Quiz 4 - Lung, Renal, Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

inadequate expansion or collapse of the air spaces

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2
Q

What are the causes of atelectasis?

A

obstruction (aspiration), compression (pneumothorax), contraction (pleural fibrosis)

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3
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

it is a progression of acute injury (either physical or chemical)

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4
Q

What causes the damage to the airway in ARDS?

A

the inflammatory response of neutrophils and fluid accumulation

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5
Q

What is COPD?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Examples include: emphysema, asthma, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis

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6
Q

What is the main cause of COPD?

A

smoking

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7
Q

What is emphysema?

A

type of COPD

destruction of elastic fibers in alveolar walls and permanent enlargement of the airspaces

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8
Q

What are the main causes of emphysema?

A

smoking, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (imbalance of the protease and the anti-protease activity), and air pollution

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9
Q

What are some symptoms of emphysema?

A

barrel chested due to attempt at compensation and inability to fully exhale
dyspnea with cough and wheezing

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10
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

air pockets into the pleural spaces causing collapse of the lungs
can result from ruptured bullous emphysema

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11
Q

What is chronic bronchitis?

A

type of COPD
persistent cough for 3+ months in 2 consecutive years
“blue bloaters”
Reid index = proportion of depth of mucosa that is composed of mucous glands…if >0.4, this suggests chronic bronchitis.

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12
Q

What are the main causes of chronic bronchitis?

A

smoking

air pollution

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13
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

obstruction of the bronchi
destruction of elastin and muscle in the bronchial walls
hypersecretion of mucus

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14
Q

What are some causes of bronchiectasis?

A

obstruction of the bronchi
persistent necrotizing infections (pneumonias)
microorganisms (staph, TB) that cause hypersecretion of mucus
cystic fibrosis

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15
Q

What are some symptoms of bronchiectasis?

A

persistent, foul-smelling cough
coughing up blood
hypoxemia

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16
Q

What is asthma and its symptoms?

A
Reactive airway disease
narrowing of the airway
hyperinflated lungs, thick mucus plugs in airways, smooth muscle hypertrophy
shortness of breath with chest tightness
wheezing
precipitated by the vagal nerve 
occurs in younger populations
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17
Q

What is atopic vs. non-atopic asthma?

A

atopic - allergic reaction

non-atopic - not allergy related (may be familial) and the cause is unknown.

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18
Q

What is restrictive lung disease and what are some examples?

A

Diseases that make it difficult to inhale; results from pleural fibrosis or chest wall abnormalitis; gas exchange is imparied by thickened septal walls; air movement is impaired by an inability to inhale/expand the lungs.

Fibrosing lung diseases
occupational lung diseases
sarcoidosis
hypersentivity peumonitis
iatrogenic causes (chemotherapy, radiation exposure, contamination in iv solutions used by drug abusers)
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19
Q

What are fibrosing lung diseases?

A

type of restrictive lung disease
associated with collagen vascular diseases such as RA
can lead to left sided heart failure

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20
Q

What are occupational lung diseases?

A

type of restrictive lung disease
mineral-dust induced (coal workers)
silicosis, asbestosis (can lead to mesothelioma - cancer of the pleural)

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21
Q

What is sarcoidosis?

A
type restrictive lung disease
abnormal connective tissue and reduced elastic properties
multi-organ involvement
immune-related disease
lethal in ~10% of cases
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22
Q

What is hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

caused by mold or animal products (dander and feces)

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23
Q

What is hemoptosis?

A

coughing up blood

seen in most diseases that cause sever coughing

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24
Q

What is a pulmonary embolus?

A

clot that from deep veins in the leg that can cause occlusion of the main pulmonary artery
obstruction of blood flow can lead to right heart failure

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25
Q

What are some causes/predisposing factors of a pulmonary embolus?

A

prolonged bed rest, surgery, congestive heart failure, hypercoagulability state

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26
Q

What causes of pulmonary hypertension?

A

recurrent thromboemboli, heart disease, chronic lung disease

cor pulmonale - right ventricular failure as a result of pulmonary hypertension

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27
Q

What is a cause of diffuse alveolar hemorrhage?

A

autoimmune responses.

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28
Q

In vascular lung diseases, how is gas exchanged impaired?

A

obstructed or thickened vessels

alveolar hemorrhage

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29
Q

In obstructive lung diseases, is gas exchange through septal walls impaired?

A

NO

air movement is impaired by the inability to exhale.

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30
Q

T/F - For lung infections, the type of microorganism responsible is the same, independent of location.

A

False

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31
Q

Hospital acquired pulmonary infections…

A

are a nosocomial infection, usually in patients with severe underlying illness.

