Quiz 1

Question 1

Standard error of the mean?

Answer 1

A: variance

B: Standard deviation

C: Standard error of the mean

D: Mean

Question 2

Data published by Hans Eysenck in 1952:

a. confirmed the effectiveness of behavioral treatments for a variety of psychological disorders
b. confirmed the “dodo bird” hypothesis, which predicts that various types of treatment are equally effective for a variety of psychological disorders

C. challenged the notion of “spontaneous remission”

d. challenged the effectiveness of conventional psychotherapeutic interventions

Answer 2

1. Eysenck’s 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes.
   a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
   b. Incorrect This sounds more like the Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) meta-analysis, which

found relatively few differences between various therapeutic approaches.

c. Incorrect This is just the opposite of what Eysenck concluded

**d. CORRECT Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in **

**psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did **

not receive therapy.

Question 3

2. A family therapist using Minuchin’s structural approach is most likely to be interested in

which of the following:

a. communication styles
b. transgenerational processes
c. boundaries
d. exceptions

Answer 3

2. As its name implies, Minuchin’s structural family therapy focuses on the structural

characteristics of the family.

a. Incorrect Although communication patterns provide clues about family structure, this is not the best response of those given.
b. Incorrect This sounds more like Bowenian family therapy.

**c. CORRECT Minuchin considered maladaptive behavior to be the result of overly rigid or permeable boundaries between family members. **

d. Incorrect Exceptions are of interest to solution-focused therapists.

Question 4

3. When an intervention involves changing oppressive sociocultural conditions in order to alleviate the cause of aperson’s distress, this intervention is:
   a. emic
   b. etic
   c. alloplastic
   d. autoplastic

Answer 4

3, A number of terms are used in the multiculturai counseling literature to describe different

aspects of this approach.

a. Incorrect Emic refers to a culture-specific approach that recognizes differences between
cultures.
b. Incorrect Etic refers to a universalistic approach that applies universal principles to all
cultures.

**c. CORRECT An alloplastic intervention alters environmental conditions that contribute to or **

**cause personal distress. **

d. Incorrect An autoplastic intervention attempts to change the individual to adapt to

environmental conditions.

Question 5

5. Bartlett Barmicide says he’s continued having hallucinations (‘flashbacks”) several months after he stopped using a drug. He also states that he realizes that this is probably due to the drug. Bartlett most likely used which of the following:
   a. PCP
   b. methamphetamine
   c. cocaine
   d. mescaline

Answer 5

5. A number of drugs can cause Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder, which is characterized by prominent hallucinations and delusions. However, as defined in DSM, the onset of symptoms for this disorder is within one month after drug use and the individual does not

recognize that the symptoms are substance-induced.

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d

**d. CORRECT DSM-IV-TR includes Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder (Flashbacks). **

**This disorder involves re-experiencing perceptual disturbances reminiscent of those **

experienced during an earlier Hallucinogen Intoxication. Mescaline is a type of hallucinogen.

Question 6

6. Research investigating the relationship between ADHD and substance abuse has found
   that:
   a. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is not associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood
   b. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood

c a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual was treated with stimulant drugs in childhood

d. a diagnosis of ADHD in childhood is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood only if the individual had comorbid conduct symptoms

Answer 6

6. A number of studies have confirmed that ADHD is associated with an increased risk for substance abuse in adulthood.
   a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

**b. CORRECT ADHD with or without comorbidity is a risk factor for substance abuse in adulthood. See, e.g., J. Biederman et al., Does attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder impact the developmental course of drug and alcohol abuse and dependence?, Biological Psychiatry, 1998, 44, 269-273. **

c. Incorrect There is evidence that successful treatment with a stimulant drug actually has a protective effect with regard to the development of substance abuse. See, e.g., J. Biederman et al., Pharmacotherapy of attention-deficitkyperactivity disorder reduces the risk for substance use disorder, Pediatrics, 1999, 104, 20.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 7

7. A school psychologist is trying to determine why a fourth grade student with an above-average IQ is doing poorly in school. He talks to the student’s parents and teachers separately and then meets with them jointly to discuss similarities and dgerences in the boy’s behaviors at home and school. From the perspective of Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological model, the psychologist is investigating which of the following:
   a. microsystem and mesosystem
   b. microsystem and exosystem
   c. macrosystem and mesosystem

d, macrosystem and exosystem

Answer 7

7. Bronfenbrenner’s model distinguishes between five interlocking contextual systems that

impact a child’s development.

**a. CORRECT The microsystem includes aspects of the child’s environment that affect him/her directly (e:g., school and home). The mesosystem refers to the interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., the interaction between home and school). **

b. Incorrect The exosystem includes factors that indirectly affect the child (e.g., the parents, workplaces and social networks).
c. Incorrect The macrosystem includes cultural values and customs, the economic system, etc.
d. Incorrect See explanations above.

Question 8

8. Erik Erikson coined the term:
   a. adolescent storm and stress
   b. adolescent identity crisis
   c. midlife crisis

d, sandwich generation

Answer 8

8. Erik Erikson is probably best known for his psychosocial theory of development. One of the stages of this model is “identity versus identity confusion.” which is characteristic of adolescents.
   a. Incorrect Stanley Hall discussed the storm and stress of adolescence.

b. CORRECT Erikson was the first major theorist to introduce the notion of an adolescent identity crisis and is credited with coining the term.

c. Incorrect “Midlife crisis” was coined by the psychoanalyst Elliott Jacques in 1967.
d. Incorrect This term was not coined by Erikson.

Question 9

9. Children are most likely to be resilient (i.e., to “bounce back” from high-risk or traumatic events) when their parents are:
   a. high in warmth, structure, and expectations
   b. high in warmth and structure but low in expectations
   c. moderate in warmth, structure, and expectations
   d. moderate in warmth but low in structure and expectations

Answer 9

9. Perhaps not surprisingly, authoritative parenting has been linked to greater resilience.
   a. CORRECT Authoritative parenting is characterized by a hlgh degree of warmth, structure, and expectations. For a discussion of this issue, see A. S. Masten and D. J. Coatsworth, The development of competence in favorable and unfavorable environments, American Psychologist, 1998, 53(2), 205-220.
   b. Incorrect See explanation above.
   c. Incorrect See explanation above.
   d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 10

10. Opioid peptides that block the release of substance P and thereby reduce pain are

referred to as:

a. hypnotics
b. endorphins
c. pheromones
d. catecholamines

Answer 10

10. Opiate receptors and substance P receptors are concentrated in the same areas of the brain. Opiate receptors play an important role in inhibiting the pain-producing effects of substance P.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b

**b. CORRECT The opioid peptides (which bind to opiate receptor sites) are also known as endorphins (endogeneous morphines). The endorphins produce analgesia, most likely by blocking the release of substance P. **

c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 11

11. Which of the following drugs are most effective for individuals who have received a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder with Atypical Features:
    a. MAOIs or SSRIs
    b. MAOIs or tricyclics

C. SSRIs or tricyclics

d. tricyclics or neuroleptics

Answer 11

11. The choice of the best antidepressant for a particular individual depends on several factors including the nature of hisker symptoms.

**a. CORRECT Atypical depression includes reversed vegetative symptoms (increase sleep and appetite), marked mood reactivity, phobic symptoms, andlor a sense of severe fatigue. The MAOIs and SSRIs have been found most effective for these symptoms. See, e.g., American Psychiatric Association’s Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Major Depressive **

**Disorder, **

b. Incorrect The response rate for tricyclics is 35 to 50%. while the response rate for MAOIs

and SSRIs is 55 to 75%.

c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 12

12. Cortisol is a steroid secreted by the:
    a. adrenal cortex
    b. adrenal medulla
    c. pineal gland
    d. pancreas

Answer 12

12. Cortisol is one of several steroid hormones.
    a. CORRECT The steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. They are critical for many bodily functions including mediating the stress response and maintaining blood sugar levels, bodily fluids, and electrolytes.
    b. Incorrect See explanation above.
    c. Incorrect See explanation above
    d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 13

13. A first-grade student frequently misbehaves in class. Whenever he does so, his teacherhas him stand in the c orner for ten minutes. During that time, he often turns around and makes faces at his classmates, and they respond by laughing and talking to him. The boy’s misbehavior is being maintained by:
    a. habituation
    b. satiation
    c. positive reinforcement
    d. negative reinforcement

Answer 13

13. In this situation, the boy’s misbehavior is continuing because of the attention he receives

from his classmates when he misbehaves.

a. Incorrect Habituation occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness.
b. Incorrect Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its effectiveness.

**c. CORRECT Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus that is applied following the behavior. In this situation, the boy’s misbehavior in class and in the corner is being maintained by the attention of his peers. **

d. Incorrect Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of a stimulus

that is removed following the behavior.

Question 14

14. Studies on concurrent schedules of reinforcement have found that an organism’s relative frequency of responding to one alternative corresponds to the relative frequency of reinforcement for responses to that alternative. This phenomenon is referred to as:
    a. the law of effect
    b. the matching law
    c. Rescorla-Wagner theory
    d. the Premack principle

Answer 14

14. The research has supported the “common sense” conclusion that an organism will respond to two different stimuli in proportion to the amount of reinforcement received for those responses.
    a. Incorrect Although the law of effect does make predictions about the effect of positive reinforcement, this answer is not as good (precise) as response b.
    b. CORRECT The matching law states that, when using concurrent schedules of reinforcement, the proportion of responses will match the proportion of reinforcements.
    c. Incorrect The Rescorla-Wagner theory applied to classical conditioning. It predicts that the amount of conditioning depends on how “surprising” (unexpected) the association between the CS and US is: The more surprising the US, the more conditioning will occur.
    d. Incorrect The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low frequency behavior.

Question 15

15. Research on the serial positlon effect suggests, that when studying for a test, it is important to:
    a. get a good night’s sleep before taking the test

b, engage in a distracting activity after studying and prior to taking the test

c. give extra attention to material studied during the middle of the study session
d. give extra attention to material studied at the beginning of the study session

Answer 15

15. To answer this, you have to know that the serial position effect refers to the tendency to forget items in the middle of a list (versus the beginning and end of the list).
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    c. CORRECT Studies on memory and forgetting have shown that people tend to remember

information presented in the beginning and, in some cases, end of a list better than that

presented in the middle. If this finding is extended to a study session, it predicts that a student

should pay most attention to the information reviewed in the middle of the study session since that is the information that is most likely to be forgotten.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 16

16. The two separate scores provided by the Mental Processing scale of the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (K-ABCJ reflect theory of intelligence.
    a. Spearman’s
    b. Luria’s
    c. Binet’s
    d. Sternberg’s

Answer 16

16. The Mental Processing Scale of the K-ABC provides scores on sequential and simultaneous processing.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    b. CORRECT Luria’s information processing model of intelligence distinguishes between sequential and simultaneous processing.
    c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
    d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 17

18. A child with Autistic Disorder would be most likely to obtain a higher score than a “normal”peer on which of the following:
    a. Embedded Figures Test
    b. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test
    c. Tower of London Test
    d. WISC-III comprehension subtest

Answer 17

18. A number of tests have been found useful for evaluating the abilities of individuals with

Autistic Disorder.

a. CORRECT Children with autism often show superior performance on the Embedded Figures Test, which measures field dependence. field dependence’’ is particularly interesting, for current purposes. Field dependence measures the degree to which an observer has difficulty analyzing part of an organized field independently of the field.

b. Incorrect Autistic children tend to do poorly on this test.
c. Incorrect Autistic children also receive low scores on this test.
d. Incorrect On the WISC, autistic children tend to receive their lowest score on the

Comprehension subtest

Question 18

19. In the development of a job performance measure, the “ultimate” criterion is:
    a. a criterion measure that has a perfect (or near perfect) correlation with the predictor
    b. a criterion measure that is unaffected by measurement error
    c. a construct that cannot actually be measured
    d. the actual measure of the empirically-identified conceptual criterion

Answer 18

, 19. There are several terms related to “criteria” that you should be familiar with for the exam

a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

c. CORRECT An ultimate (conceptual) criterion is a construct that cannot be measured directly but, instead, is measured indirectly (e.g., “effective employee” would be the ultimate criterion, while “dollar amount of sales during a three-month period would be the actual criterion).

