Quiz 3 Content Flashcards

1
Q

Why detect foodborne pathogens? [2]

A
  • Public health concern - Health Canada estimated that approximately 13 million Canadians suffer from illness caused by foodborne bacteria every year
  • Economic concern - The annual cost related to these illnesses and related deaths are between 12 and 14 billion dollars
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1
Q

Describe traditional culture-dependent pathogen detection.

A
  • Prepare a 1:10 dilution and incubate for 24 hours in a non-selective enrichment (give injured/stressed bacteria a chance to recover; also if very few pathogenic bacteria are present, allow them to grow to detectable numbers)
  • Incubate in selective enrichment for 24 hours
  • Streak onto differential/selective media and incubate for another 24 hours
  • Biochemical analysis of suspected pathogenic colonies will follow
  • This method takes 48 to 72 hours for preliminary results
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2
Q

Describe the isolation of E.coli O157:H7 using traditional culture-dependent detection.

A
  • Tellurite Cefixime - Sorbitol MacConkey Agar
    • The sorbitol-containing medium differentiates nonsorbitol fermenting O157:H7 STEC colonies from those of commensal strains (i.e., sorbitol fermenters)
    • Cefixime inhibits the growth of other enteric bacteria
    • Potassium tellurite inhibts non-O157 STEC
The Tellurite Cefixime is on the far left.
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3
Q

How is Tellurite Cefixime - Sorbitol MacConkey Agar used to isolate E. coli O157:H7? [3]

A
  • Cifixime inhibits other enteric bacteria
  • Potassium tellurite inhibits non-O157 STEC
  • The sorbitol containing medium differentiates nonsorbitol fermenters from sorbitol fermenters
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4
Q

Describe the isolation of Salmonella using traditional culture-dependent methods.

A
  • Xylose-lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar
    • Selective agar, inhibits growth of Gram-positive microbes
    • Salmonella appears black (H2S production)
    • E.coli appears yellow after 18-24 hours of incubation at 37C
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5
Q

What biochemical analysis generally follows the traditional culture based method?

A
  • Serotyping (based on the slide agglutination test)
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6
Q

What is serotyping?

A
  • A mode of further classification based on two types of antigens:
    • O antigen: outermost portion of the lipopolysaccharide
    • H antigen: flagellar protein (Phase 1/Phase 2 flagella
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7
Q

What is the O antigen?

A

Outermost portion of the lipopolysaccharide

Somatic antigens

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8
Q

What is the H antigen?

A

Flagellar protein

Phase 1/Phase 2 flagella

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9
Q

What is the slide agglutination test?

A
  • Antigens are assayed with antibodies on an inert surface
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10
Q

Describe the isolation of Campylobacter.

A
  • Campylobacter blood free selective agar (CCDA)
    • Charcoal Cefoperazone Deoxycholate
    • Defoperazone and Amphotericin B were used as supplements for selective growth of Campylobacter
Campylobacter is a highly demanding microbe compared to others (they are microaerophiles!) - they want oxygen, but too much can actually kill them. A specific gas composition can be used to culture campylobacter, which can further lead to its detection using selective media.
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11
Q

Describe the isolation of Listeria monocytogenes.

A
  • In early studies - incubation for prolonged periods at 4C on agar plates until the formation of visible colonies (i.e., very few pathogens can grow at this low temperature; however, this can take over a month for colonies to grow) - selective agars were developed to overcome this.
  • Selective agar (selective inhibitory components; indicator = aesculin & ferrous iron)
  • L. monocytogenes hydrolyses aesculin, producing black zones around the colonies due to the formation of black iron phenolic compounds
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12
Q

What are the advantages of the traditional culture-dependent isolation methods? [2]

A
  • Sensitive (can detect pathogens even in trace amounts)
  • Reliable (still represent the gold standard)
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13
Q

What are the disadvantages of the traditional culture-dependent isolation methods? [2]

A
  • Time consuming (at least 3 days required for results)
  • Labour intensive
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14
Q

Why are rapid detection methods needed? [3]

A
  • Detection results are desired within a shorter period of time
  • Some foods are perishable
  • Require special storage conditions
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15
Q

Describe the workflow of rapid detection methods.

A
  • Dilute and enrich for 10-28 hours
  • Prepare sample
  • Conduct assay
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16
Q

What are the targets of current rapid detection technologies?

A
  • ELFA & bacteriophage-based biosensor target surface molecules
  • PCR and other molecular detection systems target DNA and ribosomes (inside the cell)
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17
Q

Describe the history of detection of Salmonella and L. monocytogenes.

