QUIZ 5 Flashcards

1
Q

inherited conditions

A
  • a condition that can be tracked through a family

- family hx may predispose you to them

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2
Q

What are the types of inherited conditions?

A

1) Mendelian patterns (e.g. cystic fibrosis, Tay Sachs)
2) multifactorial (e.g. addiction, Alzheimer’s, schizophrenia, autism)
3) multigenic (e.g. red hair, freckles)

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3
Q

genetic components

A

conditions that are affected by genetic changes (e.g. mutations, deletions, etc) that are not related to family hx/are new onset

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4
Q

When should pts be referred to genetic counseling?

A

1) family hx
2) delayed growth and development
3) reproductive issues

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5
Q

What is the cause of birth defects?

A

most unknown

Complex mix of:

1) genetics
2) behaviors
3) environmental factors

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6
Q

What are risk factors for birth defects?

A

1) smoking, EtOH, recreational drugs during pregnancy
2) maternal medical conditions (e.g. GDM)
3) medications (e.g. isotretinoin)
4) family hx of birth defects
5) AMA (>35yo)

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7
Q

Define spina bifida

A

neural tube defect in which spine and spinal column abnormally form –> spinal cord and nerves exposed through opening in back

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8
Q

What are associated sx of spina bifida?

A
  • bladder and bowel problems
  • sexual dysfunction
  • weakness and loss of sensation below level of defect
  • inability to move lower legs
  • cognitive defects
  • orthopedic malformations (e.g. club feet, knee/hip problems)
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9
Q

True or false: the higher the defect in spina bifida, the more severe the condition

A

true

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10
Q

True or false: the majority of spina bifida cases are inherited

A

false; is multifactorial

Familial, but no apparent pattern of inheritance

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11
Q

What are maternal risk factors for spina bifida?

A
  • lack of folic acid supplementation
  • maternal fever (>102º) or exposure to sauna/jacuzzi in first trimester
  • diabetes
  • medication exposure
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12
Q

What is the goal of carrier screening?

A

identify individuals at risk to have offspring w/ genetic disease

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13
Q

What carrier screens are offered to all patients?

A

1) cystic fibrosis

2) spinal muscular atrophy

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14
Q

What types of carrier screens should be offered to specific patients?

A

1) ethnicity-based screens
- hemoglobinopathies (African, Mediterranean, SE Asia)
- Ashkenazi Jewish diseases (ACOG: 4 disorders; ACMG: 9 disorders)
2) family hx/personal-based hx (e.g. fragile X)

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15
Q

Define aneuploidy

A

changes in numbers of chromosomes

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16
Q

Define trisomy

A

one extra copy of a single chromosome

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17
Q

Define monosomy

A

one missing copy of a single chromosome

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18
Q

Define triploidy

A

three copies of every chromosome

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19
Q

What is the most common genetic cause of miscarriage and birth defects?

A

aneuploidy

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20
Q

Which of the types of aneuploidy have an age-related risk?

A

trisomies

risk for trisomy increases w/ maternal age

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21
Q

What are associated birth defects of trisomy 13?

A

1) brain or spinal cord anomalies
2) small/poorly developed eyes (microphthalmia)
3) extra digits
4) congenital heart defects
5) cleft lip/palate
6) weak muscle tone (hypotonia)
7) severe intellectual disability
8) seizures

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22
Q

Of trisomies 13, 18, and 21, which has the best prognosis?

A

trisomy 21

trisomy 13 and 18 = POOR prognosis; many fetuses do not survive to term

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23
Q

What are associated birth defects of trisomy 18?

A

1) intrauterine growth retardation; low birth weight
2) small head w/ abnormal shape; small jaw and mouth
3) choroid plexus cysts
4) congenital heart defects
5) clenched hands w/ overlapping fingers
6) rocker bottom feet
7) failure to thrive

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24
Q

What is trisomy 21 most commonly known as?