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 19

20. When using the multiple hurdles approach in personnel selection, a critical decision is:
    a. the order in which the predictors will be administered
    b. how each predictor should be weighted
    c. whether or not the person administering the criterion should also evaluate predict01

performance

d. which statistical test to use to determine if results are statistically significant

Answer 19

20. As its name implies, the multiple hurdles technique involves administering the predictors

one at a time.

a. CORRECT To maximize the usefulness of the multiple hurdles technique, predictors must

be administered in a logical order (e.g., from least to most difficult or least to most expensive).

b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for reponse a.

Question 20

21. When ratings on a criterion measure are biased by predictor performance or otherextraneous variable, this is referred to in the literature as:
    a. criterion irrelevance
    b. criterion unreliability
    c. criterion contamination
    d. criterion deficiency

Answer 20

2 1. Criterion contamination occurs when a criterion measure is “contaminated by an extraneous variable.

a. Incorrect Relevance refers to the measure’s significance in terms of the ultimate criterion.
b. Incorrect A criterion measure is unreliable when scores are affected to a large degree by

measurement error.

c. CORRECT Contamination often occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a ratee’s predictor performance biases ratings on the criterion measure.

d. Incorrect A criterion is deficient when it does not measure important aspects of the

ultimate criterion.

Question 21

22. Lewin’s field theory predicts that:
    a. human behavior is due more to physical than to psychological factors
    b. a leader’s power is directly affected by the characteristics of the task and environment
    c. human behavior is a function of both the person and their environment
    d. a group can be no more effective than its least effective member

Answer 21

22. Lewin is probably best known for his development of field theory.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

c. CORRECT According to Lewin’s field theory, behavior is a function of the person and the

environment. He expressed this relationship with the following formula: B = f(P, E).

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 22

23. Hostile masculinity and promiscuous-impersonal sex are central concepts in:
    a. Malamuth’s confluence theory
    b. Doliard’s frustration-aggression hypothesis

C. Plutchik and Kellerman’s circumplex modei

d. Walker’s “cycle of violence”

Answer 22

23. These two concepts have been linked by Malamuth to sexual aggression

a. CORRECT According to Malamuth’s confluence model (formerly the interaction model), sexual aggression is the result of the convergence of two major constellations or paths - the hostile masculinity path and the promiscuous-impersonal sex path. See N. Malamuth et al.. Predicting men’s antisocial behavior against women: The interaction model of sexual aggression, in G. N. Hall et al. (eds.), Sexual Aggression: Issues in Etiology, Assessment,

and Treatment, Washington, DC, Hemisphere, 1993.

b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

Question 23

24. Studies looking at the impact of gender on reactions to crowding have found that:
    a. women cope with crowding better than men do in both laboratory and residential

settings

b. men cope with crowding better than women do in both laboratory and residential settings

c, women cope with crowding better than men do in laboratory settings but men cope with crowding better in residential settings

d. men cope with crowding better than women do in laboratory settings but women cope with crowding better in residential settings

Answer 23

24. Studies on the relationship between gender and the effects of crowding have produced somewhat inconsistent results.
    a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
    b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

c. CORRECT A review of the research indicates that the inconsistencies are due largely to the setting in which the research was conducted. Women tend to respond better than men in crowded laboratory (experimental) situations, while men do better in naturalistic settings.

d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 24

25. A researcher wants to compare the immediate and long-term effects of three duerent

treatments for PTSD. Consequently, she randomly assigns individuals who were recently

exposed to the same trauma to either the EMDR, stress inoculation, or in uiuo exposure

group and then assesses their symptoms one week, one month, and three months after the

end of treatment. The researcher is using which of the following research designs:

a. between groups
b. within subjects
c. counterbalanced
d. mixed

Answer 24

25. To answer this question correctly, you have to recognize that this study includes two

independent variables and that one variable is a between-groups variable (type of treatment)

while the other is a within-subjects variable (time).

a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT A design is referred to as “mixed when it involves at least one between-groups

variable and one within-subjects variable.

Question 25

26. Which of the following techniques would be most useful for investigating aperson's cognitive processes while working on a complex task: a. production interview b. protocol analysis c. behavioral systems assessment d. event coding

Answer 25

26. To investigate how a person is thinking about a problem, you would want to have himher "think aloud while solving the problem. a. Incorrect This technique, which is also called behamoral coding, is used to identify problems with surveys and questionnaires in order to revise them. b. CORRECT Protocol analysis involves having the individual think aloud while solving a problem and then evaluating the protocol (transcript) to clarify the individual's problem-solving process. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 26

27. The internal consistency of test items can be assessed with which of the followng. a. kappa statistic b. split-half reliability c, alternate forms reliability d. coefficient of stability

Answer 26

27. Internal consistency (homogeneity of test items) is used as an index of reliability a. Incorrect The kappa statistic is used to measure inter-rater reliability. b. CORRECT Split-half reliability is a type of internal consistency reliability and provides information on the consistency of items in two halves of the test. c. Incorrect Alternative forms reliability provides information on the equivalence of items contained in two different forms of the test. d. Incorrect The coefficient of stability (test-retest reliability coefficient) provides information of the consistency of a test over time.

Question 27

28. A high school student obtains an exam score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean. The distribution of scores is "normal." Based on this information, you can conclude that the examinee's score is: a. equivalent to a T score between 70 and 80 b. between a z-score of + 1.0 and +2.0 c. at the 95& percentile or lower d. between a stanine score of 2 and 3

Answer 27

28. When a distribution of scores is normal, it is possible to draw conclusions about the percent of scores that fall within specific limits (e.g., between the second and third standard deviation from the mean). **a. CORRECT T-scores have a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. Therefore, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a T-score between 70 and 80.** b. Incorrect Z-scores have a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1.0. Therefore, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a z-score between 2.0 and 3.0. c. Incorrect In a normal distribution, a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a percentile rank between approldmately 97.5 and 99.5. d. Incorrect Stanine scores range from 1 to 9, and a score that is between two and three standard deviations above the mean is equivalent to a stanine score of 8.

Question 28

29. Dr. Callow is a licensed psychologist who has recently been hired by a mental health clnic. Several of his new patients are members of a culturally-diverse group that he has not worked with before. His training, however, is appropriate for the services he will provide. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Callow should: a, refuse to work with these patients b. take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course c. obtain consultation from a therapist who does have experience with members of this group d. see ihe patients and seek consultation only if he experiences any problems during the course of therapy

Answer 28

29. Several Standards of the Ethics Code apply to this situation. For example, Standard 1.08 of the Code states that when differences in race or ethnicity might affect a psychologist's ability to work, he/she obtains "the training, experience, consultation, or supervision necessary to ensure the competence of ... [hisher] services." a. Incorrect Since it appears that expertise in working with members of this culturally-diverse group is important for his position at the mental health clinic, it would be better for Dr. Callow to gain that expertise. b. Incorrect Taking a course does not seem to be sufficient in this situation. **c. CORRECT Of the answers given, this one seems to represent the most ethical course of action. It is consistent with the requirements of Standard 1.04(b), which states that "Psychologists provide services ... in new areas or involving new techniques only after first undertaking appropriate study, training, supervisiotl, and/or consultation from persons who are competent in those areas or techniques." Even though he has had no prior experience with** **members of this group, consultation would be the best course of action for Dr. Callow because he is competent to provide the type of treatment.** d. Incorrect See explanation for response c. It would be better for Dr. Callow to seek consultation prior to treating these populations, and not "only" if a problem arises.

Question 29

30. Helms' interaction model of counseling proposes that, when counselor and client race and racial identity are considered, four types of relationships are possible. For example. for a white counselor and black client, a "crossed relationship" occurs when: a. the counselor and client share similar racial attitudes about whites and blacks b. the counselor and client have opposing racial attitudes about whites and blacks c. the counselor's stage of racial identity is at least one stage more advanced than the client's stage d. the counselor's stage of racial identity is at least one stage less advanced than the client's stage

Answer 29

30. Helms distinguishes between parallel, crossed, progressive, and regressive relationships. a. Incorrect This describes a parallel relationship. **b. CORRECT This describes a crossed relationship. A crossed relationship is associated with the worst outcomes.** c. Incorrect This describes a progressive relationship. d. Incorrect This describes a regressive relationship

Question 30

31. Penny Pallid is an Anglo-American teacher and Cameron Chroma, her student, is African-American. According to Helms' interaction model, Ms. Pallid will be LEAST effective in teaching Cameron she is in the\_\_\_\_ stage of racial identity development and Cameron is in the \_\_\_\_\_\_stage. a. reintegration; pre-encounter b. pseudo-independent; pre-encounter c. reintegration; immersion d. pseudo-independent; encounter

Answer 30

3 1. This question is asking about Helms' proposal that outcomes in clinical and other relationships are affected by the stage of racial identity development of each participant. See J. Helms. Applying the interaction model to social dyads, in J. Helms (ed.), Black and White Racial Identity: Theory, Research and Practice, New York, Greenwood Press, 1990. a. Incorrect As defined by Helms, this is an example of a parallel relationship and is likely to result in a stable, harmonious interaction. b. Incorrect This is an example of a progressive relationship. It provides the greatest opportunity for growth for the student. c. CORRECT This is an example of a crossed relationship. It is the most conflicted type and is characterized by disharmony, fear, and "warfare." It is least likely to promote the student's growth. d. Incorrect This is another example of a progressive relationship.

Question 31

32. According to the Cross model of Nigrescence, an African-American in the stage begins to develop a nonstereotypic African-American perspective. a. immersion b. emersion c. redefinition d. commitment

Answer 31

32. Cross' model distinguishes between five stages of identity development: Preencounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, internalization, and internalization-commitment. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. **b. CORRECT Emersion is the second phase of the immersion-emersion stage and is characterized by an ability to see both the strengths and weaknesses of African-American culture.** c. Incorrect See explanation for response h. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 32

33. Although stuttering in children is often dijficult to treat, there is some evidence that a. stress inoculation b. covert sensitization c. regulated breathing is the most effective approach. d. dialectical behavior therapy

Answer 32

33. Several studies have found regulated breathing to be effective for people who stutter a. Incorrect See explanation for response c b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. **c. CORRECT Regulated breathing involves instructing the person to stop speaking when a stuttering episode occurs and to take a deep breath before continuing. It is often combined with awareness training and social support and, in this format, is referred to as "habit reversal."** d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 33

34. One approach to distinguishing between depression and anxiety involves considering three dimensions of emotion - negative affect, positive affect, and autonomic arousal. From this perspective, compared to depression, anxiety involves: a. a similar level of negahve affect and autonomic arousal but a higher level of positive affect b. a similar level of negative affect but a higher level of both autonomic arousal and positive affect c. a lower level of negative affect, a similar level of autonomic arousal, and a higher level of positive affect d. a similar level of both negative and positive affect but a higher level of autonomic arousal

Answer 33

34. Considering the characteristics of depression and anxiety might have helped you choose the correct response to this question even if you are unfamiliar with the research. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. **b. CORRECT This is the difference reported by L. A. Clark et al., Temperament, personality,** **and the mood and anxiety disorders, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 1994, 103, 92-102.** c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response h.

Question 34

35. On a measure that assesses the "Big Five"persona1ity factors, a high score on neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a low score on conscientiousness are most likely to be obtained by a person with Personality Disorder. a. Obsessive-Compulsive b. Narcissistic c. Schizoid d. Antisocial

Answer 34

35. The match between the Big Five personality traits and DSM's personality disorders is summarized in T. Widiger et al., A description of the DSM-111-R and DSM-IV personality disorders with the five-factor model of personality, in P. T. Costa and T. A. Widiger [eds.), Personality Disorders and the Five-Factor Model of Personality, Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 1994. a. Incorrect A person with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is likely to obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on some aspects of agreeableness, and a high score on conscientiousness. b. Incorrect A person with Narcissistic Personality Disorder would obtain a high score on some aspects of neuroticism, a low score on agreeableness, and a high score on some aspects of conscientiousness. c. Incorrect A person with Schizoid Personality Disorder would obtain a low score on some aspects of neuroticism, a high score on one aspect of agreeableness (compliance), and a low score on one aspect of conscientiousness (achievement striving). **d. CORRECT This is the pattern reported by T. Widiger et. a1 for individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder.**

Question 35

36. Eighteen-month old Tylee has learned the word "cup" and applies it to other similar objects such as bowls, glasses, and bottles. This is referred to as: a, underextension b. overextension c. overregularization d. expansion

Answer 35

36. Children exhibit a number of predictable errors when learning to speak. ## Footnote a. Incorrect Underextension involves applying a term too narrowly (e.g., using "dog" to refer only to the family dog). b. CORRECT As its name implies, overextension involves applying a word to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate. c. Incorrect Overregularization is an overextension of grammatical rules to words that are exceptions (e.g., adding "s" to "feet"). d. Incorrect Expansion refers to the feedback that adults seem to naturally give young children, which provides children with information on appropriate language use.

