Quiz 1 Flashcards
Standard error of the mean?
A: variance
B: Standard deviation
C: Standard error of the mean
D: Mean
Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952:
a. confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders
b. confirmed the “dodo bird” hypothesis, which predicts that various types of treatment are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders
C. challenged the notion of “spontaneous remission”
d. challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions
- Eysenck’s 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which
found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches.
c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded
**d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in **
**psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did **
not receive therapy.
- A family therapist using Minuchin’s structural approach is most likely to be interested in
which of the following:
a. communication styles
b. transgenerational processes
c. boundaries
d. exceptions
- As its name implies, Minuchin’s structural family therapy focuses on the structural
characteristics of the family.
a. Incorrect Although communication patterns provide clues about family structure, this is not the best response of those given.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy.
**c. CORRECT Minuchin considered maladaptive behavior to be the result of overly rigid or permeable boundaries between family members. **
d. Incorrect Exceptions are of interest to solution-focused therapists.
- When an intervention involves changing oppressive sociocultural conditions in order to alleviate the cause of aperson’s distress, this intervention is:
a. emic
b. etic
c. alloplastic
d. autoplastic
3, A number of terms are used in the multiculturai counseling literature to describe different
aspects of this approach.
a. Incorrect Emic refers to a culture-specific approach that recognizes differences between
cultures.
b. Incorrect Etic refers to a universalistic approach that applies universal principles to all
cultures.
**c. CORRECT An alloplastic intervention alters environmental conditions that contribute to or **
**cause personal distress. **
d. Incorrect An autoplastic intervention attempts to change the individual to adapt to
environmental conditions.
- Bartlett Barmicide says he’s continued having hallucinations (‘flashbacks”) several months after he stopped using a drug. He also states that he realizes that this is probably due to the drug. Bartlett most likely used which of the following:
a. PCP
b. methamphetamine
c. cocaine
d. mescaline
- A number of drugs can cause Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder, which is characterized by prominent hallucinations and delusions. However, as defined in DSM, the onset of symptoms for this disorder is within one month after drug use and the individual does not
recognize that the symptoms are substance-induced.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
**d. CORRECT DSM-IV-TR includes Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder (Flashbacks). **
**This disorder involves re-experiencing perceptual disturbances reminiscent of those **
experienced during an earlier Hallucinogen Intoxication. Mescaline is a type of hallucinogen.
- Research investigating the relationship between ADHD and substance abuse has found
that:
a. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is not associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood
b. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood
c a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual was treated with stimulant drugs in childhood
d. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual had comorbid conduct symptoms
- A number of studies have confirmed that ADHD is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
**b. CORRECT ADHD with or without comorbidity is a risk factor for substance abuse in adulthood. See, e.g., J. Biederman et al., Does attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder impact the developmental course of drug and alcohol abuse and dependence?, Biological Psychiatry, 1998, 44, 269-273. **
c. Incorrect There is evidence that successful treatment with a stimulant drug actually has a protective effect with regard to the development of substance abuse. See, e.g., J. Biederman et al., Pharmacotherapy of attention-deficitkyperactivity disorder reduces the risk for substance use disorder, Pediatrics, 1999, 104, 20.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- A school psychologist is trying to determine why a fourth grade student with an above-average IQ is doing poorly in school. He talks to the student’s parents and teachers separately and then meets with them jointly to discuss similarities and dgerences in the boy’s behaviors at home and school. From the perspective of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, the psychologist is investigating which of the following:
a. microsystem and mesosystem
b. microsystem and exosystem
c. macrosystem and mesosystem
d, macrosystem and exosystem
- Bronfenbrenner’s model distinguishes between five interlocking contextual systems that
impact a child’s development.
**a. CORRECT The microsystem includes aspects of the child’s environment that affect him/her directly (e:g., school and home). The mesosystem refers to the interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., the interaction between home and school). **
b. Incorrect The exosystem includes factors that indirectly affect the child (e.g., the parents, workplaces and social networks).
c. Incorrect The macrosystem includes cultural values and customs, the economic system, etc.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.
- Erik Erikson coined the term:
a. adolescent storm and stress
b. adolescent identity crisis
c. midlife crisis
d, sandwich generation
- Erik Erikson is probably best known for his psychosocial theory of development. One of the stages of this model is “identity versus identity confusion.” which is characteristic of adolescents.
a. Incorrect Stanley Hall discussed the storm and stress of adolescence.
b. CORRECT Erikson was the first major theorist to introduce the notion of an adolescent identity crisis and is credited with coining the term.
c. Incorrect “Midlife crisis” was coined by the psychoanalyst Elliott Jacques in 1967.
d. Incorrect This term was not coined by Erikson.
- Children are most likely to be resilient (i.e., to “bounce back” from high-risk or traumatic events) when their parents are:
a. high in warmth, structure, and expectations
b. high in warmth and structure but low in expectations
c. moderate in warmth, structure, and expectations
d. moderate in warmth but low in structure and expectations
- Perhaps not surprisingly, authoritative parenting has been linked to greater resilience.
a. CORRECT Authoritative parenting is characterized by a hlgh degree of warmth, structure, and expectations. For a discussion of this issue, see A. S. Masten and D. J. Coatsworth, The development of competence in favorable and unfavorable environments, American Psychologist, 1998, 53(2), 205-220.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are
referred to as:
a. hypnotics
b. endorphins
c. pheromones
d. catecholamines
- Opiate receptors and substance P receptors are concentrated in the same areas of the brain. Opiate receptors play an important role in inhibiting the pain-producing effects of substance P.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b
**b. CORRECT The opioid peptides (which bind to opiate receptor sites) are also known as endorphins (endogeneous morphines). The endorphins produce analgesia, most likely by blocking the release of substance P. **
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- Which of the following drugs are most effective for individuals who have received a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder with Atypical Features:
a. MAOIs or SSRIs
b. MAOIs or tricyclics
C. SSRIs or tricyclics
d. tricyclics or neuroleptics
- The choice of the best antidepressant for a particular individual depends on several factors including the nature of hisker symptoms.