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32
Q

Walking or Community pneumonia symptoms include…

A

low-grade fever (acute onset with chills), productive cough, general malaise but still able to function at school or work
most are bacterial in nature

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33
Q

What is the cause of tuberculosis?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

acid fast mycobacterium associated with Ghon complexes.

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34
Q

What are some characteristics of Tb?

A

usually affects the lungs, but can affect other organs
flourishes in crowded, impoverished areas
non-contagious in periods of dormancy
problems with multi-drug abx resistance
forms necrotizing granulomas (caseating)
associated with HIV infections
Miliary Tb = organisms break off and spread throughout the body

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35
Q

Pulmonary fungal infections…

A

differ across the country and are usually seen in individuals that are immune-suppressed.

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36
Q

95% of primary lung cancers are…

A

carcinomas (as opposed to sarcomas, etc.)

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37
Q

What are the most common types of primary lung carcinomas?

A

adenocarcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma

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38
Q

What is the most aggressive type of lung carcinoma?

A

small cell (oat cell) carcinoma

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39
Q

Which risk factor puts a person at 55x the risk for developing lung cancer?

A

smoking

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40
Q

Lung cancers frequently spread to which site?

A

the brain

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41
Q

T/F - Carcinoma of the lungs is the 2nd leading cause of cancer death world-wide.

A

False - its THE leading cause of cancer death world wide.

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42
Q

What are the common triggers of asthma?

A
hyper-responsiveness to triggers
fluid secretions increase
infections
allergens
excessive exercise
cold temperatures
tobacco
some drugs
stress
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43
Q

Prevalence of asthma

A

F > M
children > adults
can progress to COPD in adults

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44
Q

What are some dental considerations for the asthmatic patient?

A

mouth breathers –> xerostomia
steroid inhalers –>irritate back of mouth
remind patients to bring inhaler and medicate before appointment.

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45
Q

Properties and uses of “relievers” for asthma medication

A
early treatments
short-acting or rescuers
rapid bronchodilators (within minutes)
used for less severe cases of asthma (intermittent asthma)
typically beta-2 agonists given at minimum doses and frequencies to avoid tolerance
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46
Q

albuterol

A

beta-2 agonist
“reliever”
rapid onset and 4-6 hr effects
MOA = directly relaxes airway smooth muscle and causes bronchodilation; also decreases microvascular leakage

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47
Q

salmeterol

A

beta-2 agonist
“reliever”
slower onset than albuterol, 12 hr effectiveness
MOA = directly relaxes airway smooth muscle and causes bronchodilation; also decreases microvascular leakage

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48
Q

Properties and uses of “controllers” for asthma.

A

taken regularly for long-term stable control
often have more side effects
inhaled corticosteroids are the drug of choice for moderate to severe asthma
often combined with beta-2 agonists
NOT for rescue
for routine use

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49
Q

fluticasone

A

inhaled steroid
MOA = anti-inflammatory effects reduce bronchial reactivity
side effects = nose bleeds; sores in nose, mouth, and tongue that don’t heal; increased oral infections (candidiasis)
[oral steroids such as prednisone are last resort]

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50
Q

Theophylline

A
methylxanthine drug (tablet or inhaler)
MOA = phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases cAMP and relaxes airway smooth muscle
side effects = headaches, nausea, anxiety, sleep problems
uses = add-on controller; monotherapy for mild asthma; combined with corticosteroids to reduce steroid doses and side effects.
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51
Q

Ipratropium

A

anti-muscarinic
MOA = reverses the contraction of smooth muscle and reduces mucous secretions from vagal activity
uses = back-up to beta-2 agonists
slow onset

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52
Q

Montelukast

A

“Singulair”
leukotriene modifier
MOA = block leukotriene-binding receptor
uses = for prophylaxis and for patients that have trouble with inhaled therpaies

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53
Q

Cromolyn

A

inhibits releases of inflammatory mediators such as histamine
for prophylactic use only

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54
Q

Omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibodies
inhibit IgE binding to mast cells preventing the release of inflammatory mediators
very expensive
only for severe non-responsive asthma

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55
Q

Tiotropium bromide

A

“Spireva”
Treatment of COPD
long-acting bronchodilator

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56
Q

Pharmacological treatments of COPD include

A
  1. tiotropium bromide - long-acting vasodilator
  2. salmeterol - longer acting beta-2 agonist
  3. Theophylline + glucocorticoids

Typically, responses are not as good as with asthma.

