Quiz 2 Flashcards

Question

Kubler-Ross (1969) described the following stages of grief (in this order): ## Footnote a. denial/isolation, anger, bargening, depression, acceptance b. anger, denial/isolation, depression, bargening, acceptance c. anger, anxiety, depression, denial, acceptance d. denial/isolation, anxiety, depression, bargening, acceptance

Answer 1

a. denial/isolation, anger, bargening, depression, acceptance- **correct** b. anger, denial/isolation, depression, bargening, acceptance c. anger, anxiety, depression, denial, acceptance d. denial/isolation, anxiety, depression, bargening, acceptance

Answer 2

a. Social Referencing: by 6 months of age. Infant looks to caregiver to determine how to respond in new and ambiguous situations. b. Seperation Anxiety: intensity peaks at 14 to 18 months then declines. Occurs when child is seperated from primary caregiver and experiences severe distress. c. Stranger Anxiety-CORRECT d. Contact Comfort-Harlow's term for pleasant tactile sensation provided by a soft, cuddly parent

Answer 3

a. Secure: baby explores the room and plays with toys while mom is present in strange situations. Baby becomes mildly upset when she leaves and seeks contact with her when she returns. b. Insecure (anxious)/Ambivalent:Correct c. Insecure (anxious)/Avoidant: interacts little with their mother, shows little distress when she leaves the room and avoids/ignores her when she returns d. Disorganized: exhibit fear of their caregivers, a dazed or confused facial expression, and a variety of other disorganized attachment behaviors.

Answer 4

a. emotional sensitivity and responsive to babies' cues= secure attachment **b. moody and inconsistent in their caregiving (i.e., sometimes indifferent, at other times enthusiastic)=CORRECT (AKA insecure/resistant)** c. very impatient and unresponsive or, at other extreme, provide their children with too much stimulation=insecure (anxious)/avoidant d. 80% mistreat their children=disorganized disoriented

Answer 5

a. autonomous: these individuals provide coherent descriptions of their childhood relationship with their parents and tend to have children who exhibit *secure* attachment. b. dismissing: CORRECT c. preoccupied: these individuals become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships or seem passively preoccupied with a parent. Their children are typically *resistant/ambivalent*. d. depressed-NOT one of the terms

Answer 6

a. empathy, structure b. maternal depressiveness and structure c. coercive interactions and parental monitoring of child activities---**CORRECT** d. empathy and coercive interactions

Answer 7

a. self efficacy beliefs, anxiety, depression **_b. self efficacy beliefs, beliefs about outcomes of their behaviors, regret/remorse-_ CORRECT: a. self-efficacy beliefs (they are more likely to say that it is easy to perform aggressive acts but difficult to inhibit aggressive impulses), b. beliefs about the outcomes of their behaviors (they expect that aggression will be followed by positive consequences including reduced aversive treatment by others) and c. regret or remorse (they show little remorse after mommitting an aggressive act). ** c. attention, beliefs about outcome of their behaviors, depression d. anxiety, regret/remorse, attention

Answer 8

a. Premoral stage (before age 6) little (if any) concern for rules) b. Heteronomous morality (7-10) AKA morality of constraint) -CORRECT c. Autonomous Morality (after 11) child views rules as arbitray and as being alterable when the people who are governed by them agree to change them. When judging an act, they focus more on the intention of the actor than the consequences d. Postmoral stage-NOT a stage

Answer 9

a. Preconventional Morality- the goodness or badness of an act depends on its consequences. The right course of action is the one that allows them to avoid punishment. b. Conventional Morality: CORRECT (typically move to this stage at about 10 or 11) c. Postconventional Morality: Individual belives the morally right action is one that is consistent with democratically determined laws (which can be changed if they interfere with basic rights) and right/wrong is determined on the basis of broad, self-chosen universally applical ethical principles. d. heteronomous morality-Piaget's theory not Kohlberg

Answer 10

a. Instrumental hedonism: CORRECT b. Law and Order Orientation: moral judgment based on rules and laws established by legitamate authority c. Morality of Individual principles of Conscience: right and wrong determined on basis of broad, self-chosen universally applicable ethical principles d. heteronomous morality: PIAGET not Kohlberg.