**a. CORRECT Atypical depression includes reversed vegetative symptoms (increase sleep and appetite), marked mood reactivity, phobic symptoms, andlor a sense of severe fatigue. The MAOIs and SSRIs have been found most effective for these symptoms. See, e.g., American Psychiatric Association’s Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Major Depressive **
**Disorder, **
b. Incorrect The response rate for tricyclics is 35 to 50%. while the response rate for MAOIs
and SSRIs is 55 to 75%.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- Cortisol is a steroid secreted by the:
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. pineal gland
d. pancreas
- Cortisol is one of several steroid hormones.
a. CORRECT The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. They are critical for many bodily functions including mediating the stress response and maintaining blood sugar levels, bodily fluids, and electrolytes.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- A first-grade student frequently misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacherhas him stand in the c orner for ten minutes. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy’s misbehavior is being maintained by:
a. habituation
b. satiation
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
- In this situation, the boy’s misbehavior is continuing because of the attention he receives
from his classmates when he misbehaves.
a. Incorrect Habituation occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness.
b. Incorrect Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness.
**c. CORRECT Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus that is applied following the behavior. In this situation, the boy’s misbehavior in class and in the corner is being maintained by the attention of his peers. **
d. Incorrect Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus
that is removed following the behavior.
- Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism’s relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. the law of effect
b. the matching law
c. Rescorla-Wagner theory
d. the Premack principle
- The research has supported the “common sense” conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses.
a. Incorrect Although the law of effect does make predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, this answer is not as good (precise) as response b.
b. CORRECT The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements.
c. Incorrect The Rescorla-Wagner theory applied to classical conditioning. It predicts that the amount of conditioning depends on how “surprising” (unexpected) the association between the CS and US is: The more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur.
d. Incorrect The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.
- Research on the serial positlon effect suggests, that when studying for a test, it is important to:
a. get a good night’s sleep before taking the test
b, engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test
c. give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session
d. give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session
- To answer this, you have to know that the serial position effect refers to the tendency to forget items in the middle of a list (versus the beginning and end of the list).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Studies on memory and forgetting have shown that people tend to remember
information presented in the beginning and, in some cases, end of a list better than that
presented in the middle. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student
should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of the study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- The two separate scores provided by the Mental Processing scale of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (K-ABCJ reflect theory of intelligence.
a. Spearman’s
b. Luria’s
c. Binet’s
d. Sternberg’s
- The Mental Processing Scale of the K-ABC provides scores on sequential and simultaneous processing.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Luria’s information processing model of intelligence distinguishes between sequential and simultaneous processing.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- A child with Autistic Disorder would be most likely to obtain a higher score than a “normal”peer on which of the following:
a. Embedded Figures Test
b. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
c. Tower of London Test
d. WISC-III comprehension subtest
- A number of tests have been found useful for evaluating the abilities of individuals with
Autistic Disorder.
a. CORRECT Children with autism often show superior performance on the Embedded Figures Test, which measures field dependence. field dependence’’ is particularly interesting, for current purposes. Field dependence measures the degree to which an observer has difficulty analyzing part of an organized field independently of the field.
b. Incorrect Autistic children tend to do poorly on this test.
c. Incorrect Autistic children also receive low scores on this test.
d. Incorrect On the WISC, autistic children tend to receive their lowest score on the
Comprehension subtest
- In the development of a job performance measure, the “ultimate” criterion is:
a. a criterion measure that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor
b. a criterion measure that is unaffected by measurement error
c. a construct that cannot actually be measured
d. the actual measure of the empirically-identified conceptual criterion
, 19. There are several terms related to “criteria” that you should be familiar with for the exam
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT An ultimate (conceptual) criterion is a construct that cannot be measured directly but, instead, is measured indirectly (e.g., “effective employee” would be the ultimate criterion, while “dollar amount of sales during a three-month period would be the actual criterion).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- When using the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection, a critical decision is:
a. the order in which the predictors will be administered
b. how each predictor should be weighted
c. whether or not the person administering the criterion should also evaluate predict01
performance
d. which statistical test to use to determine if results are statistically significant
- As its name implies, the multiple hurdles technique involves administering the predictors
one at a time.
a. CORRECT To maximize the usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique, predictors must
be administered in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for reponse a.
- When ratings on a criterion measure are biased by predictor performance or otherextraneous variable, this is referred to in the literature as:
a. criterion irrelevance
b. criterion unreliability
c. criterion contamination
d. criterion deficiency
2 1. Criterion contamination occurs when a criterion measure is “contaminated by an extraneous variable.
a. Incorrect Relevance refers to the measure’s significance in terms of the ultimate criterion.
b. Incorrect A criterion measure is unreliable when scores are affected to a large degree by
measurement error.
c. CORRECT Contamination often occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s predictor performance biases ratings on the criterion measure.
d. Incorrect A criterion is deficient when it does not measure important aspects of the
ultimate criterion.