Question 36

37. Which of the following represents a phoneme: a. "c" b. "ing" C. "mama" d. "mom"

Answer 36

37. A phoneme is the smallest unit of sound in a language. a. CORRECT English has 26 letters but 44 phonemes since the same letter alone or combined with others can represent more than one sound. b. Incorrect This is a morpheme (the smallest unit of sound that conveys meaning). c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above

Question 37

38. Harvey's (1 999) re-analysis of the 1994 National Longitudinal Survey of Youth (NLSYJ data found that, in terms of future effects, maternal employment during the first three years ofa child's life is most likely to have: a. a significant and long-term negative impact on the child's emotional, cognitive, and behavioral functioning b. a small negative impact on the child's cognitive functioning but no consistent impact on emotional or behavioral development c. a small negative impact on the child's emotional and behavioral functioning but no consistent impact on cognitive development d. a significant negative impact on the child's behavioral functioning but no consistent impact on cognitive and emotional development

Answer 37

38. This question is referring to Elizabeth Harvey's re-analysis of the NLSY data, which involved remedying some of the methodological problems of the previously-published study [Short- and long-term effects of early parental employment on children of the National Longitudinal Survey of Youth, Developmental Psychology, 1999, 35(2), 448-4591. a. Incorrect See explanation for res'ponse b. b. CORRECT Harvey concludes that the data reveal no consistent effects on compliance or self-esteem but small, usually short-term effects on measures of academic achievement. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 38

39. People with Korsakoff syndrome exhibit anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Research investigating the location of brain damage underlying these symptoms suggests that which area is most affected: a. temporal lobes b. hippocampus c. mammillary bodies d. basal ganglia

Answer 38

39. Memory loss has been linked to damage to a number of brain structures, with the particular structures affected being related to the cause of the memory loss. a. Incorrect There is evidence that the temporal lobes and hippocampus are relatively normal I in individuals with Korsakoffs syndrome (although they are very often affected in other forms of amnesia). See, e.g., W. Mair et al., Memory disorder in Korsakoffs psychosis, Brain, 1979, 102, 749-783. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. **c. CORRECT The mammillary bodies are part of the diencephalon, which also consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and parts of the limbic system. Mair et al. found evidence of substantial disease in the mammillary bodies and some damage to the thalamus in patients** **with Korsakoffs disease.** d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 39

40. There is now evidence that nicotine enhances alertness and memory by mimicking a. endorphins b. GABA c. serotonin d. acetylcholine at nicotinic receptor sites.

Answer 39

40. Knowing that nicotinic receptors are a type of acetylcholine receptor would have helped you choose the correct response to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT There is evidence that the nicotine in tobacco exerts and behavior by binding to nicotinic receptors in the brain.

Question 40

41. was introduced in the 1970s as a method for measuring regional cerebral bloodflow using radioactive isotopes. a. MRI b. CT c. SPECT d. SHEFC

Answer 40

41. Several brain imaging techniques are available. Some provide information on brain structure, while others yield information on brain functioning (e.g., regional cerebral blood flow) . a. Incorrect MRI is a structural brain imaging technique. b. Incorrect CT is also a structural technique. c. CORRECT SPECT (single proton emission computed tomography) is used to assess regional cerebral blood flow. d. Incorrect This "distractor" is the name of a brain imaging research center in Scotland

Question 41

42. According to Aaron Beck's theory of depression, in response to a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to manafest an: a. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility b. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility c. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility d. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility

Answer 41

42. Beck proposes that depressed people tend to exhibit certain types of cognitive distortions. a. CORRECT When faced with a negative event, a depressed individual is likely to exhibit a "control fallacy" (view himherself as a hapless victim of fate) and personalization ("if anything goes wrong, it's my fault"). This paradox (an external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility) is one of the reasoning errors that contribute to depression. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. ' d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 42

43. As defined by Aaron Beck, overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing are: a. the "cognitive triad b. cognitive distortions c. cognitive schemata d. automatic thoughts

Answer 42

43. Aaron Beck describes several cognitive phenomena that contribute to depression, andety, and other disorders. a. Incorrect The cognitive triad refers specifically to the cognitive profile underlying depression (i.e., negative views of oneself, the world, and the future). b. CORRECT The cognitive distortions (errors in reasoning) identified by Beck include overgeneralization, personalization, and catastrophizing. c. Incorrect Schemata are ways of organizing and interpreting experiences that develop in early childhood and may be latent until later in life when they are activated by stress. d. Incorrect Automatic thoughts are repetitive, automatic self-statements that are elicited by certain stimuli and that are associated with strong emotions.

Question 43

44. All of the following are categorized as operant methods for reducing or eliminating undesirable behaviors except: a. extinction b. response cost c. negative reinforcement d. D.R.O.

Answer 43

44. All of the techniques listed in the responses - except one - are used to decrease or eliminate a behavior. a. Incorrect Extinction is used to eliminate a previously reinforced behavior. b. Incorrect Response cost is a type of negative punishment and is used to decrease behavior. c. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior. It involves removing a stimulus followng the behavior in order to increase that behavior. d. Incorrect D.R 0. (differential reinforcement for other behavior) is undesirable behavior and establish alternative (desirable) behaviors.

Question 44

45. Zajonc's confluence model predicts that children's intellectual growth can be either enhanced or hindered by their immediate family circumstances. Specifically, ZaJonc considers\_\_\_\_ to be a critical factor in intellectual development. a. birth order b. parental marital status c, parenting style d. culture

Answer 44

45. Zajonc argues that intellectual development is influenced by the intellectual environment of the home, especially as it relates to family configuration. a. CORRECT ZaJonc's confluence theory predicts that children born earlier (e.g., firstborns) tend to do slightly better on academic tests than their younger siblings. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

Question 45

46. Holland's Self-Directed Search provides scores on six occupational themes. A person who obtains the highest score on the realistic theme is best suited for ajob involving: a. physical, mechanical, or outdoor activities b. scientific, mathematical, or analytic tasks c. activities that require attention to detail and good organization skills d. tasks that require business, management, or sales skills

Answer 45

46. Holland's scale distinguishes between five occupational themes ("RJASEC"): realistic. investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. a. CORRECT People who score high on the realistic scale are well suited for these types of tasks. b. Incorrect These tasks fit the investigative type. c. Incorrect These activities fit the interests of individuals receiving the highest score on the conventional scale. d. Incorrect These tasks are of greatest interest to individuals with a high score on the enterprising scale.

Question 46

47. The Woodcock-Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Abilities is based on: a. Spearman's notion of general intelligence b. Luria's distinction between simultaneous and sequential processing c. the Cattell-Horn-Carroli approach to cognitive abilities d. Sternberg's model of "successful intelligence"

Answer 46

47. The WJ 111 combines two approaches to cognitive abilities. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The WJ III is based on Horn and Cattell's distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence and Carroll's three-stratum theory, which distinguishes between I general intellectual ability (Stratum III), eight general factors (Stratum II), and a number of I specific factors that are grouped under the general factors (Stratum I). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 47

48. Which of the following individuals has proposed that organizational culture acts, at least in part, as a defense mechanism that helps organizational members avoid uncertainty and anxiety: a. Herbert Simon b. Edgar Schein c. Leon Festinger d. Geert Hofstede

Answer 47

48. Knowing that Edgar Schein has written extensively on organizational culture would have helped you choose the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT In his book Organizational Culture and Leadership (19921, Schein describes the basic assumptions that underlie an organization's culture as cognitive defense mechanisms. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 48

49. To use the Taylor-Russell tables to evaluate a new selection test, you need informationabout which of the following: a. predictor cutoff, criterion cutoff, and hit rate b. base rate, hit rate, and selection ratio c, base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient d. base rate, hit rate, and predictor cutoff

Answer 48

49. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to estimate a predictor's "positive hit rate." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT To find an estimated hit rate using these tables, it is necessary to have three pieces of information: the base rate, the selection ratio, and the predictor's validity coefficient. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 49

50. In addition to identifying "bounded rationality" as a impediment to rationaldecision-making, Herbert Simon is known for his work on: a. artificial intelligence b. job burnout c. groupthink d. organizational culture

Answer 49

50. Although Herbert Simon is probably best known for his work on individual decision-making, he was also a pioneer in the field of artificial intelligence. a. CORRECT Simon believed there are two main goals in using and studying computers: ( 1) to augment human intelligence and (2) to help understand how humans think. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 50

51. R. Martin (1978) proposed that which of the following bases of social power are most important for the success of mental health consultation: a. referent and informational b. legitimate and expert c. legitimate and informational d. expert and referent

Answer 50

51. Unfortunately, to answer this question, you have to be familiar with some fairly "old" research. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CO-CT R. Martin proposes that expert and referent power are most important for consultation success [Expert and referent power: A framework for understanding and maximizing consultation effectiveness, Journal of School Psychology, 1978, 16( 11, 49-55], Note, however, that his position has been disputed - W. Erchul and B. Raven contend that all five bases of social power are important [School power in school consultation: A contemporary review of French and Raven's bases of power model, Journal of School Psychology, 1997, 35(2), 137-1711.

Question 51

52. According to "consistency paradox," while most people view behavior as being relatively stable over differerent situations, the empirical research has found it to be quite variable. a. Solomon Asch's b. Stanley Milgram's c. Albert Bandura's d. Walter Mischel's

Answer 51

52. The consistency paradox is an often-cited theory in literature on the relationship between personality and behavior. a, Incorrect Solomon Asch is probably best known for his studies on conformity. b. Incorrect Stanley Milgram conducted the now-famous study on obedience to authority. c. Incorrect Albert Bandura is associated with social learning theory and research on self-efficacy. d. CORRECT The most recent version of Mischel's theory views apparent inconsistencies in behavior across situations as the result of an interaction between relatively stable personality dispositions, cognitive-affective processes, and situational characteristics.

Question 52

53. Professor Sharp argues against raising the legal drinking age from 18 to 21 on the ground that doing so will only encourage 18-, 19-, and 20-year olds to drink. Apparently, Sharp is familiar with which of the following theories: a. individuation b. psychological reactance c. inoculation d. expectancy-value

Answer 52

53. Professor Sharp is contending that people will do the opposite of what they are legally required to do. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Sharp's argument is most consistent with the predictions of psychological reactance theory, which proposes that, when people feel their freedom is being threatened, they will do something to restore that freedom (e.g., engage in the legally-prohibited behavior). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 53

54. "Sampling error" is due to: a. the unreliability of the test b. the invalidity of the test c. random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample d. non-random factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample

Answer 53

54. Whenever a sample is drawn from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT As the result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not "mirror" the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 54

55. In a research study investigating the possible genetic transmission of ADHD, the "proband" is: a. the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD b. a biological parent of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD c. a non-affected biological sibling of the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD d. a member of the control group who has been matched to the individual who has received a diagnosis of ADHD

Answer 54

55. The proband in research study is also known as the index case. a. CORRECT The affected individual who is of immediate concern or who was initially identified because of hisker disorder is referred to as the proband. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

Question 55

56. In terms of item response theory, the slope (steepness) of the item response curve indicates the item's: a. difficulty b. discriminability c. reliability d, validity

Answer 55

56. The item response curve provides three pieces of information about an item - i.e.. its difficulty, ability to discriminate between those who are high and low on the characteristic being measured, and the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing. a. Incorrect The position of the curve indicates its difficulty level. b. CORRECT The steeper the slope of the item response curve, the better its ability to discriminate between examinees who are high and low on the characteristic being measured. c. Incorrect Reliability is not indicated by the item response curve d. Incorrect Validity is not indicated by the item response curve.