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57
Q

Oseltamivir

A

“Tamiflu”
MOA = prevents separation of virus particle from cell receptors –> stops viral spread; early treatment is essential
decreases duration by 1-2 days and reduces severity
effective for both influenza A & B.

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58
Q

Symptoms of allergic reactions include…

A

ithcing, hives, sneezing, wheezing, difficulty breathing

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59
Q

What causes an allergic reaction?

A

contact with allergens
release of histamine from mast cells and basophils leads to (1) contraction of pulmonary smooth muscles (2) dilate blood vessels –> lower blood pressure (3) increased permeability of vessels (4) increase gastric secretion

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60
Q

Pharmacologic treatment of allergic reaction includes…

A

anti-histamines (H1 blockers - these have anti-cholinergic/sedation side effects)

61
Q

diphenhydramine

A

“Benadryl”

anti-histamine

62
Q

chlorpheniramine

A

anti-histamine

63
Q

epinephrine (for allergy)

A

potent reversal

vasoconstriction and reduces fluid in the lungs so breathing improves and swelling reduces.

64
Q

Anti-smoking medications include…

A

nicotine replacement therapy
bupropion (Zyban; Wellbutrin) - antidepressants
varenicline (Chantix) - stimulates selective nicotine receptors to reduce craving

65
Q

bupropion

A

“Zyban”
“Wellbutrin”
anti-depressants
anti-smoking

66
Q

varenicline

A

“Chantix”
stimulates selective nicotine receptors to reduce craving
anti-smoking

67
Q

What are the symptoms of urinary obstruction?

A

anuria, polyuria, bladder distention

can also be asymptomatic

68
Q

What are the symptoms of renal/ureter stones?

A

renal colic, hematuria, pyelonephritis

can also be asymptomatic

69
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

inflammation of the kidney, usually as the result of a urinary tract infection/bacterial infection.

70
Q

What are the causes of pyelonephritis?

A

retrograde spread of cystitis
urinary obstruction; stenosis
diabetes

71
Q

What are the symptoms/consequences of pyelonephritis?

A

flank pain, fever
10-20% develop chronic renal failure
kidney scarring

72
Q

What are some properties of renal cell carcinomas?

A

comprise 80-90% of renal malignancies
more common in males >40yrs and in smokers
common in analgesic users (NSAIDs)
obesity is a risk factor

73
Q

What are the symptoms of renal cell carcinomas?

A

often asymptomatic
hematuria, dull flank pain, fever, fatigue
clear cell type is the most common

74
Q

Most likely site of renal cell carcinoma metastasis is…

A

lung or bones

75
Q

What are some characteristics of Wilms tumor?

A

most common congenital malignant renal tumor

usually develops within the first 3 years of life

76
Q

What are some contributing factors of bacterial cystitis?

A

stones, catheters, short female urethras, obstructions

usually caused by E. coli

77
Q

What are some features of urothelial carcinomas?

A

males >50 yrs most common
associated with smoking and other carcinogens (dyes, paints, etc.)
most common urothelial malignancy

78
Q

What are some features of prostatitis?

A

often cause by bacterial (cystitis)
enlarged and tender prostate can cause obstruction
most common in older men

79
Q

What are some features of benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

very common in older men (95% in men >75 yrs)
serious sequelae are less common
cause is unknown (possibly androgens or estrogens)
urinary obstruction is common
10% require surgery to relieve

80
Q

What are some features of prostatic adenocarcinomas?

A

most common malignancy (except skin cancers) in older men (60% of men >80 yrs)
most often detected by rectal exams
many lesions are small and not clinically significant, but can be deadly in some patients
most common metastatic site is bone

81
Q

What is prostate specific antigen?

A

abnormal levels are greater than 4-6mg/mL (usually higher with age)
rapidly increasing PSA = higher risk for cancer
more PSA bound to alpha-1-antichymotrypsin = greater risk for cancer

82
Q

About how many american adults are on dialysis?

A

500,000

83
Q

What are the main causes of Chronic Renal Disease?

A

diabetes, hypertension, chronic glomerulonephritis

84
Q

What is the most common type of primary glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA nephropathy

triggered by a viral infection

85
Q

What are common complications that chronic renal disease patients have?

A
platelet dysfunction (bleeding)
gingival hyperplasia (due to immunosuppressant drugs following transplants)
bone abnormalities (slow bone healing)
premature bone loss (osteoporosis)
infections (due to immunosuppression)
86
Q

What are some dental considerations for patients with chronic renal disease?

A

uremia can result in halitosis
decreased bone density and cortical plate thickness
premature bone loss
gingival overgrowth

87
Q

What are common symptoms of chronic renal disease?

