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WAZZAP > Quiz 4 > Flashcards

Quiz 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A heavy duty electric furnace capable of maintaining controlled temperatures of 1100 C or higher used in gravimetric tests.

A. muffle furnace

B. graphite furnace

C. oven

D. all of the above

A

A. muffle furnace

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2
Q
  1. Volumetric glassware is calibrated by measuring the mass of a liquid of known ________ and ___________ that is contained in the volumetric ware.

A. volume and density

B. density

C. concentration and density

D. density and temperature

A

D. density and temperature

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3
Q
  1. All reagents shall be stored according to manufacturer’s instructions. __________ requires temperature conditions up to 30 C.

A. Cold storage

B. Frozen storage

C. Ambient storage

D. STP

A

C. Ambient storage

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4
Q
  1. Characterization of the entire sample.

A. bulk analysis

B. surface analysis

C. structural analysis

D. physical analysis

A

A. bulk analysis

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5
Q
  1. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4?

A. +6

B. +7

C. +3

D. +4

A

B. +7

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6
Q
  1. Oxidizing agents are the species that

A. lose electrons

B. lose ions

C. gain electrons

D. gain ions

A

C. gain electrons

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7
Q
  1. A fraction of the sample actually used in the final laboratory analysis.

A. composite sample

B. sub-sample

C. laboratory sample

D. all of the above

A

C. laboratory sample

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8
Q
  1. The oxidation number of an atom in its elemental state is

A. equal to its charge

B. negative

C. zero

D. positive

A

C. zero

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9
Q
  1. Medium containing analyte.

A. reactant

B. matrix

C. solute

D. reference material

A

B. matrix

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10
Q
  1. Nearness of a measurement to its true value are accepted value.

A. accurate but precise precision

B. accuracy

C. assayed controls

D. all of the above

A

B. accuracy

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11
Q
  1. The ability of an analytical method to measure solely the analyte it intends to measure.

A. lyophilized

B. precision

C. specificity

D. standard use

A

C. specificity

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12
Q
  1. Specimens or materials which are analysed solely for quality control purposes and are not used for calibration purposes.

A. quality control (QC)

B. storage of reagents

C. control materials

D. none of the above

A

C. control materials

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13
Q
  1. Error is consistently low or high by the same amount caused by the presence of interfering substances in the sample or reagents.

A. homemade controls

B. constant systematic error

C. control materials

D. none of the above

A

B. constant systematic error

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14
Q
  1. The reactant which is present in the smallest stoichiometric amount and which limits the amount of product that can be formed is

A. the reagent with the least number of grams

B. the limiting reagent

C. the reagent in excess

D. the reagent with the most number of grams

A

B. the limiting reagent

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15
Q
  1. A portion of the whole sample taken to determine the quantitative composition of the whole.

A. error

B. analyte

C. aliquot

D. quality control (QC)

A

C. aliquot

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic soda?

A. potassium hydroxide

B. ammonia

C. hydrochloric acid

D. buffer solution

A

C. hydrochloric acid

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17
Q
  1. This chemical is usually used to disinfect waste containing microbial organisms.

A. chlorine

B. sodium chloride

C. sodium sulfate

D. fluorine

A

A. chlorine

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effect of waste?

A. inhalation

B. dermal

C. ingestion

D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing phosphoric acid?

A. hydrochloric acid

B. sodium hydroxide

C. distilled water

D. acetone

A

B. sodium hydroxide

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20
Q
  1. Symbols indicated in waste labels that instantly identify the kind of hazard the chemical possesses.

A. signal words

B. pictogram

C. precautionary statements

D. hazard statement

A

B. pictogram

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21
Q
  1. A neutral atom will have the lowest ionization potential when its electron configuration is

A. 1s1

B. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6

C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2

D. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6

A

C. 1s2, 2s2, 2p2

22
Q
  1. A more volatile substance will have a _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ vapor pressure

A. lower

B. higher

C. constant

D. any of these

A

B. higher

23
Q
  1. Dispersion of solid or liquid particles of microscopic size in gaseous media is ___________.

A. soot

B. mist

C. vapor

D. aerosol

A

D. aerosol

24
Q
  1. An instrument use to measure small pressure.

A. venturi

B. orifice

C. aneroid

D. manometer

A

D. manometer

25
Q
  1. A mechanical pressure gauge which indicates pressure by the amount of deflection under internal pressure of an oval tube bent in an arc of a circle and closed at one end.