Question 56

57. Dr. Strait is invited to a holiday party at a fellow psychologist's house. While there, he notices that one of the guests is a current therapy client of the psychologist. Dr. Strait's best course of action would be to: a. leave the party in protest b. contact the ethics committee as soon as possible c, discuss the issue with the psychologist immediately d, discuss the issue with the psychologist at a later time

Answer 56

57. The information provided in the question sugests that the psychoIogist is engaging in a dual relationship with a client. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. (Also note that Dr. Strait would have to obtain permission from the client before revealing hisher name to the Ethics Committee, which also makes this a less desirable answer than response d.) c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Standard 8.0 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unelhically. Based on the information given in the question, this would be the best course of action - i.e., Dr. Strait should discuss the matter with the psycholog~st to determine the circumstances (e.g., the client may have come to the party without an invitation).

Question 57

58. A solution-focused therapist is working with a husband and wife whose conversations frequently escalate to bitter fights. The therapist will most likely: a. reduce tension during therapy sessions by having the husband and wife talk directly to her rather than to each other b. instruct the couple to take a ten-minute "time-out" whenever they begin to argue at home c. ask the couple if they can remember a time when they were able to talk for an extended period without arguing d. ask the couple what rewards they derive from arguing

Answer 57

58. As its name implies, solution-focused therapists focus on solutions rather than problems. a. Incorrect This sounds more like the approach a Bowenian family therapist would adopt b. Incorrect This isn't characteristic of the solution-focused approach. c. CORRECT Solution-focused therapists use "exceptions" to help identify solutions to a client's problems. An exception is a time when the problem did not exist or existed in a less intense form. d. Incorrect This is not characteristic of this approach.

Question 58

59. Motivational interviewing combines the transtheoretical model of change with: a. psychoanalytic concepts b. reality therapy c. a behavioral approach d. a client-centered approach

Answer 58

59. As its name implies, motivational interviewing focuses on a client's motivation to change a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Motivational interviewing is especially useful for individuals in the precontemplation and contemplation stages (the first two stages proposed by the transtheoretical model of change). It adopts a client-centered approach (e.g., emphasizes the importance of empathy).

Question 59

60. The first use of meta-analysis in the area of psychology is attributed to: a. Flynn b. Eysenck c. Smith and Glass d. Horn and Cattell

Answer 59

60. Meta-analysis was originally used by Karl Pearson in 1904 to evaluate the extent to which smallpox inoculation increased survival rates. At that time, the technique was not known as "meta-analysis." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c, b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT It was not until the 1970s that the term "meta-analysis" was introduced by Smith and Glass who also refined the technique and were the first to apply it to psychological research (specifically, psychotherapy outcome studies). See M. L. Smith and G. V. Glass, Meta-analysis of psychotherapy outcome studies, American Psychologist. 1977, 32. 752-760. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 60

61. Which of the following is true about the dgerence between Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCDI: a. obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder are less severe than those in OCD but began in early adulthood and are present in a variety of contexts b. obsessions and compulsions in Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not in OCDI are experienced by the individual as ego-syntonic c. the diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (but not OCD) requires the presence of obsessions and compulsions prior to age 21 d. the diagnosis of OCD (but not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder) requires the presence of obsessions andlor compulsions

Answer 60

6 1. The name "Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder" is misleading because the disorder is NOT characterized by obsessions or compulsions. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CORRECT Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The diagnosis does not require the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions.

Question 61

62. About 10 to 15% of new mothers develop postpartum major depression in the first few days or weeks following delivery. In addition, - of new mothers exhibit "‘postpartum blues," a less severe condition that involves mood swings and sleep disturbances. a. 15 to 30% b. 25 to 40% c. 35 to 60% d. 50 to 80%

Answer 61

62. The reported rates for post-partum blues and depression vary in the literature. However, most authorities agree that the majority of new mothers do experience some degree of post-partum blues. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CORRECT This is the range reported by many experts. See, e.g., M. L. Moline et al., Postpartum depression: A guide for patients and families, www.psychguides.com.

Question 62

64. According to Piaget, which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for the development of reversibility: a. self-awareness b. meta-cognition c. symbolism d. hypothetico-deductive reasoning

Answer 62

64. Piaget argued that symbolism - and in particular language - is critical for reversibility and conservation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT In Logical Operations and Social Life, Piaget states "complete reversibility presupposes symbolism" [cited in L. Smith (ed.), Sociological Studies. London, Routledge, 19951. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 63

65. Research investigating the impact of parenting style on the academic achievement of children and adolescents suggests that the effects are:. a. modified by the offspring's temperament b. modified by the family's ethnicitylculture c. modified by level of parental education d. not affected by temperament, ethnicitylculture, or parental education

Answer 63

65. A number of studies have linked authoritative parenting with the most positive outcomes for children and adolescents. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT This is some evidence that the benefits of authoritative parenting are modified by family ethnicity or culture. For example, L. Sternberg et al. report that the authoritative style is beneficial for the school success of white and Hispanic students but that, for Asian- African-Americans, this style does not predict school achievement [Ethnic differences in adolescent achievement: An ecological perspective, American Psychologist, 1992, 47(6), 723-7291. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 64

66. Gerald Patterson and his colleagues have developed a model to explain the origins of adolescent delinquency. Their approach is most consistent with which of the following: a. object relations theory b. social learning theory c. cognitive developmental theory d. social comparison theory

Answer 64

66. Accordmg to Patterson and his colleagues, adolescent delinquency is traceable to unskilled and inefficient childrearing by the child's parents, high levels of punishment, and a tendency to react to a child's negative actions in kind. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Patterson's model is consistent with a social learning approach he., it emphasizes the impact of modelin~imitation and reinforcement). For a review see, R. G. Geen, Aggression and antisocial behavior, in D. T. Gilbert et al. (eds.), The Handbook of Social Psychology, Volume 2, Boston, McGraw-Hal, 1998. c. Incorrect Seeexplanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b

Question 65

67. A handwriting disability that is characterized by dfficulties in learning to write, and writing that is accurate but painstakingly slow or of poor quality is referred to as: a. motor agraphia b. dysgraphia c. pure alexia d: dyslexia

Answer 65

67. This is a difficult question because the terms "agraphia" and "dysgraphia" are often used interchangeably in the literature. a. Incorrect Motor agraphia is a specific type of agraphia (inability to write) that is due to brain damage that affects motor (expressive) functioning. b. CORRECT Some experts use the term dysgraphia to describe an inability to write that is not due to motor impairment (see., e.g.. Renee M. Newman, Dysgraphia: Causes and Treatment, http://www.dyscalcuIia.org/Edu563.htmi). ' c. lncorrect Pure alexia refers to "word blindness." d. Incorrect Dyslexia is also defined differently by different experts. According to one definition, it is "a neurologically-based, often familial, disorder which interferes with the acquisition and processing of language" ((www.ldteens.org/Dyslexia-Defin.html). Although dyslexia can cause problems related to handwriting, it is not limited to th~s type of impairment. Consequently, this is not the best answer of those given.

Question 66

68. Research by Walter Kaye and others suggests that Anorexia Nervosa is associated with higher-than-normal levels of: a, serotonin b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. glutamate

Answer 66

68. Kaye, a psychiatrist at the University of Pittsburgh School of Medicine, has found that anorexia is related to an overabundance of serotonin in the brain. a. CORRECT Kaye proposes that high levels of serotonin cause anxiety and that starvation reduces tryptophan, which then reduces brain levels of serotonin and temporarily relieves anxiety. See, e.g., W Kay et al.. Serotonin nenronal function and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in anorexia and bulimia, Biological Psychiatry, 1998, 44(9), 825-838. b. Incorrect See explanation for response a. c. Incorrect See.explanation for response a d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.

Question 67

69. Brain imaging techniques have linked ADHD to decreased metabolic activity in the a. left temporal b, left parietal c. right frontal d. right occipital lobe and the basal ganglia.

Answer 67

69. Functional and structural brain imaging techniques have linked several areas of the brain to impairments associated with ADHD. a. Incorrect See explanation below. b. Incorrect There is some evidence that the RIGHT parietal lobe is involved in ADHD (but not the left lobe). c. CORRECT The right frontal lobe (especially the prefrontal cortex) and the caudate nucleus and globus pallidus (structures of the basal ganglia) tend to be smdler in individuals with ADHD and to have lower-than-normal levels of metabolic activity. See, e.g., C. Aman, ADHD, Developmental Psychology, 1998, 34, 956-969. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 68

70. A number of investigators have studied learning processes in non-human animals. Which of the following does not accurately pair an investigator with the aspect of learning he studied: a. Tolmanjcognitive maps b. Kohlerlthe "aha" experience c. Thorndikelreinforcement d. Kandelltaste aversion learning

Answer 68

70. This question is a simple one as long as you are familiar with the names listed in the responses. a. Incorrect Based on his study of spatial learning in rats, Tolman concluded that they form cognitive maps. b. Incorrect Kohler's studies with chimpanzees provided evidence of insight learning in these animals. c. Incorrect Thorndike found that the behavior of cats in puzzle boxes was influenced by the consequences of that behavior, and spccifically that "satisfying consequences" (reinforcement) increased the probability that a behavior would occur again. d. CORRECT Kandel studied neural mechanisms underlying associative and nonassociative learning in Aplysia (sea slug).

Question 69

71. According to M. Seligman, when aperson with an optimistic attribution style does poorly on an exam in a class he ordinarily does well in, thatperson will most likely say: a. I didn't study hard enough b. I was unlucky c. The teacher gave a very hard test this time d. The teacher always grades on the curve

Answer 69

71. According to Seligman's theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people. a. Incorrect This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman's theory. b. Incorrect This isn't as good of a response as response c. c. CORRECT Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligrnan's theory, which , negative events. I proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and temporary attributions for d. Incorrect This is a global (rather than specific) attribution

Question 70

72. Research on age-related changes in cognitive abilities suggests that normal aging is LEAST likely to have a negative impact on which of the following: a. working memory b. cued recall c, free recall d. picture recognition

Answer 70

72. A number of theories have been proposed to explain how aging impacts cognitive abilities. One theory states that aging has the greatest impact on tasks involving a high processing demand. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CORRECT Of the memory abilities listed in the responses, picture recognition has the lowest processing demand and has been found to show little, if any, age-related cognitive decline. See, e.g., D. C. Park, Mediators of long-term memory performance across the lifespan, Psychology and Aging, 1996, 11(4), 621-637.

Question 71

73. The effect demonstrates that the automaticity of reading interferes with color naming. a. Ponzo b. Pulfrich c. Stroop d. Zeigarnik

Answer 71

73. This question is somewhat incomprehensible but a glance at the responses may have helped you recognize what it is referring to. a. Incorrect The Ponzo effect (or illusion) is the result of the way our eyes judge distance and size. It is used to explain why the moon seems larger at the horizon. b. Incorrect The Pulfrich effect is another illusion that's too complicated to explain here (see http: //dogfeathers.com/javalpulfrich.html for an explanation). [It won't ever be the correct answer to a licensing exam question!) c. CORRECT If you are familiar with the Stroop Test (described in the Psychological Assessment section), you know that it provides the examinee with a list of color names that are printed in different colors (e.g., "green" might be printed in red) and requires the examinee to say the color of the print. There are many explanations for why people have trouble doing this - one is that reading automaticity (the natural tendency to read the word) interferes with the ability to name the color of the print. d. Incorrect The Zeigarnik effect predicts that people remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones.

Question 72

74. Which of the following would be LEAST useful for identifying frontal lobe damage resulting from a closed head injury: a. WAIS-111 Verbal-Performance discrepancy b. Wisconsin Card Sorting Test c. EEG d. Halstead Category Test

Answer 72

74. A number of measures are used to evaluate the consequences of frontal lobe damage a. CORRECT Frontal lobe lesions are unlikely to produce a significant Verbal-Performance discrepancy. Consequently, of the measures listed, a V-P discrepancy would be least useful for identifying the impact of damage to this region. See, e.g., G. Groth-Marnat, Handbook of Psychological Assessment (3rd Edition), New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999. b. Incorrect The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is a good measure of frontal lobe (executive) functioning. c. Incorrect An EEG can provide information about frontal lobe functioning, especially about seizure activity.

