reflux disease.
B) irritable bowel disease.
C) peptic ulcer disease.
D) hiatal hernia.

A

A) gastroesophageal reflux disease.

88
Q

The largest and most complex gland of the body is the:

A) liver.
B) thyroid.
C) pancreas.
D) gallbladder.

A

A) liver.

89
Q

The term that describes bright red blood from the rectum is:

A) melena.
B) hematochezia.
C) hematemesis.
D) hemochromatosis.

A

B) hematochezia.

90
Q

Typical pain characteristics of a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm include:

A) lower quadrant pain that is steady and increases in intensity with cough or motion.
B) intense left upper quadrant pain that radiates to the left shoulder and may worsen with elevation of the foot of the bed.
C) steady throbbing midline pain over the site of the aneurysm that may radiate to the back and/or flank.
D) lower quadrant pain that refers to the shoulder and becomes agonizing when the aneurysm ruptures.

A

C) steady throbbing midline pain over the site of the aneurysm that may radiate to the back and/or flank.

91
Q

Visceral pain is characterized as:

A) cramping.
B) burning.
C) sharp/stabbing.
D) constant in intensity.

A

A) cramping.

92
Q

When responding to a patient with GI distress, you examine their stool and notice that it is black, tarry, sticky, and very odorous. What should you suspect?

A) Upper GI bleeding
B) An intestinal infection
C) Esophageal varices
D) Chronic liver disease

A

A) Upper GI bleeding

93
Q

Which criterion determines when acute pancreatitis becomes chronic pancreatitis?

A) Scarring of the pancreas has occurred
B) Three or more episodes in the past 6 months
C) Marked increase in symptom severity
D) Development of pancreatic cancer

A

A) Scarring of the pancreas has occurred

94
Q

Which form of hepatitis is spread by the fecal-oral route?

A) G
B) C
C) B
D) A

A

D) A

95
Q

Which of the following describes intussusception?

A) Telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another
B) Twisting of the intestines
C) Obstruction of the bowel caused by adhesions
D) Mechanical obstruction of the bowel

A

A) Telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another

96
Q

Which of the following is associated with lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

A) Hemorrhoids
B) Cholecystitis
C) Acute hepatitis
D) Pancreatitis

A

A) Hemorrhoids

97
Q

Which of the following is true of appendicitis?

A) It affects 17% of the population.
B) Dull, diffuse pain occurs on rebound at the McBurney point.
C) Presentation often includes diarrhea.
D) Rupture can cause pain to diminish.

A

D) Rupture can cause pain to diminish.

98
Q

Which of the following is true of cholecystitis?

A) It affects men more than women.
B) Recent bariatric surgery is a risk factor.
C) It affects 30% to 50% of the population.
D) Gallstones are the cause in 75% of cases.

A

B) Recent bariatric surgery is a risk factor.

99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Crohn disease is correct?

A) It is caused by Cryptosporidium parvum.
B) It is limited to the ileum and colon.
C) It is a chronic form of irritable bowel disease.
D) It affects mainly older people.

A

C) It is a chronic form of irritable bowel disease.

100
Q

Which pathogen is the most common cause of chronic gastroenteritis?

A) E coli
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Enterobacter

A

C) Helicobacter pylori

101
Q

A fluid-filled sac along the spermatic cord in the scrotum is known as a(n):

A) spermatocele.
B) varicocele.
C) hydrocele.
D) scrotal hernia.

A

C) hydrocele.

102
Q

A potential complication of an internal graft or fistula is the development of a(n):

A) thrombosis.
B) fistula.
C) arteriovenous graft.
D) pseudoaneurysm.

A

D) pseudoaneurysm.

103
Q

Black widow spider bites can cause which condition?

A) Fournier gangrene
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Priapism
D) Phimosis

A

C) Priapism

104
Q

Cardiac failure is associated with which classification of acute renal failure?