- Lewin’s field theory predicts that:
a. human behavior is due more to physical than to psychological factors
b. a leader’s power is directly affected by the characteristics of the task and environment
c. human behavior is a function of both the person and their environment
d. a group can be no more effective than its least effective member
- Lewin is probably best known for his development of field theory.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to Lewin’s field theory, behavior is a function of the person and the
environment. He expressed this relationship with the following formula: B = f(P, E).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- Hostile masculinity and promiscuous-impersonal sex are central concepts in:
a. Malamuth’s confluence theory
b. Doliard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis
C. Plutchik and Kellerman’s circumplex modei
d. Walker’s “cycle of violence”
- These two concepts have been linked by Malamuth to sexual aggression
a. CORRECT According to Malamuth’s confluence model (formerly the interaction model), sexual aggression is the result of the convergence of two major constellations or paths - the hostile masculinity path and the promiscuous-impersonal sex path. See N. Malamuth et al.. Predicting men’s antisocial behavior against women: The interaction model of sexual aggression, in G. N. Hall et al. (eds.), Sexual Aggression: Issues in Etiology, Assessment,
and Treatment, Washington, DC, Hemisphere, 1993.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
- Studies looking at the impact of gender on reactions to crowding have found that:
a. women cope with crowding better than men do in both laboratory and residential
settings
b. men cope with crowding better than women do in both laboratory and residential settings
c, women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings
d. men cope with crowding better than women do in laboratory settings but women cope with crowding better in residential settings
- Studies on the relationship between gender and the effects of crowding have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT A review of the research indicates that the inconsistencies are due largely to the setting in which the research was conducted. Women tend to respond better than men in crowded laboratory (experimental) situations, while men do better in naturalistic settings.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- A researcher wants to compare the immediate and long-term effects of three duerent
treatments for PTSD. Consequently, she randomly assigns individuals who were recently
exposed to the same trauma to either the EMDR, stress inoculation, or in uiuo exposure
group and then assesses their symptoms one week, one month, and three months after the
end of treatment. The researcher is using which of the following research designs:
a. between groups
b. within subjects
c. counterbalanced
d. mixed
- To answer this question correctly, you have to recognize that this study includes two
independent variables and that one variable is a between-groups variable (type of treatment)
while the other is a within-subjects variable (time).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A design is referred to as “mixed when it involves at least one between-groups
variable and one within-subjects variable.
- Which of the following techniques would be most useful for investigating aperson’s cognitive processes while working on a complex task:
a. production interview
b. protocol analysis
c. behavioral systems assessment
d. event coding
- To investigate how a person is thinking about a problem, you would want to have himher “think aloud while solving the problem.
a. Incorrect This technique, which is also called behamoral coding, is used to identify problems with surveys and questionnaires in order to revise them.
b. CORRECT Protocol analysis involves having the individual think aloud while solving a problem and then evaluating the protocol (transcript) to clarify the individual’s problem-solving process.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- The internal consistency of test items can be assessed with which of the followng.
a. kappa statistic
b. split-half reliability
c, alternate forms reliability
d. coefficient of stability
- Internal consistency (homogeneity of test items) is used as an index of reliability
a. Incorrect The kappa statistic is used to measure inter-rater reliability.
b. CORRECT Split-half reliability is a type of internal consistency reliability and provides information on the consistency of items in two halves of the test.
c. Incorrect Alternative forms reliability provides information on the equivalence of items contained in two different forms of the test.
d. Incorrect The coefficient of stability (test-retest reliability coefficient) provides information
of the consistency of a test over time.
- A high school student obtains an exam score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean. The distribution of scores is “normal.” Based on this information, you can conclude that the examinee’s score is:
a. equivalent to a T score between 70 and 80
b. between a z-score of + 1.0 and +2.0
c. at the 95& percentile or lower
d. between a stanine score of 2 and 3
- When a distribution of scores is normal, it is possible to draw conclusions about the
percent of scores that fall within specific limits (e.g., between the second and third standard
deviation from the mean).
a. CORRECT T-scores have a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. Therefore, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a T-score between 70 and 80.
b. Incorrect Z-scores have a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1.0. Therefore, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a z-score between 2.0 and 3.0.
c. Incorrect In a normal distribution, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank between approldmately 97.5 and 99.5.
d. Incorrect Stanine scores range from 1 to 9, and a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a stanine score of 8.
- Dr. Callow is a licensed psychologist who has recently been hired by a mental health clnic. Several of his new patients are members of a culturally-diverse group that he has not worked with before. His training, however, is appropriate for the services he will provide. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Callow should:
a, refuse to work with these patients
b. take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course
c. obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group
d. see ihe patients and seek consultation only if he experiences any problems during the course of therapy
- Several Standards of the Ethics Code apply to this situation. For example, Standard 1.08 of the Code states that when differences in race or ethnicity might affect a psychologist’s ability to work, he/she obtains “the training, experience, consultation, or supervision necessary to ensure the competence of … [hisher] services.”
a. Incorrect Since it appears that expertise in working with members of this culturally-diverse group is important for his position at the mental health clinic, it would be better for Dr. Callow to gain that expertise.
b. Incorrect Taking a course does not seem to be sufficient in this situation.
c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one seems to represent the most ethical course of action. It is consistent with the requirements of Standard 1.04(b), which states that “Psychologists provide services … in new areas or involving new techniques only after first undertaking appropriate study, training, supervisiotl, and/or consultation from persons who are competent in those areas or techniques.” Even though he has had no prior experience with
members of this group, consultation would be the best course of action for Dr. Callow because he is competent to provide the type of treatment.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. It would be better for Dr. Callow to seek consultation prior to treating these populations, and not “only” if a problem arises.
- Helms’ interaction model of counseling proposes that, when counselor and client race and racial identity are considered, four types of relationships are possible. For example. for a white counselor and black client, a “crossed relationship” occurs when:
a. the counselor and client share similar racial attitudes about whites and blacks
b. the counselor and client have opposing racial attitudes about whites and blacks
c. the counselor’s stage of racial identity is at least one stage more advanced than the client’s stage
d. the counselor’s stage of racial identity is at least one stage less advanced than the client’s stage
- Helms distinguishes between parallel, crossed, progressive, and regressive relationships.
a. Incorrect This describes a parallel relationship.
b. CORRECT This describes a crossed relationship. A crossed relationship is associated with the worst outcomes.
c. Incorrect This describes a progressive relationship.
d. Incorrect This describes a regressive relationship
- Penny Pallid is an Anglo-American teacher and Cameron Chroma, her student, is African-American. According to Helms’ interaction model, Ms. Pallid will be LEAST effective in teaching Cameron she is in the____ stage of racial identity development and Cameron is in the ______stage.
a. reintegration; pre-encounter
b. pseudo-independent; pre-encounter
c. reintegration; immersion
d. pseudo-independent; encounter
3 1. This question is asking about Helms’ proposal that outcomes in clinical and other
relationships are affected by the stage of racial identity development of each participant. See J.