Answer 11

a. focused on what is best for self- Level 1 b. sacrafices one's own desires for those of others- CORRECT c. avoiding harm to oneself and to others is the foremost consideration- Level 3 d. focuses on punishment/consequences- Not part of her theory. She argued that females were less invluenced by justice and individual rights Gilligan's stages: Level 1; focused on what is best for sel Transition 1: recognition that one is connected to others Level 2: sacrafices one's own desires for those of others Transition 2: focus on coordinating one's responsibilities to self and others Level 3: avoiding harm to oneself and to others is the foremost consideration

Answer 12

a. anger, cynicism, jealousy, contempt b. defensiveness, anger, contempt, jealousy c. anxiety, cynicism, criticism, stonewalling d. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling- CORRECT

Answer 13

Children have been found to do better when mothers exhibit fewer adjustment problems following the divorce of their parents and when their mothers exhibit a high degree of acceptance ond consistency in discipline. Unfortunately, divorced parents often experience emotional distress and changes in functioning that include a *diminished capacity to parent* a. uncommunicative b. monitoring child's activities less closely **c. increasingly warm and loving- infact mothers typically become less warm and loving toward their children (especially sons)** d more authoratarian in terms of punishment

Answer 14

a. toddler **b. preschooler- correct- likely because they are less able to understand the reason for divorce and are more likely to blame themselves and fear they will be abandond by both parents** c. elementary school age d. secondary school age

Answer 15

a. 2-3 b. 4-5 **c. 6-8 research found that children 6 to 8years of age at the time of divorce exhibited painful memories ten years later and feared they would have unsuccessful marriages themselves.** d. 8-12

Answer 16

a. Job Evaluation b. Comparable worth c. Process analysis d. Job analysis- CORRECT

Answer 17

a. KSAOs- Worker oriented methods provide informaiton about the Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, and Other characteristics b. PAQ- CORRECT b. BARS- Behaviorally anchored radint scale- supervisors or others familiar with the job 1. identify several independent dimensions of the job behavior, 2. identify several behavioral anchors, 3. order and number behavioral ancors. d. RIASEC- stands for hollands personality/work environment types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional

Answer 18

a. self-ratings tend to be the most lenient but are less susceptible to halo bias b. supervisor ratings are generally the most reliable **c. peer ratings are particuarly poor for predicting training success and subsequent promotions- CORRECT... they are particuarly good for predicting training sucess and subsequent promotions** d. subordinates, peer and supervisor ratings usually agree more with each other than with self-ratings

Answer 19

a. Actual Criterion: the way performance is actually measured. For example, for a psychotherapist, an ultimate criterion might be "provides effective theraputic services," and an actual criterion might be a client survey of satisfaction b. Ultimate Criterion- CORRECT c. Relevance Criterion-actual riterion's construct validity (e.g., the degree to which it measures the ultimate criterion) d. Deficiency Criterion: degree to which an actual criterion does _not_ measure all aspects of the ultimate criterion and is one of the factors that limits criterion relevance.

Answer 20

a. Deficiency Criterion: degree to which an actual criterion does not measure all aspects of the ultimate criterion and is one of the factors that limits criterion relevance. b. Relevance Criterion-actual riterion's construct validity (e.g., the degree to which it measures the ultimate criterion) c. Halo bias: occurs when rater's evaluation of an employee on one dimensino of job performance affects his/her evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimensions or when the rater's general impression of an employee influences how the rater rates the employee on all dimensions of job performance (can be positive or negative). d. Criterion Contamination- CORRECT. Knowledge of an employee's predictor performance is one source of criterion contamination an occurs when the rater's knowledge of an employee's predictor performance biases how the rater rates the employee on the criterion. In this situation, the criterion is not providing accurate information, and, if it is used to validate the predictor, criterion contamination is likely to artificially inflate the predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient.