A) None of these is correct.
B) Intrarenal
C) Prerenal
D) Postrenal

A

C) Prerenal

105
Q

Emptying of urine from the bladder often without the urge to urinate is known as:

A) nocturia.
B) urge incontinence.
C) overflow incontinence.
D) urinary hesitancy.

A

C) overflow incontinence.

106
Q

Epididymitis in young men usually occurs as a result of infection with:

A) Trichomonas vaginalis.
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Herpes simplex virus.
D) Treponema pallidum.

A

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

107
Q

Following dialysis, if there is a disproportionate decrease in the osmolality of the extracellular fluid compared with that of the intracellular compartment in the brain or cerebrospinal fluid, this could result in:

A) severe hyperkalemia.
B) movement of water into the brain.
C) chest pain.
D) movement of water out of the brain.

A

B) movement of water into the brain.

108
Q

How long does it take to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis?

A) 20 minutes
B) Overnight
C) 24 hours
D) 4 hours

A

D) 4 hours

109
Q

Patients with acute kidney failure are considered oliguric if they secrete less than how many milliliters of urine per day?

A) 1500
B) 500
C) 250
D) 750

A

B) 500

110
Q

Ten years after kidney transplant surgery, what percentage of living donor kidneys will still be functioning?

A) 90%
B) 45%
C) 50%
D) 65%

A

D) 65%

111
Q

The basic functional unit of the kidney is the:

A) ureter.
B) nephron.
C) urethra.
D) glomerulus.

A

B) nephron.

112
Q

Urinary calculi affect which percentage of the adult population in the United States?

A) 20%
B) 11%
C) 34%
D) 5%

A

B) 11%

113
Q

Urinary tract infection in the older adult is often mistaken for:

A) lumbar pain or arthritis.
B) irritable bowel disease.
C) gastroenteritis.
D) early dementia.

A

D) early dementia.

114
Q

What is the underlying mechanism in hematologic manifestations of uremia?

A) Suppression of cell-mediated immunity
B) Hypersecretion of renin also associated with hypertension
C) Retention of urea, metabolic acids, and other metabolic waste products
D) Reduced erythropoietin production

A

D) Reduced erythropoietin production

115
Q

When managing a patient with a surgical anastomosis, the paramedic should:

A) take the blood pressure from a different extremity.
B) use the anastomosis site to draw blood.
C) use the internal shunt to obtain vascular access.
D) use the anastomosis site to infuse intravenous fluids.

A

A) take the blood pressure from a different extremity.

116
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the kidneys?

A) They are each about the size of a plum.
B) The inferior border is one finger’s width superior to the iliac crest.
C) The superior border reaches the level of the third lumbar vertebra.
D) They lie on the posterior abdominal wall in front of the peritoneum.

A

B) The inferior border is one finger’s width superior to the iliac crest.

117
Q

Which of the following is a nervous system manifestation of chronic kidney disease?

A) Mental dullness
B) Pericarditis
C) Fatigue
D) Anxiety

A

D) Anxiety

118
Q

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of acute renal failure?

A) Tinnitus
B) Pruritus
C) Vomiting
D) Shortness of breath

A

A) Tinnitus

119
Q

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of prerenal acute kidney injury?

A) Hematuria
B) Groin pain
C) Lower back pain
D) Dizziness

A

D) Dizziness

120
Q

Which of the following is accurate regarding the physical examination of patients with genitourinary or renal disorders?

A) Communication with significant others should be omitted during all prehospital procedures.
B) The patient should be offered water.
C) The paramedic should monitor electrocardiographic findings and vital signs.
D) A chaperone should always be present.

A

C) The paramedic should monitor electrocardiographic findings and vital signs.

121
Q

Birth control pills can cause which of the following medical emergencies?

A) Congestive heart failure
B) Pulmonary embolus
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Acute kidney failure

A

B) Pulmonary embolus

122
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone causes an increase in production of:

A) luteinizing hormone.
B) estrogen.
C) oxytocin.
D) progesterone.

A

B) estrogen.