A
Salmonella history is the top; L. monocytogenes is the bottom.
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18
Q

How does ELISA work?

A
  1. Antigens coated onto ELISA plate
  2. Serum/sample containing primary antibodies is added
  3. Non-antigen binding antibodies are washed off the plate
  4. Secondary antibody-conjugated with an enzyme is added
  5. Excess secondary antibody is washed off the plate
  6. Substrate for the enzyme (chromagen) is added
  7. Enzyme reacts with the substrated producing colour - intensity of the colour correlates with the level of antigen
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
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19
Q

Describe ELFA.

A
  • First described in 1979
  • First introduced to food industry in the early 90s
  • Similar to ELISA, but ~100 times more sensitive for reporting results
  • Utilizes a substrate that yields a fluorescent, rather than visible, product on interaction with the immunoglobulin-linked enzyme

Enzyme-linked fluorescent assay

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20
Q

What are the steps in PCR?

A
  • Denaturing (95°C)
  • Annealing (40-60°C)
  • Extension (72°C)
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21
Q

Describe real-time PCR: The Taqman Probe Method

A
  • The primers bind to a genetic sequence on the ssDNA; the probe also binds to a region of the sequence.
  • Probes contain fluorescent reporter dye at one end, whose signal is absorbed by the quencher dye at the other end.
  • As the DNA enzyme extends the primer, it breaks the probe apart. This separates the reporter dye from the quencher, which increases the reporter signal.
  • Successive heating and cooling cycles allow the DNA fragments to replicate exponentially.
  • A separate detection phase is not necessary because signal is measured and analyzed at the end of each cycle during amplification
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22
Q

Why isn’t a detection phase necessary in Real-time PCR?

A
  • Signal is measured and analyzed at the end of each cycle during amplifcation
The more target DNA in the original sample, the lower the Ct value. The less target DNA in the original sample, the higher the Ct value.
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23
Q

What are the advantages of PCR? [4]

A
  • Adaptable to new targets (can always design new primers and probes)
  • Potential for high specificity
  • Good multiplexing (multiple primers may be designed)
  • Rapid & sensitive
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24
Q

What are the disadvantages of PCR? [2]

A
  • Likely to detect dead organisms
  • Some assays are relatively labour intensive
25
Q

What is LAMP?

A
  • A novel nucleic acid amplification method developed by Notomi et al. (2000).
  • 4 primers comprising 2 inner primers and 2 outer primers are used to target six specific regions of target DNA
  • Progress through 2 steps by DNA polymerase with strand displacement activity
    • Starting structure producing step
    • Cycling amplification step
  • Large amount of amplicons can be produced by LAMP within 60 minutes which is usually 103-fold or higher as compared to simple PCR

No thermocycler required - isothermal - one temperature required.

Dumbbell structure allows multiple amplifications to begin, as compared to PCR which only has one starting point, so it is much more efficient!

Loop-mediated isothermal amplification

26
Q

What are the advantages of next-gen isothermal amplification? [2]

A
  • Doesn’t need a thermo-cycler
  • Cost effective

Next-generation method

27
Q

What is a disadvantage of isothermal amplification?

A

Not good for multiplexing

This is because designing primers is much more complicated than in PCR.

28
Q

What is a bacteriophage-based biosensor?

A
  • Viruses that invade bacterial cells
29
Q

How do bacteriophage-based biosensors work?

A
  • Lytic phages disrupt bacterial metabolism and cause the bacterium to lyse
  • Phages co-evolve with their bacterial hosts to recognize and infect their target cells with a high specificity
  • The complete infection cycle of a virulent phage usually takes 1-2 h and, by multiplication inside the host cell, offers an inherent amplification step
  • Shorten the time for detection
  • Detection on the bases of phage-induced lysis
    • ATP release
    • Other bacterial cytoplasmic markers: activity of bacterial beta-D-galactosidase
  • Detection by Phage Amplification Assay
  • Genetically modified reporter range
  • Using phage or phage components as affinity molecules
30
Q

TC-SMAC agar is used for the detection of […].

A

TC-SMAC agar is used for the detection of E. coli.

31
Q

[…] utilizes a substrate that yields a fluorescent for foodborne pathogen detection.

A

ELFA utilizes a substrate that yields a fluorescent for foodborne pathogen detection.

32
Q

What is the purpose of pathogen-specific criteria?

A

Evaluate assays for various pathogens (e.g., Salmonella and L. monocytogenes) even when they are part of the same product line.

33
Q

What do product-line specific criteria apply to?