Answer 21

a. Paired comparison: the rater compares each rate with every other rateee in pairs on one or more dimension of job performance. The primary disadvantage is that it becomes increasingly cumbersome to use as the number of ratees increases b. Forced Distribution- CORRECT. A disadvantage is that it may yield erroneous data if the performance of the ratees is not actually normally distributed c. Critical incident: involves first deriving a checklist of critical incidents by having the supervisor observe employees while they workand record specific behaviors that are associated with outstanding and poor performance. Then, when using the technique for performance appraisal the rater marks those items in the checklist that apply to the ratee. The primary advantage is that it prrovides useful information for employee feedback, but a disadvantage is that its development requires close supervision of employees and accurate record keeping by the rater; it addresses only critical (extreme) job behaviors, not typical ones; and it does not indicate the frequency or degree to which a behavior occurs. d. Forced choice: each item consists of two to four alternatives that are considered to be about equal in terms of desierability, and the rater selects the alternative that best or least describes the ratee. Although the forced choice technique can help reduce rater bias, it is time-consuming to develop and is often disliked by raters. another type of technique is a "GRAPHIC RATING SCALE" - which requires the rater to indicate on a likert-type scale the ratee's level of performance on one or several dimensions. For example, a rater might rate an employee's communication skills on a 5-point scale that ranges from excellent to poor. Graphic rating scales are highly susceptible to rater biases, but their accuracy is improved when the scales are anchored with descriptions of specific behaviors

Answer 22

**a. Interview the employee- CORRECT it is not listed--- the rest are listed in order** b. Identify several independent dimensions of job behavior (e.g., job knowledge, motivation, interpersonal relationships) c. Identify several behavioral anchors (critical incidents) for each demension d. order and number behavioral anchores within each dimension from the least to most positive or desierable. \* can be easily used to provide employees with specific feedback about their job performance \*there is evidence that BARS increases inter-rater reliability reliability and reduces rater bias. \*Disadvantage is the time requrired, also anchors describe what rater expects the employee to do and do not necessarily indicate what behavior the rater has actually observed

Answer 23

a. leniency/strictness bias- CORRECT b. Central Tendency Bias- rater constant use of only the middle range of the rating scale c. Halo Bias: rater's evaluation of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects their evaluation of that employee on other unrelated dimension or when the rater's general impression of an employee influences how the rater rates the employee on all dimensions of job performance (can be negative or positive). d. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Answer 24

a. importance of matching an individual's personality to the characteristics of the work environment and proposes that a person will be more satisfied, with personality-environment fit.- *HOLLAND* b. life-space, life-span theory that emphasised the role of self-concept and career maturity- SUPER-**CORRECT** c. vocational identity development as an ontoing process that is tied to ego identity and involves the repetitive process of differentiation and integration. -*TIEDMAN AND O'HARA* d. was influenced by Abraham Maslow and links a person's occupational choice to their needs and personality. *ROE*

Answer 25

a. Tiedman and O'hara=Career Decision-Making Model: vocational identity development is an ongoing process that is tied to ego development and involves the repetititve process of differentiation and integration. b. Krumboltz= Social Learning Theory; based on rienforcement theory by Bandura and proposes that the "maximum career development of all individuals requires each individual to be exposed to the widest array of learing experiences, regardless of race, gender, or ethnicity". c. Brousseau and Driver=decision dynamics career model: refers to how the person envisions their ideal career path. d. Dawis and Lofquist=Theory of Work Adjustment **(CORRECT):** Satisfaction- degree to which the characteristics of the cob correspond to their needs; satisfactoriness-extent to which worker's skills correspond to the skills/demands of the job.