Helms. Applying the interaction model to social dyads, in J. Helms (ed.), Black and White
Racial Identity: Theory, Research and Practice, New York, Greenwood Press, 1990.
a. Incorrect As defined by Helms, this is an example of a parallel relationship and is likely to result in a stable, harmonious interaction.
b. Incorrect This is an example of a progressive relationship. It provides the greatest opportunity for growth for the student.
c. CORRECT This is an example of a crossed relationship. It is the most conflicted type and
is characterized by disharmony, fear, and “warfare.” It is least likely to promote the student’s growth.
d. Incorrect This is another example of a progressive relationship.
- According to the Cross model of Nigrescence, an African-American in the stage begins to develop a nonstereotypic African-American perspective.
a. immersion
b. emersion
c. redefinition
d. commitment
- Cross’ model distinguishes between five stages of identity development: Preencounter,
encounter, immersion-emersion, internalization, and internalization-commitment.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Emersion is the second phase of the immersion-emersion stage and is characterized by an ability to see both the strengths and weaknesses of African-American culture.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response h.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- Although stuttering in children is often dijficult to treat, there is some evidence that
a. stress inoculation
b. covert sensitization
c. regulated breathing
is the most effective approach.
d. dialectical behavior therapy
- Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for people who stutter
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined with awareness training and social support and, in this format, is referred to as “habit reversal.”
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- One approach to distinguishing between depression and anxiety involves considering
three dimensions of emotion - negative affect, positive affect, and autonomic arousal.
From this perspective, compared to depression, anxiety involves:
a. a similar level of negahve affect and autonomic arousal but a higher level of positive
affect
b. a similar level of negative affect but a higher level of both autonomic arousal and
positive affect
c. a lower level of negative affect, a similar level of autonomic arousal, and a higher level
of positive affect
d. a similar level of both negative and positive affect but a higher level of autonomic
arousal
- Considering the characteristics of depression and anxiety might have helped you choose
the correct response to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is the difference reported by L. A. Clark et al., Temperament, personality,
and the mood and anxiety disorders, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 1994, 103, 92-102.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response h.
- On a measure that assesses the “Big Five”persona1ity factors, a high score on neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a low score on conscientiousness are most likely to be obtained by a person with Personality Disorder.
a. Obsessive-Compulsive
b. Narcissistic
c. Schizoid
d. Antisocial
- The match between the Big Five personality traits and DSM’s personality disorders is summarized in T. Widiger et al., A description of the DSM-111-R and DSM-IV personality disorders with the five-factor model of personality, in P. T. Costa and T. A. Widiger [eds.),
Personality Disorders and the Five-Factor Model of Personality, Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 1994.
a. Incorrect A person with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is likely to obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on some aspects of agreeableness, and
a high score on conscientiousness.
b. Incorrect A person with Narcissistic Personality Disorder would obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a high score on some aspects of conscientiousness.
c. Incorrect A person with Schizoid Personality Disorder would obtain a low score on some aspects of neuroticism, a high score on one aspect of agreeableness (compliance), and a low
score on one aspect of conscientiousness (achievement striving).
d. CORRECT This is the pattern reported by T. Widiger et. a1 for individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder.
- Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word “cup” and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as:
a, underextension
b. overextension
c. overregularization
d. expansion
- Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak.
a. Incorrect Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using “dog” to refer only to the family dog).
b. CORRECT As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider
collection of objects or events than is appropriate.
c. Incorrect Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding “s” to “feet”).
d. Incorrect Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.
- Which of the following represents a phoneme:
a. “c”
b. “ing”
C. “mama”
d. “mom”
- A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language.
a. CORRECT English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or
combined with others can represent more than one sound.
b. Incorrect This is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning).
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above
- Harvey’s (1 999) re-analysis of the 1994 National Longitudinal Survey of Youth (NLSYJ data found that, in terms of future effects, maternal employment during the first three years ofa child’s life is most likely to have:
a. a significant and long-term negative impact on the child’s emotional, cognitive, and behavioral functioning
b. a small negative impact on the child’s cognitive functioning but no consistent impact on emotional or behavioral development
c. a small negative impact on the child’s emotional and behavioral functioning but no
consistent impact on cognitive development
d. a significant negative impact on the child’s behavioral functioning but no consistent
impact on cognitive and emotional development
- This question is referring to Elizabeth Harvey’s re-analysis of the NLSY data, which
involved remedying some of the methodological problems of the previously-published study [Short- and long-term effects of early parental employment on children of the National
Longitudinal Survey of Youth, Developmental Psychology, 1999, 35(2), 448-4591.
a. Incorrect See explanation for res’ponse b.
b. CORRECT Harvey concludes that the data reveal no consistent effects on compliance or
self-esteem but small, usually short-term effects on measures of academic achievement.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- People with Korsakoff syndrome exhibit anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Research investigating the location of brain damage underlying these
symptoms suggests that which area is most affected:
a. temporal lobes
b. hippocampus
c. mammillary bodies
d. basal ganglia
- Memory loss has been linked to damage to a number of brain structures, with the
particular structures affected being related to the cause of the memory loss.
a. Incorrect There is evidence that the temporal lobes and hippocampus are relatively normal I
in individuals with Korsakoffs syndrome (although they are very often affected in other forms
of amnesia). See, e.g., W. Mair et al., Memory disorder in Korsakoffs psychosis, Brain, 1979,
102, 749-783.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. CORRECT The mammillary bodies are part of the diencephalon, which also consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and parts of the limbic system. Mair et al. found evidence of substantial disease in the mammillary bodies and some damage to the thalamus in patients
with Korsakoffs disease.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- There is now evidence that nicotine enhances alertness and memory by mimicking
a. endorphins
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
at nicotinic receptor sites.
- Knowing that nicotinic receptors are a type of acetylcholine receptor would have helped
you choose the correct response to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT There is evidence that the nicotine in tobacco exerts
and behavior by binding to nicotinic receptors in the brain.