A

Applies to all test kits within the product line.

34
Q

List the pathogen specific criteria. [9]

A
  • Inclusivity
  • Exclusivity
  • Diagnostic sensitivity
  • Diagnostic specificity
  • Analytical sensitivity
  • Reproducibility
  • Repeatability
  • Compatability
  • Validation status
35
Q

What is inclusivity?

A

Ability to detect different strains and/or subtypes of the target organism

Pathogen-specific criteria

36
Q

What is exclusivity?

A

Ability to yield negative results with non-target organisms.

Pathogen-specific criteria

37
Q

What is diagnostic sensitivity?

A

The probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample as positive (avoid false negative results).

Overlap between this criteria and exclusivity.

Pathogen-specific criteria

38
Q

What is diagnostic specificity?

A

The probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test sample as negative (avoid false positive results).

Otherwise known as limit of detection

Pathogen-specific criteria

39
Q

What is analytical sensitivity?

A

Detection limit: before enrichment (CFU/25 g) or after enrichment (CFU/mL)

Pathogen-specific criteria

40
Q

What is reproducibility?

A

Ability to perform reproducibly in different laboratories and with different personnel

Pathogen-specific criteria

41
Q

What is repeatability?

A

Ability to produce the same results in the same laboratory with the same equipment and personnel

Pathogen-specific criteria

42
Q

What is compatibility with regards to pathogen-specific criteria?

A
  • Compatability with existing and standard enrichment media
  • Are specific enrichment media or proprietary nonstandard media required?

Pathogen-specific criteria

43
Q

What is validation status?

A

Certified by ISO, AFNOR, AOAC International, and/or Health Canada

Pathogen-specific criteria

44
Q

Differentiate between diagnostic sensitivity and diagnostic specificity.

A

Sensitivity: probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample
Specificity: probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test sample

45
Q

List the product line specific criteria. [12]

A
  • Differentiate viable and nonviable organisms
  • Ruggedness
  • Internal positive controls
  • Control of cross contamination
  • Different target pathogens
  • Compatibility with food matrix
  • Speed
  • Throughput
  • Equipment size
  • Ease of use
  • Cost
  • Product support
46
Q

What is differentiation?

A
  • Should not detect nonviable organisms.

Product line-specific criteria

47
Q

What is ruggedness?

A

Should not be affected by small changes in protocol or small deviation from recommended environmental conditions for equipment.

Product line-specific criteria

48
Q

What are internal positive controls?

A

PCR-based methods can yield false-negative results, so an internal positive control can provide assurance that a negative test result is a true negative and not a false negative due to inhibition

Product line-specific criteria

49
Q

What is control of cross-contamination?

A
  • Should have multiple barriers to prevent cross contamination

Product line-specific criteria

50
Q

Why have different target pathogens in a product line?

A

Should have assays available for all key foodborne pathogens and target organisms of concern to specific end user

Product line-specific criteria

51
Q

What is compatibility with respect to product-line specific criteria?

A

Some food matrices can cause high numbers of false-negative results or inhibit the detection assay

Product line-specific criteria

52
Q

What is speed with regard to product specific criteria?

A

Significantly reduced time relative to standard method

Product line-specific criteria

53
Q

What is throughput?

A

Number of samples allowed, time to run the assay, batch processing availability

54
Q

Diagnostic specificity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test as negative.
True or False?

A

True

Avoid false positive results

55
Q

Diagnostic specificity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test as positive.
True or False?

A

False.
Diagnostic specificity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test as negative.

Avoid false positive results

56
Q

Diagnostic specificity refers to avoiding false positive results.
True or False?

A

True.

Diagnostic specificity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test as negative and avoid false positive results.

57
Q

Diagnostic specificity refers to avoiding false negative results.
True or False?

A

False.

Diagnostic specificity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test as negative (and avoid false positive results).

58
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample as positive.
True or False?

A

True.

Avoid false negatives

59
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a negative test sample as negative.
True or False?

A

False.

Diagnostic sensitivity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample as positive (and avoid false negatives).

60
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity refers to avoiding false negative results.
True or False?

A

True.

Diagnostic sensitivity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample as positive, and avoid false negative results.

61
Q

Diagnostic sensitivity refers to avoiding false positive results.
True or False?

A

False.

Diagnostic sensitivity is the probability that a test will correctly classify a positive test sample as positive, and avoid false negative results.

So, to clarify:

Sensitivity: Ability to avoid false negatives (correctly identify individuals with the condition).

Specificity: Ability to avoid false positives (correctly identify individuals without the condition).