Answer 26

a. Scientific Management: Frederick Taylor applied the scientific study of job productivity. Scientific Management Involves: a. scientifically analyzing jobs into their componet parts and then standardizing those parts, b. scientifically selecting, training, and placing workers in job for which they are mentally and physically suited, c. fostering cooperatoin between supervisors and workers to minimize deviation from scientific methods of work, d. having managers and workers assume responsibility for their own share of their work. b. Human Relations movement: CORRECT c. Hawthorne Effect: Mayo and colleagues at the Hawtorne Planet of the Western Electric company- found that productivity increased from psychological and social factors related to participation in a research study d. Theory X and Theory Y: Mc

Answer 27

a. low b. moderate: CORRECT- because stress on these tasks depends more on effort than on uncontrollable factors. They prefer frequent, concrete feedback, and although their motivation does not depend on money, they view monetary rewards as a source of feedback and recognition. c. high d. a and b

Answer 28

a. Hygine (job context) factors: factors that satisfy lower-level needs (e.g., pay, benifits) and have little effect on job satisfaction/motivation but produse dissatisfaction when unfulfilled. b. motivator (job content) factors: factors that satisfy higher-level needs (e.g., responsibility, advancement, recognition, achievement) c. job enrichment: CORRECT- works best with younger, well-educated, employees, and employees wiht high nACH. Can elicit anxiety/frustration in employees with low nACH d. job enlargement: increasing the job's horizontal loading by increasing the number and variety of tasks. Can reduce boredome, but does not have a substantial impact on satisfaction and motivation.

Answer 29

a. Goal setting theory: employees are motivated to achieve goals they have consiously accepted and are, therefore, committed to. b. Equity theory: emphasizes the impact of social comparison on motivation and proposes that employees compare the ratio of their own inputs/outcomes to the input/outcomes of others who are performing similar jobs. c. Expectancy (VIE) theory: employee wil work hard if they a. believes that high effort will lead to successful task performance, b. believes that successful performance will lead to rewards, c. views the rewards as desirerable. d. Social cognitive theory (SCT): CORRECT

Answer 30

a. situation structure and leader's warmth b. situational favorableness and leader's warmth b. situation structure and leader's style d. Situational favorableness and leader's style- CORRECT

Answer 31

a. very unfavorable b. moderate c. very favorable d. A and C- Correct Low LPC leaders do best in situations provide them with either verry little or a great deal of influence. High LPC leaders are most effective in situations that allow moderate levels of influence.

Answer 32

a. Contingency Theory: leadership effectiveness is the result of an interaction between the leader's style and the favorableness of the situation. b. Cognitive Resource Theory: extension of contingency theory, and was developed (in part) to explain why the research has not found a strong relationship between a leader's intellectual ability and effectiveness. c. Situational Leadership- CORRECT d. Vroom-Yetton-Jago Normative (Decision-Making) model: focuses on a leader's decision-making style and distinguishes between five basic decision strategies that vary in terms of the degree to which employees participate in the decision making

Answer 33

a. telling leader: CORRECT b. selling leader: high task, high relationship style and is most effective for employees with low ability and high willingness c. participating leader: low task, high relationship and is most effective for employees with low willingness and high ability d. delegating: low task, low relationship and is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and willingness

Answer 34

a. telling leader: high task, low relationship style and is the most effective who are low in both willingness and ability b. selling leader: high task, high relationship style and is most effective for employees with low ability and high willingness c. participating leader: low task, high relationship and is most effective for employees with low willingness and high ability d. delegating: low task, low relationship and is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and willingness

Answer 35

a. group consensus increases b. 1-2 deserters are present**- CORRECT- even the presence of just one deserter can significantly lower conformity** c. norms are enforsed through close supervision d. group members are perceived as being highly credible and trustworthy

Answer 36

Groups that are _____________ tend to perform better on simple tasks that require quick action. a. homogeneous- CORRECT b. heterogeneous- better for more complex tasks and tasks that require more creativity and/or complementary skills and information c. both A and B d. none of the above

Answer 37

a. social loafing- one of th potential negative outcomes and occurs when an individual exerts less effort as a group member than they would have exerted if working alone. Most likely when members know their contributions will not be recognized or believe efforts do not depend on their efforts. b. social facillitation: Occurs when the mere presence of others increases task performance and is most likely to occur when the task is simple or well-learned. **c. social inhibition: CORRECT-occurs when the presence of others decreases performance and is more likely when the task is complex or new (unlearned)** d. group performance