- was introduced in the 1970s as a method for measuring regional cerebral bloodflow using radioactive isotopes.
a. MRI
b. CT
c. SPECT
d. SHEFC
- Several brain imaging techniques are available. Some provide information on brain
structure, while others yield information on brain functioning (e.g., regional cerebral blood
flow) .
a. Incorrect MRI is a structural brain imaging technique.
b. Incorrect CT is also a structural technique.
c. CORRECT SPECT (single proton emission computed tomography) is used to assess
regional cerebral blood flow.
d. Incorrect This “distractor” is the name of a brain imaging research center in Scotland
- According to Aaron Beck’s theory of depression, in response to a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to manafest an:
a. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
b. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility
c. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility
d. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
- Beck proposes that depressed people tend to exhibit certain types of cognitive distortions.
a. CORRECT When faced with a negative event, a depressed individual is likely to exhibit a
“control fallacy” (view himherself as a hapless victim of fate) and personalization (“if anything
goes wrong, it’s my fault”). This paradox (an external locus of control and internal locus of
responsibility) is one of the reasoning errors that contribute to depression.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
’ d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- As defined by Aaron Beck, overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing are:
a. the “cognitive triad
b. cognitive distortions
c. cognitive schemata
d. automatic thoughts
- Aaron Beck describes several cognitive phenomena that contribute to depression, andety,
and other disorders.
a. Incorrect The cognitive triad refers specifically to the cognitive profile underlying depression (i.e., negative views of oneself, the world, and the future).
b. CORRECT The cognitive distortions (errors in reasoning) identified by Beck include overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing.
c. Incorrect Schemata are ways of organizing and interpreting experiences that develop in
early childhood and may be latent until later in life when they are activated by stress.
d. Incorrect Automatic thoughts are repetitive, automatic self-statements that are elicited by certain stimuli and that are associated with strong emotions.
- All of the following are categorized as operant methods for reducing or eliminating undesirable behaviors except:
a. extinction
b. response cost
c. negative reinforcement
d. D.R.O.
- All of the techniques listed in the responses - except one - are used to decrease or
eliminate a behavior.
a. Incorrect Extinction is used to eliminate a previously reinforced behavior.
b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to decrease behavior.
c. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior. It involves removing a stimulus followng the behavior in order to increase that behavior.
d. Incorrect D.R 0. (differential reinforcement for other behavior) is undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors.
- Zajonc’s confluence model predicts that children’s intellectual growth can be either enhanced or hindered by their immediate family circumstances. Specifically, ZaJonc considers____ to be a critical factor in intellectual development.
a. birth order
b. parental marital status
c, parenting style
d. culture
- Zajonc argues that intellectual development is influenced by the intellectual environment
of the home, especially as it relates to family configuration.
a. CORRECT ZaJonc’s confluence theory predicts that children born earlier (e.g., firstborns) tend to do slightly better on academic tests than their younger siblings.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
- Holland’s Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for ajob involving:
a. physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities
b. scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks
c. activities that require attention to detail and good organization skills
d. tasks that require business, management, or sales skills
- Holland’s scale distinguishes between five occupational themes (“RJASEC”): realistic.
investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.
a. CORRECT People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of
tasks.
b. Incorrect These tasks fit the investigative type.
c. Incorrect These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the
conventional scale.
d. Incorrect These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the
enterprising scale.
- The Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities is based on:
a. Spearman’s notion of general intelligence
b. Luria’s distinction between simultaneous and sequential processing
c. the Cattell-Horn-Carroli approach to cognitive abilities
d. Sternberg’s model of “successful intelligence”
- The WJ 111 combines two approaches to cognitive abilities.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The WJ III is based on Horn and Cattell’s distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence and Carroll’s three-stratum theory, which distinguishes between I general intellectual ability (Stratum III), eight general factors (Stratum II), and a number of I
specific factors that are grouped under the general factors (Stratum I).
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety:
a. Herbert Simon
b. Edgar Schein
c. Leon Festinger
d. Geert Hofstede
- Knowing that Edgar Schein has written extensively on organizational culture would have
helped you choose the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (19921, Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an organization’s culture as cognitive defense mechanisms.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need informationabout which of the following:
a. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate
b. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio
c, base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient
d. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff
- The Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a predictor’s “positive hit rate.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT To find an estimated hit rate using these tables, it is necessary to have three pieces of information: the base rate, the selection ratio, and the predictor’s validity coefficient.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- In addition to identifying “bounded rationality” as a impediment to rationaldecision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on:
a. artificial intelligence
b. job burnout
c. groupthink
d. organizational culture
- Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his work on individual
decision-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of artificial intelligence.
a. CORRECT Simon believed there are two main goals in using and studying computers: ( 1) to augment human intelligence and (2) to help understand how humans think.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- R. Martin (1978) proposed that which of the following bases of social power are most important for the success of mental health consultation:
a. referent and informational
b. legitimate and expert
c. legitimate and informational
d. expert and referent
- Unfortunately, to answer this question, you have to be familiar with some fairly “old”
research.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
d. CO-CT R. Martin proposes that expert and referent power are most important for consultation success [Expert and referent power: A framework for understanding and
maximizing consultation effectiveness, Journal of School Psychology, 1978, 16( 11, 49-55], Note, however, that his position has been disputed - W. Erchul and B. Raven contend that all five bases of social power are important [School power in school consultation: A contemporary review of French and Raven’s bases of power model, Journal of School Psychology, 1997, 35(2), 137-1711.
- According to “consistency paradox,” while most people view behavior as being relatively stable over differerent situations, the empirical research has found it to be quite variable.
a. Solomon Asch’s
b. Stanley Milgram’s
c. Albert Bandura’s
d. Walter Mischel’s
- The consistency paradox is an often-cited theory in literature on the relationship between personality and behavior.
a, Incorrect Solomon Asch is probably best known for his studies on conformity.
b. Incorrect Stanley Milgram conducted the now-famous study on obedience to authority.
c. Incorrect Albert Bandura is associated with social learning theory and research on
self-efficacy.
d. CORRECT The most recent version of Mischel’s theory views apparent inconsistencies in behavior across situations as the result of an interaction between relatively stable personality
dispositions, cognitive-affective processes, and situational characteristics.