Question 73

75. A psychologist would use the Sickness Impact Profile to: a. assess a patient's psychosocial and physical functioning related to pain or other illness b. evaluate the impact of environmental conditions on a patient's physical health c. determine the costs of employee illness on her clinical practice d. measure a patient's emotional reactions to a chronic illness

Answer 73

75. The name of the instrument - Sickness Impact Profile - should have helped you identify the correct response to this question. a. CORRECT The SIP consists of 136 items that assess the impact of illness on an individual's psychosocial and physical functioning in terms of 12 daily activities (e.g., eating, work. recreation). b. Incorrect The SIP is not used for this purpose. c. Incorrect This SIP is not used for this purpose. d. Incorrect The SIP is a behaviorally-based instrument and does not assess emotional or other subjective reactions to illness.

Question 74

76. Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1 9631 model of career development emphasizes which of the following: a, basic interests b. basic instinctual needs c. personal identity d. locus of control

Answer 74

76. Tiedeman and O'Hara (1963) viewed career development as a process involving the acquisition of a personal vocational identity. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According to these authors, the achievement of a personal vocational identity involves balancing integration (being part of a career field) with differentiation (retaining individuality and uniqueness]. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 75

77. "Criterion deficiency" is most likely to result in: a. high validity b. low validity c. high reliability d. low reliability

Answer 75

77. Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure fails to measure all aspects of the ultimate (conceptual) criterion. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b, b. CORRECT A criterion measure can have high reliability but low validity - i:'e., it can give consistent results but measure only some aspects of the ultimate criterion. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b 7. "Criterion deficiency" is most likely to result in: a. high validity b. low validity c. high reliability d. low reliability

Question 76

78. An organizational psychologist conducts afn) to determine the relative worth of a job compared to otherjobs. a. utility analysis b. needs assessment c. performance appraisal d. job evaluation

Answer 76

78. For the exam, you want to be familiar with several "vocabulary words" that describe important activities in organizational settings. a. Incorrect Utility refers to the feasibility of a measure, often in terms of its costs. b. Incorrect A needs assessment (analysis) is conducted to identify training needs. c. Incorrect A performance appraisal is an assessment of an employee's job performance. d. CORRECT Job evaluations are conducted for the purpose of establishing the worth of a job so that an appropriate wage can be defined for that job.

Question 77

79. "Fa client wants to change how she feels, she has to make more effective acting and thinking choices. For instance, tf the client is lonely, she should decide to find a friend." This statement is most consistent with: a. William Glasser's reality therapy b. Carl Rogers' client-centered therapy c. Alfred Adler's individual psychology d. Eric Berne's transactional analysis

Answer 77

79. William Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, has recently expanded his theory to more explicitly emphasize individual choice. a. CORRECT Glasser now refers to his theoretical orientation as "choice theory." In therapy, he focuses on the individual's choices, especially those related to acting and thinking, which are functions that are directly under a person's control. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 78

80. In their study of outpatient mental health services in Los Angeles County, Sue et al. (1991) found that, while clients from all group showed improvement at the end of therapy, a. African-Americans b. Anglo-Americans c. Asian-Americans d. Hispanic-Americans had the best outcomes.

Answer 78

80. Sue et al. and others have found a few consistent differences in outcomes for members of different ethnic/cultural groups. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d b. Incorrect See explanation for response d c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CORRECT Sue et al. (1991) found that Hispanic-Americans had the best outcomes, followed by Anglos. Asian-Americans, and, lastly, African-Americans.

Question 79

81. A nine-year old with Panic Disorder: a. has been misdiagnosed because Panic Disorder does not occur in preadolescent children b. is most likely to manifest his disorder as crying, freezing, and clinging to his parents C. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, and heart palpitations and saying that he "feels like he's going crazy" d. is most likely to manifest his disorder as shortness of breath, chest pain, tachycardia, and school refusal

Answer 79

81. There is some controversy regarding the ability of children to experience the cognitive symptoms of panic; however, cases of the disorder in children are described in the literature. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic for children aged 3 through 5. c. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic for adolescents. d. CORRECT These are the symptoms listed for children aged 6 through 12 in M. L. Wolraich (ed. ), The Classification of Child and Adolescent Mental Diagnosis in Primary Care: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Primary Care (DSM-PC), Elk Grove Village, IL. American Academy of Pediatrics. 1996.

Question 80

82. The clinical course of AIDS dementia complex (ADC) is described in the Literature in terms of six stages. For example, a person with AIDS who has unequivocal evidence of functional, intellectual, or motor impairment but is able to perform all but the most demanding aspects of activities of daily living and can walk without assistance is in which of the following stages: a. Stage 0.5 (equivocal/subclinical) b. Stage 1 (mild) c. Stage 2 (moderate) d. Stage 3 (severe)

Answer 80

82. AIDS dementia complex (ADC) has been estimated to affect up to one-third of adults and one-half of children with AIDS. a. Incorrect Stage 0.5 is characterized by minimal or equivocal signs of impairment with no deficits in work or activities of daily living. b. CORRECT The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Stage I c. Incorrect A person in Stage 2 cannot work or perform demanding activities of daily living and may require assistance when walking. d. Incorrect A person in Stage 3 has significant intellectual impairments and cannot walk unassisted.

Question 81

83. Otitis media (OM) is a frequently-diagnosed childhood disease. Research on the long-term consequences of chronic OM has found that, in general: a. it does not affect hearing ability b. it is associated with mild hearing loss that has little or no impact on school achievement c. it is associated with mild to moderate hearing loss that may have a negative impact on school achievement d. it is associated with profound hearing loss

Answer 81

83. Otitis media (OM) is a middle ear disease. When chronic, it often causes mild to moderate hearing loss. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The hearing loss resulting from OM has been linked to attention problems (especially attenbon to language) and resulting language deficits, behavioral problems, and lower school achievement. See, e.g.. L. Feagans and A. Proctor, The effects of mild illness in infancy on later developmenk The sample case of the effects of otitis media (middle ear effusion), in C. B. Fisher and R. M. Learner (eds.). Applied Developmental Psychology, Cambridge, MA, McGraw-Hill, 1994. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 82

84. According to Gyorgy Gergely (1 9941, visual feature representation is a necessary precondition for: a. gender identity development b. mirror self-recognition c. attachment d. social referencing

Answer 82

84. Mirror self-recognition in children, dolphins, and elephants has generated a considerable amount of research in the last decade. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b, b. CORRECT According to G. Gergely, the ability to recognize oneself in the mirror (which occurs between 1-112 and 2 years in humans) requires a certain level of cognitive development. One cognitive prerequisite is the construction of "a visual feature representation of the typical physical appearance of the not-directly-visible parts of ... [the] body" (p. 55). [From self-recognition to theory of mind, in S. T. Parker et al., (eds.), Self-Awareness in Animals and Humans, Boston, Cambridge University Press. 1994.1 c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b

Question 83

85. A survey conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of31d, 6'h, gth, and lzth graders found that, as children move toward the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more: a. distant b. egalitarian c. conflictual d. complementary

Answer 83

85. Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child Development, 1990, 6 1, 1387- 1398). a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 84

86. Petit ma1 (absence) seizures appear to have their origin in which area of the brain: a. motor cortex b. occipital lobe c. amygdala d. thalamus

Answer 84

86. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by an altered level of consciousness without significant motor symptoms. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d d. CORRECT Research with animals and humans indicates that petit mal seizures begin in the thalamus, which is considered the "gateway to consciousness." For example, research with rats has linked an overabundance of GABA receptors in the thalamus to petit mal seizures.

Question 85

87. Recent research indicates thatpeople with Parkinson's disease have lost at least 80% of a. norepinephrine b. dopamine c. serotonin d. glutamate - producing cells in the substantia nigra.

Answer 85

87. Knowing that dopamlne is involved in the control of voluntary motor movements would have helped you select the correct response to this question. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine contributes to movement disorders such as Parkinson's disease and Huntington's chorea. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b. ! 88. Huntington's disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements. a. CORRECT The caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington's disease. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 86

88. An MRI of apatient with Huntington's chorea is most likely to show atrophy in which brain structure: a. caudate nucleus b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. septum d. medulla

Answer 86

88. Huntington's disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements. a. CORRECT The caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington's disease. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 87

89. Survey feedback is a method of organizational development that is based on the premise that: a. people are not usually open and honest with each other b. work groups are the basic foundation of an organization c. organizational output is a function of both production and people d. employees need to understand an organization's strengths and weaknesses

Answer 87

89. Organization development encompasses a variety of techniques, ## Footnote a. Incorrect This sounds more like sensitivity training. b. Incorrect This is an assumption underlying the technique known as team building. c. Incorrect This describes an assumption underlying organizational grid training. d. CORRECT The survey feedback technique involves collecting data about the strengths and weaknesses of an organization from employees at all leveis: providing employees with the results of the survey; and helping employees use the data to identify ways to overcome current problems.

Question 88

90. In the 1950% researchers at Ohio State University developed an inguential theory oj leadership that focused on a leader's: a. personality traits b. behaviors c. attitudes toward subordinates d. power

Answer 88

90. Results of the Ohio State leadership studies indicated that leaders can be described in terms of two behavioral dimensions - consideration and initiating structure. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The Ohio State group focused on the behaviors exhibited by supervisors and other organizational leaders. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b

Question 89

91. For patients with Alzheimer's dementia, deficits in semantic memory: a. are apparent prior to deficits in episodic memory b. are not apparent until the final stages of the disorder c. are apparent in the early stages of the disorder but may he more subtle than deficits in episodic memory d. are initially indistinguishable from deficits associated with normal age-related cognitive decline

Answer 89

9 1. Although the early stages of Alzheimer's Dementia are most associated with impairments in episodic memory, recent research has confirmed subtle but significant deficits in semantic memory as well. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c c. CORRECT An early symptom of Alzheimer's Dementia is difficulties in verbal production, which are believed to be due to impaired semantic memory. See, e.g., D. Rohrer et al., Retrieval from semantic memory and its implication for Alzheimer's Disorder, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Learning, Memory, and Cognition, 1995, 2 1(5), 1 127- 1 139. d. Incorrect Certain memory symptoms (e.g., problems in verbal production without deficits in verbal comprehension) due to impaired semantic memory are now considered one of the "hallmarks" of Alzheimer's Dementia and help distinguish it from other forms of dementia and age-related cognitive decline.

Question 90

92. Diabetes mellitus has been identfied as a risk factor for Vascular Dementia. With regard to Alzheimer's Dementia, diabetes: a. is not associated with an increased risk b. is associated with an increased risk only for those who do not receive insulin treatment c. is associated with an increased risk even among those who did receive insulin treatment d. is associated with an increased risk only for the early onset type of Alzheimer's Dementia

Answer 90

92. Diabetes has been recognized as a high risk factor for Vascular Dementia for some time but has also been recently linked to Alzheimer's Dementia. a. Incorrect See explanation below. b. Incorrect See explanation below. c. CORRECT The risk for Alzheimer's Dementia is double for those with diabetes and four times greater for those with diabetes who receive insulin treatment. See, e.g., A. Ott et al., Diabetes mellitus: The risk for dementia, Neurology, 1999, 53, 1937-1942. d. Incorrect In Ott et al.'s study, 14% of patients with diabetes eventually developed Vascular Dementia, while 70% developed Alzheimer's Dementia.

Question 91

93. When using the Adult Attachment Interview, a mother will be classfied as Ifshe describes her parents in positive terms (e.g., "Dad was a very Loving person") but either reports negative interactions with her parents or says she can't remember any early interactions with them. a. dismissing b. preoccupied c. unresolved/disorganized d. resistant

Answer 91

93. The Adult Attachment Interview categorizes respondents in terms of three main categories - autonomous, dismissing, and preoccupied. a. CORRECT Dismissing individuals describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions. b. Incorrect Preoccupied individuals are confused, angry, or passively preoccupied with attachment figures. c. Incorrect The Adult Attachment Interview includes a fourth category (unresolved/disorganized) that is assigned to respondents who have an unresolved experience related to loss or abuse. It is assigned in conjunction with one of the three categories listed above. d. Incorrect This is not one of the scoring categories for the Adult Attachment Interview.