Answer 38

a. Forming-group members become acquainted and attempt to establish "ground rules" b. Storming- characterized by conflict as group members resist the control of the group leaders. c. Norming- group members accept the group, establish ground rules and individual roles within the group, develop close relatinships with eachother, and begin to work together to achieve group goals. d. Performing- Correct

Answer 39

a. rational-economic**- CORRECT-** assumes that decision maker has complete information about all possible alternatives and is able to proccess the information in an accurate, unbiased way b. bounded rationality- poposes that limited capabilities, time and resources and other constraints force decision makers to be less than totally rational. As a result, decision makers often satisfice rather than optimize or maximize: they consider solutions as they become available and then select the first solution that meets the minimum criteria of acceptability c. administrative: same as bounded rationality d. optimization- not one of the terms

Answer 40

a. Group polarization: tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreem (conservative or risky) in the direction of the views initially heald by group members, than would have been generated by individual members alone. b. Brain storming: CORRECT c. Barganing: type of conflict resolution. Opposing sides in dispute exchange offers, counter offers, and concessions either dirrectly or through representatives d. Arbitration: type of conflict resolution. A mediator (who has more authority than in "mediation" controls both the process and outcome of conflict resolution. Types include: binding arbitration (two sides agree in advance to accept decision), boluntary (parties only agree to the process), conventional (arbitrator can choose any settlement solution), and final offer arbitration (arbitrator selects one of the final offers made by the disputants).

Answer 41

a. Unfreezing: occurs when the need for change is recognized and steps are taken to make members of the organization receptive to change. b. Driving- NOT one of the three steps. Lewin described "driving forces" as a force that promotes change c. Changing- CORRECT d. Refreezing- supporting the changes that have been made to help stabilize the organization at a new state of equilibrium

Answer 42

a. Quality of Work Life Programs: CORRECT b. Quality Circles-Small voluntary group of employees works together in a particular job and meet regularly to discuss job related problems and solutions. Representatives then present the solutions to management. c. Self-Managed Work Teams- autonomous work group whos members are trained to effectively perform group tasks. They function not just to make suggestions to managment, but to actually make decisions that were previously made by managers (e.g., hiring, budget). d. Process consultationDesigned to assist members of organization help themselves by improving their ability to perceive, understand, and alter the processes that are undermining their interactinos with one another.

Answer 43

a. Schemata: CORRECT-**For instance your schema for supervisor consists of knowledge that allows you to make judgments about your supervisor's current behavior and predict his/her future behaviors.** b. Prototypes: more abstract than schemata and consist of knowledge about the most representative or ideal example of a particular category of people, objects, or events. c. Scripts: AKA "event schemas" and provide knowledge about the appropriate sequence of behaviors in specific social situations. As an example, your script for "mental health clinic" informs you about how you should behave in that setting. d. Central traits: influence impressions more than others. A person may be described as "intelligent, skillful, industrious, warm, determined, practicul, and cautious" is more likely to be percieved more positively than a person described as "intelligent, skillful, industrious, cold, determined, practical, and cautious". This is because "warm" and "cold" are central traits that provide unique information, are associated with a large number of other characteristics, and, as a result, carry more weight than other attributes.