- Professor Sharp argues against raising the legal drinking age from 18 to 21 on the ground that doing so will only encourage 18-, 19-, and 20-year olds to drink. Apparently, Sharp is familiar with which of the following theories:
a. individuation
b. psychological reactance
c. inoculation
d. expectancy-value
- Professor Sharp is contending that people will do the opposite of what they are legally
required to do.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Sharp’s argument is most consistent with the predictions of psychological reactance theory, which proposes that, when people feel their freedom is being threatened, they
will do something to restore that freedom (e.g., engage in the legally-prohibited behavior).
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- “Sampling error” is due to:
a. the unreliability of the test
b. the invalidity of the test
c. random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample
d. non-random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample
- Whenever a sample is drawn from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT As the result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not “mirror” the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- In a research study investigating the possible genetic transmission of ADHD, the “proband” is:
a. the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD
b. a biological parent of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD
c. a non-affected biological sibling of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD
d. a member of the control group who has been matched to the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD
- The proband in research study is also known as the index case.
a. CORRECT The affected individual who is of immediate concern or who was initially
identified because of hisker disorder is referred to as the proband.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
- In terms of item response theory, the slope (steepness) of the item response curve indicates the item’s:
a. difficulty
b. discriminability
c. reliability
d, validity
- The item response curve provides three pieces of information about an item - i.e.. its difficulty, ability to discriminate between those who are high and low on the characteristic being measured, and the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing.
a. Incorrect The position of the curve indicates its difficulty level.
b. CORRECT The steeper the slope of the item response curve, the better its ability to discriminate between examinees who are high and low on the characteristic being measured.
c. Incorrect Reliability is not indicated by the item response curve
d. Incorrect Validity is not indicated by the item response curve.
- Dr. Strait is invited to a holiday party at a fellow psychologist’s house. While there, he notices that one of the guests is a current therapy client of the psychologist. Dr. Strait’s best course of action would be to:
a. leave the party in protest
b. contact the ethics committee as soon as possible
c, discuss the issue with the psychologist immediately
d, discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time
- The information provided in the question sugests that the psychoIogist is engaging in a
dual relationship with a client.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Also note that Dr. Strait would have to obtain permission from the client before revealing hisher name to the Ethics Committee, which also
makes this a less desirable answer than response d.)
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Standard 8.0 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to take action when
they believe another psychologist has acted unelhically. Based on the information given in the
question, this would be the best course of action - i.e., Dr. Strait should discuss the matter
with the psycholog~st to determine the circumstances (e.g., the client may have come to the
party without an invitation).
- A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations
frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely:
a. reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to
her rather than to each other
b. instruct the couple to take a ten-minute “time-out” whenever they begin to argue at
home
c. ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an
extended period without arguing
d. ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing
- As its name implies, solution-focused therapists focus on solutions rather than problems.
a. Incorrect This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt
b. Incorrect This isn’t characteristic of the solution-focused approach.
c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use “exceptions” to help identify solutions to a
client’s problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less
intense form.
d. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this approach.
- Motivational interviewing combines the transtheoretical model of change with:
a. psychoanalytic concepts
b. reality therapy
c. a behavioral approach
d. a client-centered approach
- As its name implies, motivational interviewing focuses on a client’s motivation to change
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Motivational interviewing is especially useful for individuals in the
precontemplation and contemplation stages (the first two stages proposed by the
transtheoretical model of change). It adopts a client-centered approach (e.g., emphasizes the
importance of empathy).
- The first use of meta-analysis in the area of psychology is attributed to:
a. Flynn
b. Eysenck
c. Smith and Glass
d. Horn and Cattell
- Meta-analysis was originally used by Karl Pearson in 1904 to evaluate the extent to which
smallpox inoculation increased survival rates. At that time, the technique was not known as
“meta-analysis.”
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c,
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT It was not until the 1970s that the term “meta-analysis” was introduced by
Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psychological
research (specifically, psychotherapy outcome studies). See M. L. Smith and G. V. Glass,
Meta-analysis of psychotherapy outcome studies, American Psychologist. 1977, 32. 752-760.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- Which of the following is true about the dgerence between Obsessive-Compulsive
Personality Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCDI:
a. obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder are less
severe than those in OCD but began in early adulthood and are present in a variety of
contexts
b. obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not in
OCDI are experienced by the individual as ego-syntonic
c. the diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not OCD) requires
the presence of obsessions and compulsions prior to age 21
d. the diagnosis of OCD (but not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder) requires
the presence of obsessions andlor compulsions
6 1. The name “Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder” is misleading because the
disorder is NOT characterized by obsessions or compulsions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
d. CORRECT Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation
with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The diagnosis does not require the presence of
obsessions and/or compulsions.
- About 10 to 15% of new mothers develop postpartum major depression in the first few
days or weeks following delivery. In addition, - of new mothers exhibit “‘postpartum
blues,” a less severe condition that involves mood swings and sleep disturbances.
a. 15 to 30%
b. 25 to 40%
c. 35 to 60%
d. 50 to 80%
- The reported rates for post-partum blues and depression vary in the literature. However,
most authorities agree that the majority of new mothers do experience some degree of
post-partum blues.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
d. CORRECT This is the range reported by many experts. See, e.g., M. L. Moline et al.,
Postpartum depression: A guide for patients and families, www.psychguides.com.
