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MICB 3301 Lab > Quiz 5 > Flashcards

Quiz 5 Flashcards

1
Q

T Cell Receptors (TCRs)

A

Bind antigenic peptides that have been processed and presented with the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) of an antigen presenting cell

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2
Q

T Helper Hybridoma KZH

A

Created by fusing normal helper T cells from immunized mice with a T lymphoma cell

Contain a reporter construct with lacZ gene encoding beta-galactosidase

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3
Q

Reporters (ex. GFP) are used to monitor changes in ____

A

gene expression in whole animals, tissues, and individual cells

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4
Q

Beta-galactosidase produced by activation of the IL-2 promoter is released from cells using ____

A

TritonX100 detergent

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5
Q

Chromogenic substrate turning from yellow to red when hydrolyzed by beta-galactosidase

A

Chlorophenol red galactoside (basis of color change)

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6
Q

Antigen used in 11.B

A

Lysozyme

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7
Q

Antigen-presenting mouse B cell hybridoma, use MHC Class II to present antigen to KZH TCR

A

LK35.2

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8
Q

A laminar flow hood is used when working with ____

A

mammalian cell cultures

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9
Q

A CO2 incubator is used to keep gas levels at ____% and maintain optimal pH for mammalian cell culture of ____

A

5, 7.4

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10
Q

CD molecule most likely to be expressed by T cells used in 11.B

A

CD4 (Helper T cells)

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11
Q

Antibiotics

A

Chemicals produced by microorganisms that inhibit particular steps in metabolic processes

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12
Q

Narrow-spectrum Antibiotics

A

Effective only against a limited number of pathogens (ex. Azithromycin, Clindamycin, Erythromycin)

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13
Q

Broad-spectrum Antibiotics

A

Attack many different kinds of bacteria (ex. Amoxicillin, Tetracycline, Quinalones)

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14
Q

Cidal

A

Antibiotics that kill microorganisms

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15
Q

Static

A

Antibiotics that only inhibit growth

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16
Q

Beta-lactams (from Penicillium, Cephalosporium)

A

Inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan

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17
Q

Macrolides (from Streptomyces erythreus)

A

Inhibit rRNA associated with the 50S ribosome

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18
Q

Aminoglycosides (from S. griseus, S. fradiae, Micromonospora purpurea)

A

Inhibit 30S ribosome function

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19
Q

Tetracyclines (from S. aureofaciens)

A

Inhibit bindings of aminoacyl t-RNA to ribosomes (blocks peptide chain formation)

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20
Q

Penicillium cross streak plate results

A

Of the four plated bacteria, only E. coli was able to grow at all on the plate

Since penicillin is a beta-lactam inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis, all other species (Gram+) were inhibited

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21
Q

Kirby-Bauer Method

A

Uses standardized inoculum (MH or TSA plates), and high potency antibiotic discs to measure the inhibition zone in mm

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22
Q

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

A

The lowest concentration of antibiotic that will prevent the growth of a particular microorganism, provides a measure of susceptibility

23
Q

McFarland Standards

A

Used to standardize the bacterial inoculum used for antibiotic sensitivity tests, using a black line to compare solution turbidity which is related to bacteria concentration

24
Q

Antibiotics used in 12.B

A

Erythromycin, Penicillin, Tetracycline, Gentamicin

25
Q

Bacteria used in 12.B

A

E. coli and S. aureus

26
Q

A microorganism is most sensitive to an antibiotic in the ____ phase

A

exponential

27
Q

Microbial resistance mechanisms to penicillin

A

Gram- species unaffected by beta-lactams, Gram+ species replace the terminal D-alanine

28
Q

Microbial resistance mechanisms to tetracycline

A

Multidrug efflux pumps, ribosomal protection, and enzymatic inactivation of antibiotic

29
Q

Horizontal Gene Transfer

A

The process by which genes are transferred from one mature, independent organism to another

Mechanisms of antibiotic resistance, used in molecular biology and genetic engineering

30
Q

Conjugation

A

The process of genetic transfer involving cell-to-cell contact between donor and recipient cells

31
Q

Transformation

A

The processes where a piece of free DNA is taken up by a cell and integrated into its genome

32
Q

Transduction

A

The transfer of genes between bacterial or archaeal cells by viruses (bacteriophages)

33
Q

Competent Species

A

Those that are capable of taking up high MW DNA and recombine it into their chromosomes

34
Q

Growth on “Mate” Kan+Nal plate in 13 was facilitated by ____

A

successful transformation of the resistant Acinetobacter donor strain genes to the sensitive recipient strain

35
Q

R Factors

A

Conjugative plasmids carrying genes for resistance to antibiotics, moves from donor with tra gene (encodes sex pilus) and delivered to recipient

36
Q

Species and plasmid used in 14

A

E. coli, pBBR1MCS-2 plasmid (encodes resistance to kanamycin, lacZ gene encoding beta-galactosidase production)

37
Q

pBBR1MCS-2 Plasmid features:

A
  1. Kanamycin resistance
  2. lacZ gene
  3. Region for conjugation/mobility (mob)
  4. Multiple cloning site (MCS) - allows insertion of foreign DNA without disruption of plasmid
38
Q

Restriction sites are recognized by ____

A

restriction endonucleases (enzymes that cut DNA into pieces)

39
Q

The recipient strain of E. coli in 14 is ____ resistant and ____ sensitive

A

Nalidixic acid, kanamycin

40
Q

Sterile X-gal used in 14

A

A substrate for enzyme beta-galactosidase that hydrolyzes the solution to form an intense blue precipitate (LacZ+ = blue colonies)

41
Q

Bacteriophages infect host cells first by attaching ____ to a ____

A

tail fibers, cell receptor

42
Q

Lytic/Virulent Bacteriophage

A

Virus nucleic acid converts all cell machinery to manufacture new virus particles

43
Q

Lysogenic/Temperate Bacteriophage

A

Viral genetic material comes into equilibrium with that of the host, physically inserts genome to become a prophage

44
Q

Prophage

A

The latent form of the virus genome that remains within the host but does not destroy it

45
Q

Phage typing

A

Specificity of a bacteriophage for a particular host provides the means to detect and differentiate certain pathogenic strains of bacteria by pattern of susceptibility to bacteriophages

46
Q

The bacteriophage used in lab is a ____ with virulent DNA and a ____ cycle

A

T phage, lytic

47
Q

Phage titer

A

The concentration of infectious phage particles per mL of growth medium (determined by making serial dilutions)

48
Q

Plaques

A

Small, clear zones of clearing on otherwise dense lawn of bacterial cells, the result of localized areas of lysis of phage-infected bacteria, generates Plaque forming units (PFUs)

49
Q

Phage attachment to receptors on surface of bacterial cells is facilitated by the presence of ____

A

magnesium ions

50
Q

In 15, chloroform was used to ____

A

kill all bacteria in bacteriophage/bacterium supernatant

51
Q

Phages for Staphylococcus and Enterococcus could be isolated from:

A

S. = Skin
E. = GI tract

52
Q

Helper T cells (CD4+) read ____ MHC to respond to extracellular infections

A

class II (aid in helping other immune response cells)

53
Q

Killer T cells (CD8+) read ____ MHC to respond to intracellular infections in all nucleated cells

A

class I

MICB 3301 Lab (5 decks)

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