123
Q

Mild signs of pelvic inflammatory disease may include:

A) oral temperature above 101°F (38°C).
B) purulent vaginal discharge.
C) elevated erythrocyte count.
D) dyspareunia.

A

D) dyspareunia.

124
Q

Ovulation is under control of hormones released by the:

A) thyroid.
B) adrenals.
C) hypothalamus.
D) uterus.

A

C) hypothalamus.

125
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by:

A) human papillomavirus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Staphylococcus.

A

C) Chlamydia trachomatis.

126
Q

Signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion include:

A) pain that often comes on during sleep.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) throbbing pain.
D) gradual onset of lower abdominal pain.

A

B) nausea and vomiting.

127
Q

The average menstrual flow is approximately:

A) 1 to 2 ounces.
B) 1 to 2 mL.
C) 6 to 8 ounces.
D) 6 to 8 mL.

A

A) 1 to 2 ounces.

128
Q

The falling or sliding of the uterus into the vaginal canal is referred to as:

A) uterine collapse.
B) uterine relapse.
C) uterine torsion.
D) uterine prolapse.

A

D) uterine prolapse.

129
Q

The first day of the menstrual cycle marks the start of which phase?

A) Secretory
B) Follicular
C) Luteal
D) Ovulatory

A

B) Follicular

130
Q

The inner portion of each ovary is known as the:

A) cortex.
B) ovum.
C) medulla.
D) fundus.

A

C) medulla.

131
Q

The most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is:

A) mittelschmerz.
B) endometritis.
C) endometriosis.
D) anovulation.

A

D) anovulation.

132
Q

The most important aspect in the care of a woman with severe vaginal bleeding is:

A) controlling the vaginal bleeding.
B) giving oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
C) administering crystalloid fluid boluses.
D) treating for shock and transporting rapidly.

A

D) treating for shock and transporting rapidly.

133
Q

The normal menstrual cycle lasts about how many days?

A) 28
B) 4
C) 35
D) 7

A

A) 28

134
Q

The ovaries are located on either side of the:

A) vagina.
B) fallopian tubes.
C) bladder.
D) uterus.

A

D) uterus.

135
Q

When does inflammation caused by pelvic inflammatory disease often begin?

A) 5 to 7 days prior to the start of menstrual bleeding
B) During intercourse
C) 7 to 10 days after the start of menstrual bleeding
D) Around ovulation

A

C) 7 to 10 days after the start of menstrual bleeding

136
Q

When is a corpus luteum cyst most likely to rupture?

A) 1 week before menstrual bleeding
B) During menstrual bleeding
C) During ovulation
D) 1 week after menstrual bleeding

A

A) 1 week before menstrual bleeding

137
Q

When obtaining a gynecologic history, questions about the last menstrual period should include:

A) “Did you miss any days of work during your period?”
B) “Where were you when your period started?”
C) “Did any bleeding occur between periods?”
D) “Did you use pads or tampons?”

A

C) “Did any bleeding occur between periods?”

138
Q

Which of the following best describes the corpus luteum?

A) It is also known as a zygote.
B) It is formed from an empty follicle.
C) It secretes large amounts of estrogen.
D) It is stimulated to form by release of chorionic gonadotropin.

A

B) It is formed from an empty follicle.

139
Q

Which of the following statements about vaginitis is accurate?

A) It is an autoimmune condition.
B) It causes itchiness of the genital area.
C) It is relatively uncommon.
D) It is an incurable process.

A

B) It causes itchiness of the genital area.

140
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cystitis is correct?

A) The main symptom is fever.
B) It is usually caused by a fungal infection.
C) It may be accompanied by lower abdominal pain.
D) It is more common in men but generally more severe in women.

A

C) It may be accompanied by lower abdominal pain.

141
Q

A pathologic fracture occurs when:

A) an occult medical condition causes abnormal bone weakness.
B) a particular mechanism of injury cannot be identified readily.
C) greater-than-usual forces are required to fracture a large bone.
D) underdeveloped bones sustain a low-impact traumatic injury.