A. diaphragm gauge

B. manometer

C. Bourdon-tube gauge

D. compound gauges

A

C. Bourdon-tube gauge

26
Q
  1. It is a measure of toxicity usually expressed as the lethal dose at which 50% of the test animals are killed.

A. lethal dose fifty (LD50)

B. threshold limit value (TLV)

C. flash point

D. explosion index

A

A. lethal dose fifty (LD50)

27
Q
  1. It is a measure of toxicity which is defined as the concentration to which it is believed the average worker could be exposed to, day by day, for 8 hours, 5 days a week, without suffering harm.

A. toxicity limit value

B. threshold limit value

C. lethal dose fifty

D. OEL

A

B. threshold limit value

28
Q
  1. An electrically neutral object has

A. no charge at all

B. equal amount of negative and positive charges

C. been stripped of all electrons

D. been stripped of all protons

A

B. equal amount of negative and positive charges

29
Q
  1. What is the vapor pressure of a liquid at its normal boiling point?

A. 1 atm

B. 273 atm

C. 2 atm

D. 760 atm

A

A. 1 atm

30
Q
  1. The resistance of water to the passage of light through it is a measure of the

A. Colour

B. Turbidity

C. Hardness

D. Dissolved gases

A

B. Turbidity

31
Q
  1. Metals tend to _____ electrons.

A. lose

B. gain

C. share

D. combine

A

A. lose

32
Q
  1. Metalloids tend to have characteristics of

A. metals

B. nonmetals

C. both metals and nonmetals

D. inert gases

A

C. both metals and nonmetals

33
Q
  1. Elements within a group have

A. similar number of valence electrons

B. the same number of energy levels

C. the same atomic radii

D. similar masses

A

A. similar number of valence electrons

34
Q
  1. In the “A” groups, as the atomic number increases,

A. the electronegativity increases

B. the ionization energy decreases

C. the atomic radius decreases

D. the elements tend to have fewer metallic properties

A

B. the ionization energy decreases

35
Q
  1. In each period, as the atomic number increases,

A. the radius of the atom increases

B. there is a transition from negative to positive oxidation states

C. the electronegativity increases

D. the ionization energy decreases

A

C. the electronegativity increases

36
Q
  1. Along a row in the periodic table of elements have the same

A. energy level

B. electronegativity

C. size

D. ionization energy

A

B. electronegativity

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is an exception to the octet rule?

A. BF3

B. NH3

C. H2S

D. Cl2

A

A. BF3

38
Q
  1. The geometry of the SO3 molecule is best described as

A. linear

B. trigonal planar

C. tetrahedral

D. bent

A

B. trigonal planar

39
Q
  1. The tetrahedral bond angle is approximately

A. 90°

B. 180°

C. 109.5°

D. 120°

A

C. 109.5°

40
Q
  1. A bond in which an electron pair is equally shared by two atoms is

A. ionic

B. polar covalent

C. nonpolar covalent

D. coordinate covalent

A

C. nonpolar covalent

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of ionic compounds?

A. high melting point

B. poor conductors in aqueous solutions

C. generally soft

D. share electrons

A

A. high melting point

42
Q
  1. An example of ionic compound would be

A. H2O

B. HCl

C. NH3

D. NaCl

A

D. NaCl

43
Q
  1. Which of the following compound would be covalent compound?

A. SiO2

B. NaCl

C. LiF

D. KBr

A

A. SiO2

44
Q
  1. The structure of water can be describe as

A. polar and tetrahedral

B. polar and bent

C. polar and linear

D. nonpolar and bent

A

B. polar and bent

45
Q
  1. Hardness of diamond is due mainly to a large amount of

A. covalent bond

B. hydrogen bond

C. ionic bond

D. sigma bond

A

A. covalent bond

46
Q
  1. Which type of chemical bond is formed between two atoms by the sharing of two electrons, with one electron from each atom?

A. ionic

B. covalent

C. metallic

D. any of these

A

B. covalent

47
Q
  1. Salts, such as sodium chloride, are what type of compounds?

A. ionic compounds

B. covalent compounds

C. polar compounds

D. any of these

A

A. ionic compounds

48
Q
  1. One element is in the IA family of the periodic table, and a second is in the VIIA family. What type of compound will the two elements form

A. ionic

B. covalent

C. they will not form a compound

D. more information is needed to answer this question

A

A. ionic

49
Q
  1. One element is in the VA family of the periodic table, and a second is in the VIA family. What type of compound will the elements form?

A. ionic

B. covalent

C. they will not form a compound

D. more information is needed to answer this question

A

B. covalent

50
Q
  1. A covalent bond in which there is an unequal sharing of bonding electrons is a

A. single covalent bond

B. double covalent bond

C. triple covalent bond

D. polar covalent bond

A

D. polar covalent bond

WAZZAP (31 decks)

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