A

heavy proteinuria
hematuria
inflammatory injury to the kidney (immune deposits in the glomeruli block normal blood filtration and reabsorption)
glomeruli scarring and damage functioning

88
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

heavy proteinuria, edema, hyperlipidemia

89
Q

Nephritic syndrome

A

associated with hypertension and kidney dysfunction

90
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

inflammatory injury to the kidneys

immune deposits

91
Q

glomerulosclerosis

A

chronic renal injury and renal scarring

92
Q

Describe medullary sponge kidney.

A

enlarged, kidney stones, UTI, benign

93
Q

Usual causes of hydronephrosis include…

A

blood clot, tumor, or pregnancy

94
Q

Characteristics of kidney stones…

A

10% of US has kidney stones
Men > women
risk factors include anything that reduces hydration/body fluid

95
Q

Treatments for small stones (< 1cm)

A

drink considerable amounts of water
dietary changes
OTC analgesics
Tamulosin (Flomax) - alpha-1 antagonist to relax the ureter muscle

96
Q

Treatments of large stones

A

lithotripsy (shockwave treatment) to break up stones
surgical removal
opioid analgesics for pain

97
Q

4 types of kidney stones

A

Calcium oxylate (due to excess in urine; 80%)
Struvite (10%, magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals, often associated with urinary infections; treatment is to acidify the urine)
Uric acid (associated with gout)
Cysteine

98
Q

Treating most kidney stones…

A

alkalinize the urine (except for struvite stones)

99
Q

Medications to treat kidney stones

A

hydrochlorothiazide - thiazide diuretic; reduces calcium in the urine
sodium bicarbonate - alkalinizes urine
allopurinol - reduces uric acid excretion; also used to gout

100
Q

Features of urinary tract infections

A

F > M

often called by E. coli

101
Q

Common treatments for UTIs

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid (resistant bacteria can be a problem)
ciprofloxacin (expensive)

102
Q

Drugs commonly used for patients on hemodialysis

A

atenolol for HTN
captopril for HTN
Heparin to prevent clotting in blood passed through machine
Furosemide to reduce the amount of fluid that needs to be removed by dialysis
prophylactic antibiotics to decrease the rate of infection

103
Q

Dental concerns for patients on hemodialysis

A

increased perio dx
increased oral infections due to weakened immune system
prophylactic abx for dental surgery

104
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary hemostasis?

A

primary - platelets

secondary - factors to cause adhesion of platelets (coagulation cascades, etc.)

105
Q

Features of platelets

A

anucleate
life span = ~10 days
when circulating they don’t adhere; during stasis they start to adhere to each other

106
Q

Features of primary hemostasis

A

initiated by injury
platelets adhere to subendothelium by interacting with vWF (which is a carrier for factor VIII)
release of granules to attract other platelets
aggregate with other platelets and form surface for coagulation cascade

107
Q

Features of secondary hemostasis

A

coagulation cascade with most of the factors coming from the liver
series of activating enzymatic conversions that result in formation of thrombin and then fibrin
fibrin and platelet aggregates for a stable clot

108
Q

Intrinsic pathway

A

factors = XII, XI, IX, VIII

measured by PTT clotting time

109
Q

Extrinsic pathway

A

VII factors

measured by PT clotting time

110
Q

Common factors in the coagulation cascade

A

Factors X, V, II and fibrin production

measured by both PT and PTT clotting times

111
Q

Which factors of the coagulation cascade are Vit. K - dependent?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, and X

vitamin K is necessary for calcium binding sites and activation of the cascade.

112
Q

What are some natural anti-coagulants?

A

protein C
antithrombin
these factors prevent the growth of a clot

113
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

breaks down a clot and releases fibrin

114
Q

How to assess hemostasis?

A
platelet count (part of the CBC)
PTT (intrinsic and common pathway)
PT (extrinsic and common pathway)
prolonged bleeding time may indicate deficiency of certain factors or inhibition of certain factors
115
Q

What are causes of thrombotic disorders?

A

Virchow’s triad: (1) endothelial injury, (2) abnormal blood flow, (3) hypercoagulability (acquired or inherited factors)

116
Q

Acquired hypercoagulable sates include…

A
surgery/trauma
limb immobilization
bedridden
long-distance air travel
pregnancy
oral contraceptives
117
Q

What is factor V Leiden mutation

A

genetic thrombotic disorder
most common inherited thrombophilia (associated with increased fibrin formation)
increased clotting but not usually a major problem
found in 5% of adults (quite common)

118
Q

What is Caisson Disease?