- According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the
development of reversibility:
a. self-awareness
b. meta-cognition
c. symbolism
d. hypothetico-deductive reasoning
- Piaget argued that symbolism - and in particular language - is critical for reversibility and
conservation.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT In Logical Operations and Social Life, Piaget states “complete reversibility
presupposes symbolism” [cited in L. Smith (ed.), Sociological Studies. London, Routledge,
19951.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of
children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:.
a. modified by the offspring’s temperament
b. modified by the family’s ethnicitylculture
c. modified by level of parental education
d. not affected by temperament, ethnicitylculture, or parental education
- A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes
for children and adolescents.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified
by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative
style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian-
African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in
adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 1992, 47(6),
723-7291.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
- Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have developed a model to explain the origins of
adolescent delinquency. Their approach is most consistent with which of the following:
a. object relations theory
b. social learning theory
c. cognitive developmental theory
d. social comparison theory
- Accordmg to Patterson and his colleagues, adolescent delinquency is traceable to unskilled
and inefficient childrearing by the child’s parents, high levels of punishment, and a tendency to
react to a child’s negative actions in kind.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Patterson’s model is consistent with a social learning approach he., it
emphasizes the impact of modelin~imitation and reinforcement). For a review see, R. G.
Geen, Aggression and antisocial behavior, in D. T. Gilbert et al. (eds.), The Handbook of
Social Psychology, Volume 2, Boston, McGraw-Hal, 1998.
c. Incorrect Seeexplanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b
- A handwriting disability that is characterized by dfficulties in learning to write, and
writing that is accurate but painstakingly slow or of poor quality is referred to as:
a. motor agraphia
b. dysgraphia
c. pure alexia
d: dyslexia
- This is a difficult question because the terms “agraphia” and “dysgraphia” are often used
interchangeably in the literature.
a. Incorrect Motor agraphia is a specific type of agraphia (inability to write) that is due to
brain damage that affects motor (expressive) functioning.
b. CORRECT Some experts use the term dysgraphia to describe an inability to write that is
not due to motor impairment (see., e.g.. Renee M. Newman, Dysgraphia: Causes and
Treatment, http://www.dyscalcuIia.org/Edu563.htmi).
’ c. lncorrect Pure alexia refers to “word blindness.”
d. Incorrect Dyslexia is also defined differently by different experts. According to one
definition, it is “a neurologically-based, often familial, disorder which interferes with the
acquisition and processing of language” ((www.ldteens.org/Dyslexia-Defin.html). Although
dyslexia can cause problems related to handwriting, it is not limited to th~s type of impairment.
Consequently, this is not the best answer of those given.
- Research by Walter Kaye and others suggests that Anorexia Nervosa is associated with
higher-than-normal levels of:
a, serotonin
b. acetylcholine
c. dopamine
d. glutamate
- Kaye, a psychiatrist at the University of Pittsburgh School of Medicine, has found that
anorexia is related to an overabundance of serotonin in the brain.
a. CORRECT Kaye proposes that high levels of serotonin cause anxiety and that starvation
reduces tryptophan, which then reduces brain levels of serotonin and temporarily relieves
anxiety. See, e.g., W Kay et al.. Serotonin nenronal function and selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors in anorexia and bulimia, Biological Psychiatry, 1998, 44(9), 825-838.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See.explanation for response a
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
- Brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to decreased metabolic activity in the
a. left temporal
b, left parietal
c. right frontal
d. right occipital
lobe and the basal ganglia.
- Functional and structural brain imaging techniques have linked several areas of the brain
to impairments associated with ADHD.
a. Incorrect See explanation below.
b. Incorrect There is some evidence that the RIGHT parietal lobe is involved in ADHD (but not
the left lobe).
c. CORRECT The right frontal lobe (especially the prefrontal cortex) and the caudate nucleus
and globus pallidus (structures of the basal ganglia) tend to be smdler in individuals with
ADHD and to have lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity. See, e.g., C. Aman, ADHD,
Developmental Psychology, 1998, 34, 956-969.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- A number of investigators have studied learning processes in non-human animals.
Which of the following does not accurately pair an investigator with the aspect of learning
he studied:
a. Tolmanjcognitive maps
b. Kohlerlthe “aha” experience
c. Thorndikelreinforcement
d. Kandelltaste aversion learning
- This question is a simple one as long as you are familiar with the names listed in the
responses.
a. Incorrect Based on his study of spatial learning in rats, Tolman concluded that they form
cognitive maps.
b. Incorrect Kohler’s studies with chimpanzees provided evidence of insight learning in these
animals.
c. Incorrect Thorndike found that the behavior of cats in puzzle boxes was influenced by the
consequences of that behavior, and spccifically that “satisfying consequences” (reinforcement)
increased the probability that a behavior would occur again.
d. CORRECT Kandel studied neural mechanisms underlying associative and nonassociative
learning in Aplysia (sea slug).
- According to M. Seligman, when aperson with an optimistic attribution style does
poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, thatperson will most likely say:
a. I didn’t study hard enough
b. I was unlucky
c. The teacher gave a very hard test this time
d. The teacher always grades on the curve
- According to Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people
are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people.
a. Incorrect This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman’s theory.
b. Incorrect This isn’t as good of a response as response c.
c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligrnan’s theory, which
, negative events. I
proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and temporary attributions for
d. Incorrect This is a global (rather than specific) attribution
- Research on age-related changes in cognitive abilities suggests that normal aging is
LEAST likely to have a negative impact on which of the following:
a. working memory
b. cued recall
c, free recall
d. picture recognition
- A number of theories have been proposed to explain how aging impacts cognitive abilities.
One theory states that aging has the greatest impact on tasks involving a high processing
demand.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
d. CORRECT Of the memory abilities listed in the responses, picture recognition has the
lowest processing demand and has been found to show little, if any, age-related cognitive
decline. See, e.g., D. C. Park, Mediators of long-term memory performance across the lifespan,
Psychology and Aging, 1996, 11(4), 621-637.
- The effect demonstrates that the automaticity of reading interferes with color
naming.
a. Ponzo
b. Pulfrich
c. Stroop
d. Zeigarnik
- This question is somewhat incomprehensible but a glance at the responses may have
helped you recognize what it is referring to.
a. Incorrect The Ponzo effect (or illusion) is the result of the way our eyes judge distance and
size. It is used to explain why the moon seems larger at the horizon.
b. Incorrect The Pulfrich effect is another illusion that’s too complicated to explain here (see
http: //dogfeathers.com/javalpulfrich.html for an explanation). [It won’t ever be the correct
answer to a licensing exam question!)
c. CORRECT If you are familiar with the Stroop Test (described in the Psychological
Assessment section), you know that it provides the examinee with a list of color names that are
printed in different colors (e.g., “green” might be printed in red) and requires the examinee to
say the color of the print. There are many explanations for why people have trouble doing this
- one is that reading automaticity (the natural tendency to read the word) interferes with the
ability to name the color of the print.
d. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect predicts that people remember unfinished tasks better than
finished ones.