Answer 44

a. Fundamental attribution bias: occurs when we overestimate the role of dispositional factors (internal attributes) and underestimate the role of situational factors. b. Actor-observer-effect: were more likely to attribute our won behavior to situational factors. The tendency to make different attributions about our own behaviors and the behaviors of others is referred to as the actor-observer effect. c. Self-serving bias: tendency to blame external factors for our failures and take credit for our success. d. heuristics- CORRECT

Answer 45

a. Representativeness heuristic- CORRECT b. availability heuristic-Judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on how easy it is to retrieve information about the event from long-term memory. In other words, you'll predict that an event is more likely to occur if you're able to recall many examples of its occurance than if you're able to recall only one example. c. Simulation heuristic: using mental simulations of an event to determine the likelihood that the event will happen, (e.g., if you can asily imagine that the event will happen, your're more likely to predict that it will happen) d. Anchoring and adjusting heuristic; using an initial value (anchor) as the basis for making a judgment or estimate. For example, if the seller of an item at a flea market tells you that he usually sells the item for 10$ your offer will be closer to 10$ than it would if the seller said he usually sells the item for 7$

Answer 46

a. Base rate fallacy: tendency to rely on case specific information and ignore or under use base rate data when estimating the likelihood of an event or characteristic. for example, when participants in a research study were asked to estimate the liklihood that a hypothetical student will take an economics or history course and told the overall proportion of students in these courses is .30 and .70, respectively, than perticipants were more likely to rely on informatoin about the student's personality traits than on the base rate information. b. illusory correlation: belief that two characteristics, events or other variables are related when they actually are not. Similar to confirmation bias in terms of outcomes because it causes us to pay more attention to informatino that confirms our belief. c. false consensus effect: overestimating the degree to which beliefs, opinions, and behaviors of others are similar to our own as an example, college students who did or did not use drugs were asked to estimate drug use by their peers... students who used drugs provided significantly higher estimates of peer drug use. d. gambler's fallacy: CORRECT

Answer 47

a. Barnum effect: CORRECT b. Self-perception theory: when internal cues are insufficent or difficult to interpret, people tend to aquire information about themselves by observing their external cues/behaviors... epinephrine studies c. Overjustification hypothesis: predicts that when an external reward is given to a person for performan an intrinsically rewarding activity the person's intrinsic interest in the reward decreases. d. Self-verification theory: once a person's self concept is formed, the person seeks to maintain it by using cognitive/behavioral strategies that are designed to obtain informatino that is consistent with that self-concept.

Answer 48

a. Compliance; person changes behavior to obtain a reward or avoid punishment. It is public and does not involve a private change in opinions or attitudes. b. Identification: person changes behavior because they want to be liked or identified with another person. Behavior change reflects a private change in opinion or attitude, but change is maintained only as long as the person continues to like or admire the influencing agent. c. Obediance- Not one of the responses used by Kelman d. Internalization: occurs when the individual changes their behavior because they actually (privately) accepts the beliefs or attitudes of another person.

Answer 49

a. low b. moderate- correct as the communicator's credibility increases, a somewhat larger initial discrepancy is associated with the most attitude change. c. high d. low or high

Answer 50

a. lower levels of intelligence b. Individuals in their 60s- CORRECT c. Individuals in their 20s d. Individuals with high or low self-esteem

Answer 51

a. approach-approach: When you have to choose between two equally positive or attractive goals (e.g., two equally desierable jobs). Typically easiest to resolve. b. avoidance-avoidance: occurs when you must choose between two equally negative or unattractive goals (e.g., being laid off or accepting a lower-paid job in the company). difficult to resolve and can lead to indecision, inaction, or removing oneself from the situation. c. approach-avoidance: (aka single approach-avoidance) occurs when a single goal has both positive and negative qualities (e.g., deciding whether or not to accept a promotion that comes wiht an increase in salary but also increases job related stress). d. double approach-avoidance; Correct. Choosing between two goals that both have positive and negative qualities.