Question 92

94. A woman is having trouble with her six-month old son who often '~mses" at bedtime and wakes up at least once or twice during the night. She does an Internet search on the problem and finds several articles about Dr. Richard Ferber. She Learns that his method for getting babies to sleep ("Ferberizing") is supported by many experts and involves: a. a "progressive-waiting" approach b. therapeutic touch c. a "cold turkey" approach d. co-sleeping

Answer 92

94. Ferber's method is similar to that promoted by a number of other experts including T. Berry Brazelton and William Sears. a. CORRECT When using Ferber's method, the parent puts the child to bed. If he cries, the parent returns and reassures the child and pats him on the back but does not pick him up. If the child cries again later, the parent waits a little longer before returning. On subsequent nights, the wait period is gradually increased, which is why the method is known as the progressive waiting method. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 93

95. For all age groups combined, the leading cause of death in the United States is: a. heart disease b. physician error c. stroke d, unintentional injury

Answer 93

95. The leading cause of death in the United States varies for different groups. Note, however, that this question is asking what the leading cause is for all age groups combined. a. CORRECT In 1998, heart disease was responsible for the death of 724,859 people. b. Incorrect Although physician error is not listed in the official statistics, there is evidence that it is the third leading cause of death. See, e.g., B. Starfield, Is U. S. health really the best in the world?, JAMA, 2000. 284(4). 483-485. c. Incorrect Stroke is listed in the official statistics as the third leading cause of death and, in I 1998. was responsible for 541,532 deaths. (The second leading cause is cancer.) d. Incorrect Unintentional injury is the leading cause of death for individuals from birth to age 34 but, overall, is the fifth leading cause (97,835 deaths in 1998). See CDC Office of Statistics, "10 Leading Causes of Death, United States, 1998," http://webapp.cdc.gov/cgi-bin.

Question 94

96. Recent research using brain imaging techniques, has found that signfflcant atrophy in the distinguishes people with Alzheimer's dementia from healthy peers. a. vestibular nucleus b, hypothalamus c. entorhinal cortex d. somatosensory cortex

Answer 94

96. Although pathology in several areas of the brain has been linked to Alzheimer's Dementia, recent research has found that one particular area most clearly distinguishes between individuals with and without the disorder. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c b. Incorrect See explanation for response c c. CORRECT MRIs have revealed that individuals in the early stages of Alzheimer's Dementia have a reduction in the volume of the entorhinal cortex of up to 30% when compared to healthy peers and that those in the later stages show a reduction of up to 45%. See, e.g., M. Bobinski et al., MRI of entorhinal cortex in mild Alzheimer's disease, Lancet, 1999, 353, 38-40. d. Incorrect See explanation for responsec.

Question 95

97. Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model of memory: a. describes memory in terms of a "dual store" b. implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal c, implies that the duration of rehearsal is more important that the depth of rehearsal d, focuses on the biological correlates of the short- and long-term memory

Answer 95

97. L. Craik and R. Lockart proposed the levels of processing model as an alternative to the three-store model of memory (Levels of processing: A framework for memory research, Journal of Verbal Learning and Verbal Behavior, 1972, 11, 671-6841, a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT According to the levels of processing model, the semantic level is the deepest level of processing and produces the best recall. Elaborative rehearsal involves encoding material semantically (in terms of meaning). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b

Question 96

98. Treisman and Gelade's (1980)feature integration theory would be of most interest to a psychologist conducting research on: a. prejudice b, conflict resolution c. visual selective attention d. long-term memory

Answer 96

98. To answer this question, you have to know that the full name of feature integration theory is "feature integration theory of attention." a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT According the feature integration theory, the perception of objects involves two stages - preattentive in which the basic aspects of an object are perceived in parallel (e.g., edges, size, color) and attentive in which these features are "glued together into a coherent . whole through a serial process. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 97

99. Research investigating the impact of family characteristics on altruism and other prosocial behauiors has shown that: a. children from high-income families are more prosocial than children from low-income families both outside and inside the home setting b. children from large families are more prosocial than those from smaller families c. younger siblings are more prosocial than firstborns d. it is difficult to draw general conclusions about the relationship between family income, number of children, or ordinal position in the family and prosocial behaviors

Answer 97

99. The research has produced inconsistent results with regard to the relationships between certain family characteristics and prosocial behaviors in children. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT This is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing research. See, e. g., N. Eisenberg and R. A. Fabes, Prosocial development, in W. Damon and N. Eisenberg (eds. ), Handbook of Child Psychology, Volume 3, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1998. As an example, with regard to family size, some studies have found family size to be unrelated to prosocial behavior, while others have found children in large families to be more generous but less likely to help in emergency situations or to comfort a peer.

Question 98

100. Thomas and Collier (1995) reviewed the records of42.000 language minority students inj'iue U. S. school districts from 1982 to 1996 and concluded that: a. immersion programs have better short- and long-term effects on academic achievement than bilingual programs b. bilingual programs have better short- and long-term effects on academic achievement than immersion programs c. although there may be some advantage of immersion programs in terms of short-term effects on academic achievement, bilingual programs are superior in terms of long-term effects d. although there may be some advantage of bilingual programs in terms of short-term effects on academic achievement, immersion programs are superior in terms of long-term effects

Answer 98

100. The Thomas and Collier longitudinal study contradicts some of the earlier research. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c c. CORRECT Thomas and Collier found that language minority children who rematn in bilingual programs at least through sixth grade eventually catch up to and often surpass native English speakers and language minority children in immersion programs. They also found two-way bilingual programs (m which language minority and majority children learn each other's languages) to have the best long-term outcomes for language minority children. Note that this issue contmues to be controversial, with some experts cr~ticizing the methodology used by Thomas and Collier. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 99

101. A family therapist whose approach incorporates social learning theory is likely to combine behavioral techniques with which of thefollowing: a. insight-oriented exercises b, modification of the family's environment c. cognitive-restructuring exercises d. enhancing problem-solving and communication skills

Answer 99

101. Social learning theory emphasizes the impact of reciprocal interactions on behavior. Communication represents an important form of interaction between family members; and altering communication patterns and the ways that family members resolve problems is considered a critical part of therapy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." d. CORRECT Stuart (1969) and Liberman, et al. (1980) are two family therapists who incorporate social learning principles into their approach. Both emphasize behavioral techniques (e.g., contingency contracting) and problem-solving and communication skills.

Question 100

102. From the perspective of Beck's cognitive therapy, the information processing of suicidal individuals is characterized by a high degree of hopelessness and: a. equivocation b, dichotomous thinking c. personalization d. automatic thinking

Answer 100

102. This one is difficult because three of the terms provided in the responses are used by Beck (dichotomous thinking, personalization, and automatic thinking). However, only one is considered a key feature of the thinking of suicidal individuals. (See A. Beck and A. Rush, Cognitive therapy, in H. I. Kaplan and B. J. Sadock, Comprehensive Textbook of PsychiatryM, Baltimore, Williams and Wilkins, 1995.) a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." b. CORRECT According to Beck, hopelessness and rigid, black-and-white thinking are the essential cognitive characteristics of suicidal individuals. Treatment, therefore, targets the individual's sense of hopelessness and dichotomous thinking. c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." I

Question 101

103. Children at risk for antisocial behavior are most likely to have positive outcomes when: a. they have higher IQs b. they are physically attractive c. they have a special talent d. they have higher self-esteem

Answer 101

103. All of the factors listed in the responses can act as protective mechanisms for children at high risk. Note that this question is asking about a particular kind of risk (risk for antisocial behavior), and that other factors that might be the most important ones for other situations are not given as responses (e.g., good relationship with a caretaker, social responsivity). a. CORRECT A number of studies report that higher IQ is associated with a better outcome for children at high risk for antisocial behavior. See, e.g., A. S. Masten, et al., Resilience and development: Contributions from the study of children who overcome adversity, Development and Psychopathology, 2, 1990, 425-444. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a,"

Question 102

104. The changes in cognitiueflexibility, memory, and everyday behavior (e.g., loss of spontaneity and lack of initiative) that are characteristic of Parkinson's Disease lend support to the hypothesis that this disorder involves subcortical systems that inJuence the: a. frontal lobes b. temporal lobes c. occipital lobes d, parietal lobes

Answer 102

104. Parkinson's Disease is characterized by neuron loss in the substantia nigra and other brain-siem nuclei and the presence of Lewy bodies in the neurons that remain in these regions. a. CORRECT A number of patients with Parkinson's Disease develop dementia, which is currently believed to he of the "subcortical type". There is some evidence that damage to these subcortical areas produces dementia because of their influence on the frontal cortex. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a,"

Question 103

105. In an early study conducted to identry the functional brain abnormalities associated with Schizophrenia, hypofrontaltty was identijied as a possible correlate. Subsequent research has: a. consistently confirmed lower blood flow in the anterior cortex of schizophrenics b. confirmed lower blood flow in the anterior cortex only in neuroleptic-treated I schizophrenics I c. not confirmed lower blood flow in the anterior cortex of schizophrenics except during performance of certain cognitive tasks d. contraindicated the early study by finding a higher blood flow in the anterior cortex of schizophrenics, especially in the resting state

Answer 103

105. The recent research is not entirely consistent, but, overall, it does not confirm the earlier work. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c h. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT The "hypofrontality hypothesis" has not been well supported, although there is at least one study showing that poorer performance by schizophrenics on certain cognitive tasks is associated with lower blood flow in the frontal region of the brain, while the same is not true for normal controls. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 104

106. ADHD is usually not diagnosed during early childhood because: a. DSM-IV requires a duration of symptoms for at least two years for the diagnosis b. DSM-IV requires a disturbance in academic functioning for the diagnosis c. it is difficult to distinguish symptoms of ADHD from age-appropriate behaviors during these years, especially in active children d. parents are often unaware that their child is exhibiting problematic behaviors

Answer 104

106. This issue is addressed in DSM-N, which states that many overactive toddlers do not go on to develop ADHD and, consequently, that care must be taken when assigning this diagnosis to young children. a. Incorrect DSM-N requires a duration of symptoms of at least six months. b. Incorrect Although DSM-N does require impaired functioning for the diagnosis, the problems can be related to social functioning rather than academics. c. CORRECT Young children often exhibit some degree of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity, making it difficult to distinguish between children with and without ADHD prior to age five or six. d. Incorrect This is not cited in the literature as a reason for low rates of diagnosis in young children; and, in fact, parents are often (painfully) aware of their children's excessive activity levels.

Question 105

107. You would be most concerned about a child with ADHD being prescribed methylphenidate if he has a co-diagnosis of: a. Tourette's Disorder b. Conduct Disorder c. Major Depression d. Mental Retardation

Answer 105

107. Methylphenidate is the primary treatment for ADHD. The studies suggest, though, that it may be contraindicated in some cases. a. CORRECT The research on this issue is far from consistent, but there is some agreement among experts that caution is necessary when prescribing methylphenidate for children with existing tics or a family history of tics since the drug may elicit or exacerbate the condition. b. Incorrect See explanation above, c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. Incorrect See explanation above

Question 106

108. From the perspective of two-factor theory, the avoidance response in a phobic reaction is maintained by: a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c, intermittent reinforcement d. vicarious reinforcement

Answer 106

108. Two-factor theory describes phobic reactions as involving both classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. a. CORRECT Negative reinforcement is occurring when a response increases because an aversive stimulus is removed following the response. In phobic reactions, the avoidance response increases because, by avoiding the feared object or event, anxiety is reduced or eliminated. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a,"

Question 107

109. Research investigating the effects of increasing age on rnetamemory suggests that: a. metamemory skills continue to improve throughout the lifespan b. older adults are more likely than younger adults to underestimate the difficulty of a memory task c. older adults are as proficient as younger adults at estimating their ability to recall information they have just studied d. all aspects of metamemory begin to decline in the 4th or 5th decade of life

Answer 107

109. Although some aspects of metamemory decline with increasing age, other aspects seem to be unaffected. a. Incorrect Some aspects of metamemory do show declines with increasing age. b. Incorrect This is actually the opposite of what is true (and what you might have expected): Older people tend to overestimate the difficulty of memory tasks. c. CORRECT Older people seem to be just as accurate at estimating their ability to recall newly-acquired information as younger people. d. Incorrect See explanation above.

