Quiz 3- chapters 10,11, 13 and 15 Flashcards

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1
Q

Civil commitment

A

requires an individual to be hospitalized involuntarily if they have a mental illness and pose a danger to themselves or others

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2
Q

Assessment of risk in child protection

A

involves the laws that are in place to protect children from abuse. The risk of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or neglect is considered when a government protection agency, such as the Children’s Aid Society, decides whether to temporarily remove a child from their home or to terminate parental rights.

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3
Q

Immigration laws

A

prohibit the admission of individuals into Canada if there are reasonable grounds for believing they will engage in acts of violence or if they pose a risk to the social, cultural, or economic functioning of Canadian society.

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4
Q

School and labour regulations

A

include provisions to prevent any kind of act that would endanger others.

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5
Q

duty to warn

A

Mental health professionals are expected to consider the likelihood that their patients will act in a violent manner and to intervene to prevent such behaviour.

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6
Q

True positive

A

represents a correct prediction and occurs when a person who is predicted to be violent engages in violence.

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7
Q

True negative

A

is also a correct prediction and occurs when a person who is predicted not to be violent does not act violently.

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8
Q

False positive

A

represents an incorrect prediction and occurs when a person is predicted to be violent but is not.

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9
Q

False negative

A

is also an incorrect prediction and occurs when a person is predicted to be nonviolent but acts violently.

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10
Q

Base rate

A

represents the percentage of people within a given population who commit a criminal or violent act. It is difficult to make accurate predictions when the base rates are too high or too low.

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11
Q

Unstructured clinical judgment

A

characterized by a substantial amount of professional discretion and lack of guidelines.

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12
Q

Actuarial prediction

A

With actuarial prediction, the risk factors used have been selected and combined based on their empirical or statistical association with a specific outcome

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13
Q

Structural professional judgement

A

According to this method, the professional (the term professional is used to acknowledge that it is not only clinicians who make evaluations of risk but a diverse group, including law enforcement officers, probation officers, and social workers) is guided by a predetermined list of risk factors that have been selected from the research and professional literature

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14
Q

Static risk factors

A

factors that do not fluctuate over time and are not changed by treatment. Age at first arrest is an example of a static risk factor, since no amount of time or treatment will change this risk factor.

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15
Q

Dynamic risk factors

A

fluctuate over time and are amenable to change. An antisocial attitude is an example of a dynamic risk factor since it is possible that treatment could modify this variable.

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16
Q

Acute dynamic risk factors

A

These risk factors change rapidly within days, hours, or minutes and often occur just prior to an offence.

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17
Q

Dispositional risk factors

A

re those that reflect the person’s traits, tendencies, or style and include demographic, attitudinal, and personality variables, such as gender, age, criminal attitudes, and psychopathy.

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18
Q

Clinical risk factors

A

are the symptoms of mental disorders that can contribute to violence, such as substance abuse or major psychoses.

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19
Q

Contextual risk factors- aka situational

A

aspects of the individual’s current environment that can elevate the risk, such as access to victims or weapons, lack of social supports, and perceived stress.

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20
Q

Protective factors

A

factors that mitigate or reduce the likelihood of antisocial acts or violence in offenders

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21
Q

Desistance

A

occurs when an individual who has engaged in criminal activities stops committing crime.

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22
Q

Psychopathy

A

a personality disorder defined by a collection of interpersonal, affective, and behavioural characteristics.

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23
Q

Hare Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)

A

the most popular method of assessing psychopathy in adults

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24
Q

the Psychopathic Personality Inventory–Revised (PPI-R

A

Self-report measure of psychopathic traits

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25
Q

Self-Report Psychopathy Scale (SRP)

A

Self-report measure of psychopathic traits

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26
Q

Antisocial personality disorder (APD)

A

refers to a personality disorder in which there “is a pervasive pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others that begins in childhood or early adolescence and continues into adulthood”

27
Q

Sociopathy

A

A label used to describe a person whos psychopathic traits are assumed to be due to environmental factors

28
Q

Sexual sadism

A

Sexual sadists are those people who are sexually aroused by fantasies, urges, or acts of inflicting pain, suffering, or humiliation on another human

29
Q

Antisocial Process Screening Device (APSD)

A

designed for assessing the precursors of psychopathic traits in children

30
Q

Hare Psychopathy Checklist: Youth Version

A

a rating scale designed to measure psychopathic traits and behaviours in male and female adolescents between the ages of 12 and 18.

31
Q

Parent-Child Interaction Therapy

A

This program focuses on increasing the parent–child relationships using positive reinforcements and teaching positive parenting strategies.

32
Q

Response Modulation

A

According to this theory, psychopaths fail to use contextual cues that are peripheral to a dominant response set to modulate their behaviour.

33
Q

Domestic Violence

A

refers to any violence occurring between family members. Domestic violence typically occurs in private settings.