Answer 52

a. woldview emphasizes the interconnectedness of all things and as a result, they tend to emphasize group welfare over other needs. b. family is an extended kinship network that includes both nuclear and extended family members as well as individuals outside the biological family. Church is often an important part of extended family. c. Roles in family are flexible. Relationships between men and women tend to be egalitarian and adults and children may adopt multiple roles. **d. exhibit a holistic orientation to life that emphasizes harmany with nature. -CORRECT- more consistent with American Indians and Alaskan Natives.**

Answer 53

a. They consider listening more important than talking b. They exhibit a strong sense of cooperation and generosity c. They place greater emphasis on the individual than on the extended family- **incorrect. They place greater emphasis on the extended family than individual** d. they perceive time in terms of personal and seasonal rhythms rather than in terms of the clock or calendar and be more present-than future oriented

Answer 54

a. they place greater emphasis on group (family, community) than on individual b. they do not adhear to traditional gender roles- **correct they adhere to traditional gender roles and a hierarchical family structure.** c. they emphasize harmony, interdependence and mutual loyalty and oblagation in interpersonal relationships d. they value restraint of strong emotions that might otherwise disrupt peace and harmony and/or bring shame to the family

Answer 55

a. they view interdependence as both healthy and necessary and highly value connectedness and sharing b. consider discussing intimate personal details with strangers (e.g., therapists) as typical/common in their culture- **correct. They view discussing intimate personal details with strangers as highly unacceptable and believe that problems should be handled within the family or other natural support system.** c. adopt a concrete tangible approach to life (rather than abstract, long-term perspective) d. often attribute the control of life events to luck, supernatural forces, acts of god, or other external factors.

Answer 56

a. Emic: CORRECT b. Etic: phenomena that reflect a universal (culture-general) orientation. c. Worldview: how a person perceives their relationship to nature, other people, institutions, and so on d. Acculturation : degree to which a member of a culturally diverse group accepts and adheares to the values, attitudes, behaviors .... of their own group and the dominant (majority) group.

Answer 57

a. low-context-high context b. low-context-etic c. emic-etic d. etic-emic- **CORRECT**

Answer 58

a. high-contex- CORRECT b. medium-contex: NOT a term used c. low-contex: relies primarily on explicit, verbal part of a message. More unifying than high-context communication and can change rapidly and easily. d. general contex: Not a term used

Answer 59

a. involved system beating, system blaming, total avoidance of Whites and/or denial of the political significance of race. **internalized oppression** b. adoptina a White, Anglo-Saxon Protestant worldview and lifestyle-**correct (conceptual incarceration)** c. polarizing oneself into "good" and "bad" componets, with the bad componets representing one's Aferican American identity. -**split-self syndrome** d. person does not identify wiht their own culture or with dominant culture. - **Marginalization**

Answer 60

a. Person maintains their own (minority) culture but also incorporates many aspects of the dominant culture.-**Integration** b. The person accepts the majority culture while relinquishing their own culture-**CORRECT- Assimilation** c. person withdraws from the dominant culture and accepts their own culture**-separation** d. person does not identify with their own culture or with the dominant culture**-marginalization**

Answer 61

a. Mean- CORRECT b. Median c. Mode d. Multi-modal- Not a measure of central tendency

Answer 62

a. Mean b. Median c. Mode-correct d. Bi-modal- Not a measure of central tendency

Answer 63

a. decreases b. increases c. approaches a normal distribution---- CORRECT d. approaches the mean

Answer 64

a. Setting alpha b. one tailed test- CORRECT c. two tailed test- suggests null hypothesis is false, but an unspecified direction or outcome d. trend analysis

Answer 65

a. alpha increases- correct... but confidence that the researcher has about the decision already made to reject the Null decreases. b. alpha decreases c. beta increases d. beta decreases

Answer 66

Dr. K wants to find out if dog, cat, bird, fish and reptile owners differ with regard to personality type. She obtains a sample of 150 people who own only one of the five types of pets and determines each person's personality type using a scale that distinguishes between eight different types. What is the scale of measurement and what is the statistical test she will use? a. nominal, single-sample chi square test **b. nominal, multiple-sample chi-square test** **2 or more nominal variables. IV= personality and DV= pet ownership** c. ordinal data, wilcoxon matched pairs test d. ordinal data, mann whitnehy u-test

Answer 67

a. Intercultural nonparanoiac- (low functional paranoia, low cultural paranoia) a client in this category is willing to self-disclose to an African American or Anglo therapist. b. Functional paranoic: (high functional paranoia, low cultural paranoia) clients in this category are nondisclosive to both African American and Anglo therapists, and their nondisclosure is due primarily to pathology. c. Healthy cultural paranoiac: (low functional paranoia, high cultural paranoia) clients in this category self-disclose to an African American therapist but are reluctant to disclose to an Anglo therapist due to past experiences with racism and/or to the white therapist's attitudes and beliefs d. Confluent paranoiac-**correct** ( high functional paranoia, high cultural paranoia) A client in this category is nondisclosing to African American and Anglo therapists, wiht nondisclosure being due to a combination of pathology and the effects of racism.