A

A) an occult medical condition causes abnormal bone weakness.

142
Q

A small sac that contains synovial fluid that can cause mobility issues when inflamed is called a(n):

A) alveolus.
B) cilia.
C) trochanter.
D) bursa.

A

D) bursa.

143
Q

Airway management can be challenging in patients with ankylosing spondylitis because:

A) they cannot flex their neck.
B) their body cannot be moved at all.
C) they may be vomiting.
D) total lung capacity is reduced.

A

A) they cannot flex their neck.

144
Q

Cauda equina syndrome may cause:

A) limited blood flow.
B) paralysis.
C) bleeding.
D) twitching.

A

B) paralysis.

145
Q

Chronic muscle inflammation or myalgia can be caused by:

A) fluid overload.
B) heart attack.
C) cocaine.
D) heart failure.

A

C) cocaine.

146
Q

Gout is associated with an increased risk of:

A) kidney stones.
B) septicemia.
C) urinary tract infection.
D) pressure ulcers.

A

A) kidney stones.

147
Q

How many bones can be found in fibrous joints?

A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) There are no bones.

A

B) 2

148
Q

Swelling and inflammation associated with musculoskeletal injuries are reduced:

A) if cold packs are applied during the acute stage of the injury.
B) when heat therapy is used within 48 to 72 hours after the injury.
C) if an appropriate dose of a narcotic analgesic is administered.
D) if a vasodilator drug is given within 12 hours following the injury.

A

A) if cold packs are applied during the acute stage of the injury.

149
Q

The best way to detect deformity or any other abnormality in an injured extremity is to:

A) reduce any swelling with ice before performing the exam.
B) manipulate the extremity to assess for false motion.
C) compare it to the extremity on the opposite side.
D) gently palpate the entire length of the extremity.

A

C) compare it to the extremity on the opposite side.

150
Q

What is the function of an intervertebral disk?

A) Acts as a shock absorber
B) Lines the muscles
C) Protects the ligaments
D) Protects the tendons

A

A) Acts as a shock absorber

151
Q

Which of the following causes the development of rheumatoid arthritis?

A) Fungus
B) Injury
C) Lymphocytes
D) Bacteria

A

C) Lymphocytes

152
Q

Which of the following is a benign bone tumor?

A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Ewing sarcoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Melanoma

A

A) Fibrous dysplasia

153
Q

Which of the following is a predisposing factor for osteoarthritis?

A) Dietary problems
B) Small stature
C) Obesity
D) Chronic injury

A

C) Obesity

154
Q

Which of the following is characterized by the decay of tissue?

A) Scleroderma
B) Septicemia
C) Synovium
D) Gangrene

A

D) Gangrene

155
Q

Which of the following patients would chronic fatigue syndrome most likely affect?

A) Caucasian middle-aged woman
B) African American adolescent boy
C) Caucasian middle-aged man
D) Caucasian adolescent girl

A

C) Caucasian middle-aged man

156
Q

Which of the following statements regarding rheumatoid arthritis is correct?

A) It generally does not respond well to anti-inflammatory medication therapy.
B) It is a disease of the joints that occurs as they age and begin to wear.
C) It causes severe pain secondary to crystallized uric acid accumulation in a joint.
D) It is a systemic inflammatory disease that affects joints and other body systems.

A

D) It is a systemic inflammatory disease that affects joints and other body systems.

157
Q

Which of the following structures is part of the axial skeleton?

A) Vertebral column
B) Patella
C) Femoral shaft
D) Metatarsals

A

A) Vertebral column

158
Q

Which of the following would be considered a synovial joint?

A) Wrist
B) Neck
C) Elbow
D) Phalanges

A

C) Elbow

159
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely source of septic arthritis?

A) Injury to a joint
B) Excess synovial fluid
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Paralysis of a joint

A

C) Urinary tract infection

160
Q

Which of the following would most likely cause osteomyelitis?

A) COVID-19
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) A virus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes

A

B) Staphylococcus aureus

EMT 224 (2 decks)

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