A

caused by air embolism blocking blood flow

119
Q

T/F - Superficial venous thrombi in leg rarely embolize

A

True

emboli are usually from deep vein thrombosis and can dislodge, especially to the lung

120
Q

What are some causes of bleeding disorders?

A

abnormal vessels
decreased platelets
platelet dysfunction
abnormal clotting factors

121
Q

Features of platelet-type bleeding

A
mucocutaneous bleeding (petechiae on mucosal surfaces)
causes - thrombocytopenia, von Willebrand disease (mutated VIII-related carrier protein)
122
Q

What are some causes of thrombocytopenia?

A

decreased bone marrow production of platelets
hemodilution due to multiple transfusions
immune reaction due to platelet autoantibodies directed at platelet surface proteins

123
Q

T/F - platelet counts below 10,000-20,000 generally do not result in spontaneous bleeding.

A

FALSE

anti-platelet drugs like aspirin will also increase bleeding tendency.

124
Q

Thrombocytopenia purpura include…

A

fever
renal failure
transient neurological deficits
microangiopathetic hemolytic anemia

125
Q

Features of von Willebrand disease

A

most common inherited blood-clotting disorder

altered vWF does not bind properly to Factor VIII and interferes with platelet adhesion to collagen

126
Q

Features of Hemophilia A and B

A

A - deficient factor VIII; B - deficient XI
more likely in males less than 25 yrs
X-linked trait
prolonged PTT and PT times

127
Q

Examples of acquired bleeding disorders

A

liver disease

vit. K deficiency (usually due to malabsorption of fat; increases both PT and PTT times

128
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

generalized secondary activation of clotting due to disseminated factors such as toxins (rattle snake venom), inflammation, cancers, etc.
can cause organ ischemia because of increased clotting as well as bleeding due to increased activation of fibrolysis.

129
Q

What are some things included in a CBC?

A

complete blood count
red and white blood cell counts
platelet counts

130
Q

Factors that alter the CBC…

A
iron deficiency
medications
alcohol
infections
gender
pregnancy
131
Q

Importances of WBC

A

leukocyte count includes all nucleated hematopoietic cells (except of RBCs)
used to evaluate infections, drug effects, radiation therapy, etc.

132
Q

Normal WBC

A

3500 - 10,000 cells/uL

133
Q

normal count for neutrophils

A

1800 - 6700 cells/uL

55% of WBCs

134
Q

normal count for eosinophils

A

0 - 570 cells/uL

3% of WBCs

135
Q

normal count for lymphocytes

A

1400 - 3900 cells/uL

35% of WBCs

136
Q

Leukocytosis

A

WBC > 10,000 combined

causes - chronic infection or inflammation, exercise, some leukemias

137
Q

Gaisbock syndrome

A

relative polycythemia (increased RBCs) due to decreased plasma volume (the # of RBCs stays the same)

138
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

genetic issue that causes increased RBCs

139
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

smaller (<80 fl)
usually due to iron deficiency (b/c of hemorrhaging
often have glossitis
other causes include blood loss, poor diet, and lead poisoning

140
Q

Macrocytic anemia

A

larger (>100 fl)
causes include liver disease, drugs
vitamin B12 or folate deficiency (associated with pregnancy) - often associated with neurological findings (paresthesia, weakness, dementia)
pernicious anemia or other autoimmune diseases.

141
Q

Normocytic anemia

A

caused by aplastic anemia, blood loss, anemia of chronic diseases.

142
Q

Sickle-cell anemia

A

globin of the molecule is abnormal due to an amino acid substitution

143
Q

Definition of leukemia

A

systemically distributed neoplasm of white cells

144
Q

Actue myeloid or lymphoblastic leukemias

A

no evidence of maturation in the blood or marrow
>20% blast form - immature cells, indicative of acute leukemia
skin and gum infiltration possible
more frequent in children
progresses rapidly, but more responsive to treatment

145
Q

Chronic myeloid of lymphblastic leukemias

A

increased % of mature cells
presence of Philadelphia chromosome - transposition of chromosomes 9/22 that results in abnormal tyrosine kinase
more cells can function and patients have better prognosis

146
Q

Definition of lymphomas

A

solid tumors of hematopoietic system
neoplasms of lymphoid tissue
lymphadenopathy (enlarged, painless)
clonal expansion at various developmental stages

147
Q

Features of non-Hodgkin lymphomas

A

indolent (less curable) to aggressive (more treatable)
90% of lymphomas
survival is from weeks to years depending on type

148
Q

Features of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

10% of lymphomas
most types are curable
Reed-Sternberg cells

149
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

cancer of plasma cells that arises in bone marrow

presence of Bence-Jones proteins