- Which of the following would be LEAST useful for identifying frontal lobe damage
resulting from a closed head injury:
a. WAIS-111 Verbal-Performance discrepancy
b. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
c. EEG
d. Halstead Category Test
- A number of measures are used to evaluate the consequences of frontal lobe damage
a. CORRECT Frontal lobe lesions are unlikely to produce a significant Verbal-Performance
discrepancy. Consequently, of the measures listed, a V-P discrepancy would be least useful for
identifying the impact of damage to this region. See, e.g., G. Groth-Marnat, Handbook of
Psychological Assessment (3rd Edition), New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999.
b. Incorrect The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is a good measure of frontal lobe (executive)
functioning.
c. Incorrect An EEG can provide information about frontal lobe functioning, especially about
seizure activity.
- A psychologist would use the Sickness Impact Profile to:
a. assess a patient’s psychosocial and physical functioning related to pain or other illness
b. evaluate the impact of environmental conditions on a patient’s physical health
c. determine the costs of employee illness on her clinical practice
d. measure a patient’s emotional reactions to a chronic illness
- The name of the instrument - Sickness Impact Profile - should have helped you identify
the correct response to this question.
a. CORRECT The SIP consists of 136 items that assess the impact of illness on an
individual’s psychosocial and physical functioning in terms of 12 daily activities (e.g., eating,
work. recreation).
b. Incorrect The SIP is not used for this purpose.
c. Incorrect This SIP is not used for this purpose.
d. Incorrect The SIP is a behaviorally-based instrument and does not assess emotional or
other subjective reactions to illness.
- Tiedeman and O’Hara’s (1 9631 model of career development emphasizes which of the
following:
a, basic interests
b. basic instinctual needs
c. personal identity
d. locus of control
- Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the
acquisition of a personal vocational identity.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity
involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining
individuality and uniqueness].
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
- “Criterion deficiency” is most likely to result in:
a. high validity
b. low validity
c. high reliability
d. low reliability
- Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all
aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b,
b. CORRECT A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i:’e., it can give
consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b
7. “Criterion deficiency” is most likely to result in:
a. high validity
b. low validity
c. high reliability
d. low reliability
- An organizational psychologist conducts afn) to determine the relative worth
of a job compared to otherjobs.
a. utility analysis
b. needs assessment
c. performance appraisal
d. job evaluation
- For the exam, you want to be familiar with several “vocabulary words” that describe
important activities in organizational settings.
a. Incorrect Utility refers to the feasibility of a measure, often in terms of its costs.
b. Incorrect A needs assessment (analysis) is conducted to identify training needs.
c. Incorrect A performance appraisal is an assessment of an employee’s job performance.
d. CORRECT Job evaluations are conducted for the purpose of establishing the worth of a
job so that an appropriate wage can be defined for that job.
- “Fa client wants to change how she feels, she has to make more effective acting and
thinking choices. For instance, tf the client is lonely, she should decide to find a friend.”
This statement is most consistent with:
a. William Glasser’s reality therapy
b. Carl Rogers’ client-centered therapy
c. Alfred Adler’s individual psychology
d. Eric Berne’s transactional analysis
- William Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, has recently expanded his theory to more
explicitly emphasize individual choice.
a. CORRECT Glasser now refers to his theoretical orientation as “choice theory.” In therapy,
he focuses on the individual’s choices, especially those related to acting and thinking, which
are functions that are directly under a person’s control.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
- In their study of outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles County, Sue et al.
(1991) found that, while clients from all group showed improvement at the end of therapy,
a. African-Americans
b. Anglo-Americans
c. Asian-Americans
d. Hispanic-Americans
had the best outcomes.
- Sue et al. and others have found a few consistent differences in outcomes for members of
different ethnic/cultural groups.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d
d. CORRECT Sue et al. (1991) found that Hispanic-Americans had the best outcomes,
followed by Anglos. Asian-Americans, and, lastly, African-Americans.
- A nine-year old with Panic Disorder:
a. has been misdiagnosed because Panic Disorder does not occur in preadolescent
children
b. is most likely to manifest his disorder as crying, freezing, and clinging to his parents
C. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart
palpitations and saying that he “feels like he’s going crazy”
d. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia,
and school refusal
- There is some controversy regarding the ability of children to experience the cognitive
symptoms of panic; however, cases of the disorder in children are described in the literature.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic for children aged 3 through 5.
c. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic for adolescents.
d. CORRECT These are the symptoms listed for children aged 6 through 12 in M. L. Wolraich
(ed. ), The Classification of Child and Adolescent Mental Diagnosis in Primary Care:
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Primary Care (DSM-PC), Elk Grove Village, IL.
American Academy of Pediatrics. 1996.
- The clinical course of AIDS dementia complex (ADC) is described in the Literature in
terms of six stages. For example, a person with AIDS who has unequivocal evidence of
functional, intellectual, or motor impairment but is able to perform all but the most
demanding aspects of activities of daily living and can walk without assistance is in which
of the following stages:
a. Stage 0.5 (equivocal/subclinical)
b. Stage 1 (mild)
c. Stage 2 (moderate)
d. Stage 3 (severe)
- AIDS dementia complex (ADC) has been estimated to affect up to one-third of adults and
one-half of children with AIDS.
a. Incorrect Stage 0.5 is characterized by minimal or equivocal signs of impairment with no
deficits in work or activities of daily living.
b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Stage I
c. Incorrect A person in Stage 2 cannot work or perform demanding activities of daily living
and may require assistance when walking.
d. Incorrect A person in Stage 3 has significant intellectual impairments and cannot walk
unassisted.