Question 108

110. A diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer Type: a. is based primarily on the results of neuroimaging b. is based on the results of a comprehensive battery of cognitive tests c. is diagnosed in the presence of a progressive pattern of decline in functioning with support of the diagnosis from a mental status exam d. is diagnosed when other causes for the observed progressive dementia have been ruled out by a combination of a history, physical findings, and test results

Answer 108

110. There is no definitive set of techniques for diagnosing Alzheimer's Dementia, and the diagnosis is made only when other causes of the observed symptoms have been ruled out. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. d. CORRECT Alzheimer's is difficult to diagnose, especially in the early stages, and a diagnosis is made only in the presence of characteristic symptoms, when there is supporting evidence for the diagnosis, and when other causes of the symptoms have been ruled out.

Question 109

11 1. To establish a behavior that an individual does not naturally emit, you would use: a intermittent reinforcement b. shaping c. response generalization d. priming

Answer 109

11 1. One of the difficulties with operant conditioning is that it is necessary to wait until the organism emits a response so that the consequence of the response (reinforcement or punishment) can be manipulated. To overcome this problem, the desired behavior can be "shaped. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." b. CORRECT Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior. In other words, when using shaping, isn't necessary to wait for the behavior to be emitted. Instead, the behavior is gradually developed or formed by reinforcing responses that come closer and closer to it. c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b."

Question 110

113. Which of the following are symptoms of both Amphetamine Intoxication and Cocaine Intoxication: a, nystagmus, numbness, and muscle rigidity b. blurred vision, tremor, and depressed reflexes c. pupillary dilation, nausea, and sweating d. fatigue, insomnia, and vivid dreams

Answer 110

113. As described in DSM-IV, Amphetamine and Cocaine Intoxication have identical symptoms, and the only distinguishing feature is the type of drug. a. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Phencyclidine Intoxication. b. Incorrect These are symptoms of Inhalant Intoxication. c. CORRECT Amphetamine or Cocaine Intoxication may involve these symptoms as well as tachycardia or bradycardia, psychomotor agitation or retardation, muscle weakness, and confusion. d. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of Amphetamine and Cocaine Withdrawal, not Intoxication.

Question 111

114. Although it is necessary to avoid stereotypes when providing services to members of ethnic and racial minority groups, some generalizations are often made. For example, when working with Hispanic and Hispanic-American clients, it is important to keep in mind all of the following except: a. different levels of acculturation among Hispanics can influence their perceptions of and responses to therapy b. family therapy is often contraindicated because of the hierarchical nature of the Hispanic family c. behavioral and other active, problem-oriented therapies are usually more acceptable than insight-oriented therapies d. sex-roles tend to be demarcated clearly and are fairly rigid

Answer 111

114. Some generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic-American clients have been made in the literature, and you should be familiar with them for the licensing exam a. Incorrect This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life). b. CORRECT Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members. c. Incorrect This is true not only for Hispanics but also members of other minority groups. d. Incorrect This is also generally true.

Question 112

115. Which of the following has been found to be true aboutjob enrichment: a. it is less effective than job enlargement as a means of increasing job satisfaction and performance b, it increases job performance and, to a lesser degree, job satisfaction for most employees c. it increases job satisfaction but has no effect on job performance d. it has positive effects (at least for some employees) on both job satisfaction and job performance

Answer 112

115. Job enrichment involves redesigning a job to make it significantly different in terms of the variety of tasks, autonomy, and responsibility it provides. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d, c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. d. CORRECT Although research on job enrichment has had mixed results, in general, it has been found to result (at least for some employees) in less absenteeism, tardiness, and turnover, increased job satisfaction, and increased job performance, especially in terms of work quality.

Question 113

11 6. The intentional production of a physical symptom for the specfic purpose of obtaining ftnancial benefits is characteristic of: a. Malingering I b. Factitious Disorder c. Conversion Disorder d. Somatization Disorder

Answer 113

116. Two clues to the correct response are given in the question - the intentional production of symptoms and financial benefits. a. CORRECT A characteristic that distinguishes Malingering from similar disorders is that the goal of Malingering is to obtain an external incentive. b. Incorrect Although the symptoms of Factitious Disorder are also intentionally produced or faked, the motivation for the disorder is to assume the sick role. External incentives are absent. c. Incorrect Conversion Disorder is a type of Somatoform Disorder, and its symptoms are not intentionally produced. d. Incorrect Somatization Disorder is also a Somatoform Disorder and does not involve an intentional production of symptoms.

Question 114

11 7. Coefficient alpha is most associated with which of the following: a. internal validity b. the probability of making a Qpe I error c. internal consistency d. incremental validity

Answer 114

117. Coefficient alpha is a type of reliability coefficient. It yields a coefficient of internal consistency. a. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is a type of internal consistency reliability, not a measure of internal validity. b. Incorrect The probability of a Type I error is equal to alpha (the level of significance). Alpha in this situation is NOT referred to as "coefficient alpha." c. CORRECT As noted above, coefficient alpha is a measure of internal consistency. d. Incorrect Coefficient alpha is a measure of reliability, not validity,

Question 115

118. A young man experiences his first episode of Major Depressive Disorder in his mid-20s. If he does not obtain treatment for his depression, it is MOST likely that: a. his symptoms will gradually decline over a six to twelve month period and then remain steady in intensity b. his symptoms will remit within three to six months and they may or may not return in the future c. his symptoms will remit within two to six weeks and they may or may not return in the future d, his symptoms will gradually worsen over time

Answer 115

118. Without treatment, a Major Depressive episode ordinarily lasts three to six months. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b" b. CORRECT About 50% of people experiencing their first depressive episode will fully recover within six months with no further symptoms, while 40% will experience recurrent episodes. c. Incorrect Symptoms typically do not remit this quickly without treatment. d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b".

Question 116

119. For Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict: a. is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength b. is a dilemma that is often resolved by "leaving the field" and choosing a third goal c. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases d. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected

Answer 116

119. Miller and Dollard distinguish between three conflicts: approach-avoidance, avoidance-avoidance, and approach-approach. a. Incorrect This is not a prediction made by Miller and Dollard but does sound somewhat like what Lewin concluded about this type of dilemma. b. Incorrect This sounds more like what Lewin concluded about avoidance-avoidance conflicts. c. CORRECT According to Miller and Dollard, the approach-approach conflict is not really a dilemma. When it does arouse conflict, it is because there are hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating. d. Incorrect See explanations above.

Question 117

120. As defined in DSM-IV, a diagnosis of ADHD, Predominantly Inattentive Type is made when a child exhibits: a. at least six symptoms of inattention with no symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity b. at least six symptoms of inattention and fewer than six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity c. at least eight symptoms of inattention and fewer than four symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity d. a larger number of symptoms of inattention than of hyperactivity-impulsivity

Answer 117

120. DSM-N distinguishes between three subtypes of ADHD: Combined Type. Predominantly Inattentive Type, and Predominantly Hyperactive-Impulsive Type. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The term "predominantly" indicates that there can be some symptoms of the other type but that one type of symptoms are more frequent. The number of symptoms in this response reflects the requirements of DSM-N for a diagnosis of Predominantly Inattentive Type c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect This answer isn't entireIy wrong, but it's not as precise as response b and leaves open the possibility, for instance, of four symptoms of inattention and two symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity, which wouldn't be sufficient for the diagnosis.

Question 118

121. A 50-year old man with a frontal lobe tumor has discrepant motor and verbal behavior, occasional episodes of aggression, and problems in initiating behavioral activities. Other symptoms likely to be exhibited by this man include: a. impulsivity and inappropriate euphoria b. impaired sustained attention and motor perseveration c. sparse verbal output and lower extremity weakness d. occasional hallucinations and a "dazed feeling

Answer 118

121. The symptoms caused by a tumor in the frontal lobe depends on its location. The symptoms given in the question are characteristic of frontal convexity syndrome, which is characterized by apathy. a. Incorrect These symptoms are consistent with orbitofrontal syndrome, which is marked by disinhibited behavior. b. CORRECT These symptoms are consistent with frontal convexity syndrome c. Incorrect These symptoms suggest medial frontal (akinetic) syndrome ' d. Incorrect These symptoms are suggestive of a temporal lobe tumor

Question 119

122. Which of the following aspects of the CNS is least well-developed at birth: a. diencephalon b. midbrain c. cerebral cortex d. cerebellum

Answer 119

122. The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly sequence. At birth, the infant's brain is about one-fourth the size of an adult brain. a. Incorrect The diencephalon is sufficiently well-developed at birth to allow for critical functions that are necessary for life. b. Incorrect Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively well-developed at birth c. CORRECT The cortex is not well-developed at birth, which sugests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, and planning] do not fully develop until around 15 years of age. d. Incorrect The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas governing the higher cognitive functions.

Question 120

123. In his book, The Nature qf Prciudu Gordon Allport concludes that: a. stateways cannot change folkways b. stateways can only intens@ existing folkways c. stateways are often in advance of folkways d. folkways always proceed stateways

Answer 120

123. In contrast to the traditional view that "stateways cannot change folkways" le.g., you cannot legislate against racial prejudice), Nlport asserts that, at least in the United States, stateways are often in advance of folkways. a. Incorrect This is not the view expressed by Niport. b. Incorrect This is not the view expressed by Allport. c. CORRECT Allport proposes that, while laws do not prevent violations altogether, they do act as a restraint and can, therefore, break the vicious cycle of racial prejudice and discrimination. In other words, by terminating the overt signs of prejudice through legislation, the open expression of prejudice is discouraged and, eventually, thoughts and attitudes "fall into line." d. Incorrect This is not the view expressed by Allport.

Question 121

124. Damage to the cerebellum is associated with all of the following except: a. apraxia b. ataxia c. dysarthria d. nystagmus

Answer 121

124. The cerebellum is responsible for the maintenance of posture and balance and the coordination of movement. a. CORRECT Apraxia is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle coordination and power. It is associated mostly with damage to the parietal lobe b. Incorrect Ataxia (jerky, staggering gait and other uncoordinated movements) is caused by damage to the cerebellum. c. Incorrect Damage to the cerebellum is one of the causes ofdysarthria(s1urred speech). d. Incorrect Nystagmus involves jerky eye movements and an inability to fix the gaze in one direction. It can be produced by damage to the cerebellum.

Question 122

125. The best predictor of suicide is generally considered to be: a. lack of social support b. increase in somatic symptoms c, family history of suicide d. prior suicide attempt(s)

Answer 122

125. Once again, the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT One of the most frequently cited facts in the literature on the predictors of suicide is that a previous suicide attempt is often the best predictor of death by suicide, with reported rates ranging from 40 to 80% of people who commit suicide having made one or more previous attempts.

Question 123

126. Which of the following theories wouldpredict thatjob enrichment would have a detrimental effect on job performance: a. two-factor b. activation c. equity d. scientific management

Answer 123

126. Job enrichment involves altering the nature of a job in order to improve worker motivation and satisfaction. a. Incorrect Job enrichment was originally developed from two-factor theory, which proposes that job motivation and satisfaction are related to the availability of motivator factors (e.g., responsibility, recognition, independence). b. Incorrect Activation theory proposes that energy expenditure and performance are positively related to stimulus variability. Enriched jobs provide stimulus variability and therefore should increase activation (motivation) level and performance. c. Incorrect Equity theory would also view job enrichment as positive since it would increase the outcome portion of the input-outcome ratio and thereby make inequities less likely. d. CORRECT According to scientific management theory, workers are motivated only by external rewards (especially pay), not the intrinsic factors that are provided by job enrichment.