Answer 68

a. low functional paranoia, low cultural paranoia-**Correct** b. high functional paranoia, high cultural paranoia- Confluent Paranoiac c. low functional paranoia, high cultural paranoia-healthy cultural paranoiac d. high functional paranoia, low cultural paranoia-functional paranoiac

Answer 69

a. Conformity: positive attitudes toward and a preference for dominant cultural values and depreciating attitudes toward and a preference for dominant cultural values and depreciating attitudes toward one's own culture. b. Disonance: marked by confusion and conflict over the contradictory appreciating and depreciating attitudes that one has toward the self and toward others of the same and different groups. c. Resistance/Imersion CORRECT d. Introspection: characterized by uncertainty about the rigidity of beliefs held in stage 3 and conflicts between loyalty and responsibility toward one's group and feelings of personal autonomy Integrative Awareness is stage 5: people experience a sense of self-fulfillment with regard to their cultural identity and have a strong desire to eliminate all forms of oppression.

Answer 70

a. Conformity- Prefers a therapist from the majority culture b. Dissonance-prefers therapist from minority culture c. Resistance/imersion-prefers therapist from the same racial/cultural group and is likely to precieve personal problems as result of opression d. Introspection- CORRECT Integrative Awareness- client places more weight on similarity in worldview, attitudes and beliefs than on ethnic, racial or cultural similarity.

Answer 71

a. Pre-encounter- race/rac. Individuals have adopted a mainstream identity and prefer a white therapist. b. Encounter-exposure to a single significant race-related event or series of events leads to greater racial/cultural awareness and an interest in developing a black identity. Individual prefers a therapist of the same race. c. Imersion-emersion- CORRECT d. Internalization: race has high salience, and individual adopts one of three identities: pro-black, non-racist 9afrocentric); a biculturaist orientation that integrates a black identity with a white or other salient cultural identity; or a multiculturalist orientation that integrates a black identity with two or more other salient cultural identities.

Answer 72

a. multiple regression- CORRECT- this is used for 2+ predictors and 1 continuous criterion b. canonical correlation c. discriminant function analysis d. path analysis

Answer 73

a. multiple regression b. canonical correlation- CORRECT- for 2+ predictors and 2+ continuous criteria c. discriminant function analysis d. path analysis

Answer 74

a. multiple regression b. canonical correlation c. discriminant function analysis- correct- used for 2+ predictors and 1 nominal riterion d. path analysis

Answer 75

a. Lisrel b. canonical correlation c. discriminant function analysis d. path analysis- CORRECT- type of causal (struactural equation) modeling

Answer 76

a. √((ss/(n-1))= Formula for standard deviation: the square root of the variance b. X=T=E= CORRECT c. rxy d. σ/√n =Standard error of the mean: standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size

Answer 77

a. situation is ambiguous b. situation is not complex- CORRECT it is greater when the situation is HIGHLY complex c. situation involves a problem that has no solutino d. group members must work together

Answer 78

a. job evaluation: Is conducted to clarify the requirements of the job b. comparable worth **c. job analysis- CORRECT** d. critical incident technique

Answer 79

a. Intelligence, experience b. Warmth, intellegence c. Experience, Intelligence- CORRECT d. Organization, Warmth Under low levels of stress, a leader's intelligence is more predictive of performance than experience, because in low stress situations a leader is able to apply their judgement, problem-solving skills, and other cognitive resources. Under high levels of stress, the opposite is true.