A

Down Syndrome

25
What are the associated birth defects of trisomy 21?
1) congenital heart defects (seen in ~50%) 2) duodenal atresia 3) soft signs: absent/short nasal bone, enlarged kidneys, shortened long bones, fifth finger clinodactyly 4) characteristic facial features
26
What are associated medical conditions of trisomy 21?
1) GERD 2) Celiac disease 3) hypothyroidism 4) increased risk of hearing and vision problems 5) increased risk leukemia 6) increased risk Alzheimer disease
27
What are learning and behavior deficits people with trisomy 21 experience?
1) mild to moderate intellectual disability 2) delayed speech and language 3) attention problems, OCD, stubbornness, tantrums 4) Autism spectrum disorders
28
True or false: Down syndrome is hereditary and runs in families
false
29
T or F: risk of having child w/ Down syndrome increases w/ AMA
true most children born w/ Down syndrome are born to women <35 yo BUT AMA increases risk
30
According to ACOG, to whom and when should aneuploidy screening be offered?
ALL pts before 20 wks
31
T or F: according to ACOG, invasive screening should only be offered to pts >35yo
false
32
screening or diagnostic? Identifies a condition
diagnostic *screening identifies risk
33
screening or diagnostic? Casts a wide net to best identify true positives
screening - causes rates of false positives to increase *diagnostic has low false positives
34
screening or diagnostic? Typically, no risk to pregnancy
screening *diagnostic have risk associated
35
screening or diagnostic? Assesses broad set of conditions
diagnostic *screening is limited: common trisomies, selected microdeltions/microduplications
36
What does maternal serum screening identify?
pregnant people who are at "high risk" of having baby w/ trisomies 13, 18, or 21 as well as NTD
37
How is maternal serum screening completed?
Combination of: 1) U/S (first-trimester screening) 2) maternal blood work 3) maternal demographics
38
What are the 4 types of maternal serum screenings?
1) first trimester screening 2) quad screen 3) sequential screen 4) integrated screen
39
When is the first trimester screen performed?
11.0-13.6 wks
40
What is required to perform the first trimester screen?
1) U/S for nuchal translucency | 2) blood work
41
For what does the first trimester screen?
1) Down syndrome | 2) trisomy 18
42
When is the quad screen performed?
15.0-21.6 wks
43
What is required to perform the quad screen?
blood work
44
For what does the quad screen?
1) Down syndrome 2) trisomy 18 3) open neural tube defects
45
Describe sequential screening
perform first trimester screening --> 1) high risk detected --> offer other testing (e.g. cell-free DNA, CVS, amniocentesis) 2) low risk --> collect 2nd trimester blood work --> give one overall risk estimate
46
What is required to perform a sequential screen?
1) U/S for nuchal translucency | 2) blood work in 1st and 2nd trimesters
47
For what does the sequential screen?
1) Down syndrome 2) trisomy 18 3) open neural tube defects
48
Describe an integrated screen
Combines first trimester screen and quad screen --> gives one result in 2nd trimester
49
What is required to perform an integrated screen?
1) U/S for nuchal translucency | 2) blood work in 1st and 2nd trimesters
50
For what does the integrated screen?
1) Down syndrome 2) trisomy 18 3) open NTDs
51
Define chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
diagnostic test that collects sample of placenta
52
When is CVS performed?
10.0-12.0 wks
53
Define amniocentesis
collection of amniotic fluid from around baby
54
When is amniocentesis performed?
after 15.0 wks
55
What is the most accurate way to get genetic information about baby before birth?
amniocentesis
56
Why are invasive diagnostic tests performed?
1) dx of genetic conditions 2) confirm infection in pregnancy 3) dx/confirmation of open NTD 4) fetal blood typing 5) understanding kidney function
57
What are the risks of invasive testing?
- infection --> - miscarriage <25 wks - PTB >25 wks
58
What are the advantages of invasive testing?
- >99% accurate - able to look for chromosomal abnormalities outside common aneuploidies - can screen for single gene disorders - can have testing done on panels cause a specific phenotype