34
Q

Evolutionary psychology

A

takes the evolutionary history of a species into account when trying to understand a specific psychological trait and involves a recognition of selective pressures facing ancestral humans that would have led to the traits’ origination, development, and maintenance over time.

35
Q

Selective Pressure

A

an environmental circumstance that provides an opportunity for new genes to develop that give a survival or reproductive advantage for those who have those genes.

36
Q

Family-only batterer

A

of all types of batterers, engages in the least amount of violence;typically is neither violent outside the home nor engages in other criminal behaviours;does not show much psychopathology, and if a personality disorder is present, it would most likely be passive-dependent personality;does not report negative attitudes supportive of violence and has moderate impulse-control problems;typically displays no disturbance in attachment to his partner; andis the most common type, with 50 percent of batterers being this type.

37
Q

dysphoric/borderline batterer

A

engages in moderate to severe violence; exhibits some extra-familial violence and criminal behavior; of all types of batterers displays the most depression and borderline personality traits and has problems with jealousy; has moderate problems with impulsivity and alcohol and drug use; has an attachment style that would be best described as preoccupied; and makes up 25 percent of batterers.

38
Q

The generally violent/antisocial batterer

A

engages in moderate to severe violence; of all types of batterers, engages in the most violence outside of the home and in criminal behavior; has antisocial and narcissistic personality features; likely has drug and alcohol problems; has high levels of impulse-control problems and many violence-supportive beliefs; shows a dismissive attachment style; and makes up 25 percent of batterers.

39
Q

Features of the Level 1/Short-Term subtype include the following:

A

A woman experiences short-term, less severe violence in a dating relationship

40
Q

Features of the Level 2/Intermediate subtype include the following

A

A woman experiences violence while in a live-in intimate relationship of up to two years

41
Q

Features of the Level 3/Intermittent Long-Term subtype include the following:

A

A woman experiences severe intermittent violence while in a live-in intimate relationship that lasts many years

42
Q

Features of the Level 4/Chronic subtype include the following:

A

A woman experiences severe, repeated violence while in a live-in intimate relationship that lasts many years

43
Q

Features of the Level 5/Homicidal subtype include the following:

A

A woman experiences severe violence that escalates to death threats and ends with the woman killing her batterer

44
Q

Mandatory charging policies

A

give police the authority to lay charges against a suspect when there are reasonable and probable grounds to believe that an assault has occurred.

45
Q

Criminal harassment

A

involve repeatedly following, communicating with, watching, or threatening a person either directly or through someone a person knows.

46
Q

Cyberstalking

A

includes the use of electronic communication technology, like the Internet, in order to harass, intimidate, and cause fear and distress

47
Q

Intimate stalker

A

A stalker who has been in an intimate relationship with the victim

48
Q

Acquaintance stalker

A

A stalker who knows their victim but has not been involved in an intimate relationship

49
Q

Public figure stalker

A

A stalker who stalks public personalities with whom they have had no prior relationship

50
Q

Private stranger stalker

A

Stalking a stranger

51
Q

Filicide

A

refers to the killing of children by their biological parents or step-parents and includes neonaticide (killing a baby within 24 hours of birth) and infanticide (killing a baby within the first year of life).

52
Q

familicide

A

occurs when a spouse and children are killed, is almost always committed by a man. The homicide is often accompanied by a history of spousal and child abuse prior to the offence.

53
Q

Femicide

A

Killing women

54
Q

Androcide

A

Killing men

55
Q

Sexual homicide

A

Homicides with a sexual component

56
Q

Serial murder

A

occurs when an individual has killed two or more victims, in separate events, at separate locations, with a cooling-off period between the murders (i.e., an inactive time interval between the murders)

57
Q

Mass murder

A

occurs when an individual has killed multiple victims in one event at one location.

58
Q

Spree murder

A

the offender must usually have killed two or more victims in one continuous “event” at two or more locations, with no cooling-off period between the murders.

59
Q

Visionary serial murderer

A

kills in response to voices or visions telling them to kill. This type of serial murderer would most likely be diagnosed as delusional or psychotic.

60
Q

Mission oriented serial muderer

A

believes there is a group of undesirable people who should be eliminated, such as homeless people, sex-trade workers, or a specific minority group.

61
Q

Hedonistic serial murderers

A

are motivated by self-gratification. These killers have been divided into three subtypes based on the motivation for killing: lust murderer, thrill murderer, or comfort murderer.

62
Q

Lust serial murderer

A

motivated by sexual gratification and becomes stimulated and excited by the process of killing.

63
Q

thrill murderer

A

derives excitement from seeing their victims experience terror or pain.

64
Q

comfort serial murderer

A

motivated by material or financial gain. The power/control serial murderer is not motivated by sexual gratification but by wanting to have absolute dominance over the victim.