Question 124

127. Which of the following individuals is incorrectly matched with his view of development: a. Carl Rogers: As long as a person doesn't experience distortion of denial of hisiher self-structure, the person will naturally grow toward self-actualization b. Erik Erikson: People are propelled by psychological and social forces and will develop in healthy ways as long as they are provided with appropriate social experiences C. B. F. Skinner: Maladjustment is specific to the culture, the time, the social class, and the situation d. Aaron Beck: Personality reflects cognitions that develop through a process of i "reciprocal determinism"

Answer 124

127. Being familiar with the essential characteristics of the personality theory of each theorist listed should have helped you choose the correct answer to this question. a. Incorrect Rogers is associated with a belief in the natural tendency toward self-actualizatior b. Incorrect Erikson outlined six stages of psychosocial development and thus emphasized the role of social factors in development. c. Incorrect This one is a little more difficult: Skinner viewed behavior as being determined by the consequences that have followed it. Therefore, behavior is likely to vary from culture to culture, situation to situation, etc. d. CORRECT By a process of elimination, this is the only response that isn't correct. It may have been difficult, however: Beck is associated with cognitive therapy; the notion of reciproca determinism is part of Bandura's social learning theory.

Question 125

128. Developmental research has most consistently linked anxiety in an expectant mother to which of the following: a. premature birth b. childhood autism c. increased crying in the newborn d, decreased activity levels in the newborn

Answer 125

128. Developmental psychologists have found that a pregnant woman's behaviors can have lasting effects on the fetus. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c" b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT Of the responses given, increased crying in the newborn has been most consistently linked to anxiety in the expectant mother. d. Incorrect Anxiety in the expectant mother is associated with increased activity levels in the newborn.

Question 126

129. When attempting to determine the likelihood that workers will stay on thefob, it is important to keep in mind thatjob turnover is LEAST related to: a. job satisfaction b. job performance c. job interest d. availability of other jobs

Answer 126

129. This is one of those questions that could probably be answered easiest (especially if you are unfamiliar with the research) through common sense and the process of elimination. ' a. Incorrect Satisfied employees do tend to stay on the job. b. CORRECT This seems somewhat counterintuitive, but the research has found that there is no consistent relationship between quitting and job performance. c. Incorrect People who are interested in their jobs tend to stay on the job d. Incorrect Economic factors (such as the availability of other jobs) is the strongest predictor of job turnover.

Question 127

130. Apsychologist is contacted by the father of a 10-year old girl. The man wants the psychologist to test the girl to determine ifshe should be placed in a school for gifted children. Before administering the tests, the psychologist learns that the girl's parents are divorced and that the father is the noncustodial parent. The psychologist should: a. test the girl as requested by the father b. obtain consent from the girl before testing c. obtain consent from the custodial parent before testing d. refuse to test the girl

Answer 127

130. Because the child is a minor, the psychologist should attempt to obtain the permission of the child's custodial parent before administering the test. a. Incorrect This action would not be consistent with the ethical guidelines and may violate legal requirements. b. Incorrect Since the girl is a minor, this would not be an appropriate course of action c. CORRECT Before administering the test, the psychologist should attempt to obtain the custodial parent's consent. d. Incorrect The best first course of action would be to attempt to obtain consent from the custodial parent.

Question 128

131. You are working as a consultant at a factory and yourjob includes interviewing executives and assembly-line workers about the changes they would like to see in theirjobs in order to make them more meaningful. Which of the following describes the most likely results of your interviews: a. both executives and assembly-line workers will say they would like more status in their jobs b. executives will say that want more status in their jobs, while assembly line worker will say they want higher pay c. executives will say they want higher pay, while assembly-line workers will say they want more status d, both executives and assembly-line workers will say they want higher pay

Answer 128

131. The answer to this question is provided by research investigating Maslow's need hierarchy theory. Maslow viewed motivation as the result of five basic needs: physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization. According to Maslow, these needs are arranged in a hierarchy so that each need acts as a motivator only when the previous need had been satisfied and that once a need has been satisfied, it no longer acts as a motivator. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." b. CORRECT Research on need-hierarchy theory has revealed that the importance of needs is related to job level. Managers tend to rate higher level needs as more important, while non-managers rate lower level needs as more important. Thus, executives are more likely to rate status (esteem) as more important and assembly line workers are more likely to rate pay (physiological and safety needs) as more important. c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b." d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b."

Question 129

132. Ebbinghaus was one of the first investigators to systematically study memory. In his studies, Ebbinghaus used himseras a subject and memorized lists of nonsense syllables. Results of his research indicated that: a. syllables in the middle of a list are better remembered than those at the beginning and end of the list b. when memorizing syllables, new learning tends to interfere with previous learning c. overlearning improves memory for syllables up to a point but thereafter has no effect d. rote learning of syllables tends to lead to rapid forgetting

Answer 129

132. Ebbinghaus was interested in assessing the effects of time on memory and, based on the results of his studies, constructed a "curve of forgetting," wllich shows that 50% of memorized syllables are forgotten within less than one hour. a. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. In addition, this was not a phenomenon discussed by Ebbinghaus. b. Incorrect This phenomenon is referred to as retroactive inhibition but was not discussed by Ebbinghaus. C. Incorrect This is not true; the greater the overlearning, the greater the retention d. CORRECT Ebbinghaus memorized syllables using rote learning (verbatim learning through repetition) and found that rote learning of nonsense syllables leads to rapid forgetting.

Question 130

133. Which of the following disorders is known to be caused by brain lesions: a. myasthenia gravis b. cerebral palsy c. cystic fibrosis d. Parkinson's disease

Answer 130

133. Although all of the disorders listed are attributable to nervous system dysfunction, only one is known to be associated with brain lesions. a. Incorrect Myasthenia gravis is a disorder of neuromusc~lar transmission. Although its underlying cause is unknown, it apparently involves inhibition of nerve action potentials as the result of a presynaptic abnormality or postsynaptic insensitivity. I b. CORRECT The term "cerebral palsy" is used to describe a number of motor disorders resulting from brain lesions that cause persistent, nonprogressive motor dysfunction. The causes of cerebral palsy may be prenatal (e.g., heredity, anoxia, or metabolic disturbance), natal (e.g., anoxia or trauma), or postnatal (e.g., trauma, infection, toxic poisoning). c. Incorrect Cystic fibrosis is a genetically-transmitted disorder that affects exocrine gland functioning. d. Incorrect Parkinson's disease, an extrapyramidal system disease that affects the control of voluntary movements, is believed to be due to a lack of dopamine in the basal ganglia.

Question 131

135. Research aboutfob satisfaction has most consistently found that: a, job satisfaction is inversely related to turnover and absenteeism b, job satisfaction is inversely related to age c. job satisfaction is inversely related to education level d. job satisfaction levels are the same for males and females

Answer 131

135. There has been a myriad of research investigatiflg the relationship between job satisfaction and various measures of job performance. The most consistent finding is that job satisfaction is inversely related to absenteeism and turnover. a. CORRECT Job satisfaction has consistently been found lo be inversely correlated with both turnover and absenteeism (although it appears to have a slightly stronger relationship with turnover than absenteeism). b. Incorrect Conversely, job satisfaction tends to increase with age. c. Incorrect Conversely, individuals with higher levels of education tend to have higher levels of satisfaction. d. Incorrect The results of research investigating the differences between males and females have been inconsistent. Some studies indicate that males tend to be more satisfied, while others indicate that females are more satisfied.

Question 132

136. After one year of therapy, about -percent of clients can be expected to show measurable improvement in symptoms: a. 90 to 95 b. 75 to 85 c. 55 to 65 d. 40 to 50

Answer 132

136. Different studies report different "cure" rates, but 75% is probably the most ' commonly-cited figure. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT The rates vary somewhat from study to study but are generally around 75% for 26 weeks of therapy with a slight increase in this number (low 80s) for one year or longer. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 133

137. The only time a client is able to see you is during her lunch hour, which requires her session to be limited to 30 minutes because of the distance she must travel to get to your office. When you bill her insurance company, however, you bill for the entire hour. This is: a. ethical since the shorter sessions are being provided at the client's request b. ethical since your policy is to always bill clients for an entire hour c. unethical d. a legal, but not an ethical, issue

Answer 133

137. The action described in this question represents insurance fraud which is both illegal and unethical. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c" b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT This is the best answer of those given. Providing any inaccurate information to the insurance company would represent insurance fraud. d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c".

Question 134

138. Research investigating the relationship between therapy duration and therapy outcome has generally found that: a. improvement in symptoms is greater during the early sessions of therapy than during I the later sessions b. improvement in symptoms continues to increase throughout the duration of therapy c. improvement in symptoms is not related to duration of therapy d, improvement in symptoms is negatively related to number of therapy sessions

Answer 134

138. For most questions about the relationship between therapist, client, or process variables and therapy outcome, the best answer is "no relationship." This is an exception to that rule. a. CORRECT Most studies have found a positive relationship between therapy duration and outcome but only up to a point. For example, many studies have demonstrated that time-limited therapies are more effective than longer treatments. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "a". c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a" d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a"

Question 135

139. Of the following, which is most true about adolescents who have a history of repeated suicide attempts: a. the failure of their attempts is usually due to a lack of access to lethal means b. their continued threats to commit suicide are of minimal concern because very few adolescent repeat attempters actually complete suicide c. the real purpose of their suicide attempts is often to exert power in situations in which they feel powerless d. their suicide attempts are often a self-imposed extension of the physical abuse they have experienced since early childhood

Answer 135

139. The largest increase in the rates of suicide and suicide attempts in recent years is among adolescents. a. Incorrect Lack of access to lethal means has not been identified as an explanation for repeated attempts among adolescents. In fact, one pattern that has been identified is a trend toward increasing lethality with each attempt. b. Incorrect Suicide attempts should always be taken seriously regardless of the person's past history. Many people with a history of attempts do ultimately kill themselves. c. CORRECT Among adolescent repeat attempters, the purpose of the attempts is often interpersonal (conflicts with family members) and/or illstrumental (an attempt to obtain attention). Thus, the attempts can be viewed as a desire to claim power in situations in which the adolescent feels powerless. d. Incorrect Although childhood abuse is certainly linked with a number of problems (including depression and suicide), this particular dynamic (the attempt reflecting an extension of abuse) has not been identified as a causal agent in repeated suicide attempts among adolescents.

Question 136

140. For gay and lesbian adolescents, the primary presenting problem at social service agencies is: a, suicidal ideation b. drug or alcohol abuse c. social and emotional isolation d. academic problems

Answer 136

140. Gay and lesbian adolescents face the same problems as their heterosexual peers. In addition, their identity development is complicated by a lack of role models and stigmatization. a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Isolation is frequently cited as a primary problem for gay and lesbian adolescents, and one study found it to be the single-most frequent presenting problem (A. D. Martin and E. S. Hetrick, The stigmatization of the gay and lesbian adolescent, Journal of Homosexuality, 88, 15(1-2), 163-183). d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 137

141. The term "insanity" is: a. a legal term b. a psychiatric term c. a psychological term that refers to psychotic disorders d. a term used only by nonprofessionals

Answer 137

141. In the past, the term "insanity" was used by psychiatrists and psychologists to denote a severe mental disorder, but it is now used only as a legal term only. a. CORRECT An "insane" person is an individual who has been judged in a court of law to be so psychologically deranged that he or she cannot be held responsible for criminal behavior. b. Incorrect This is no longer true. c. Incorrect This is no longer true. d. Incorrect Although the term "insanity" is often used by nonprofessionals, it is also a legal term.

Question 138

142. Frequent conflicts, especially those involving open expressions of hostility, between husbands and wives: a. is more likely to lead to increases in undercontrolled behaviors in male children than in female children b. is more likely to lead to increases in undercontrolled behaviors in female children than in male children c. has similar negative behavioral consequences for male and female children d. has not been linked to particular behavioral problems in either male or female children

Answer 138

142. Frequent open expressions of hostility between parents are, of course, unpleasant for all parties involved. The research suggests, however, that, with regard to the children, its effects are more adverse for boys. a. CORRECT Marked parental turmoil tends to have a more significant negative effect on boys than girls, with boys from highly conflictual homes exhibiting more aggressive, impulsive, and other undercontrolled behaviors. b. Incorrect Girls seems to be less affected by parental conflict. However, some authors suggest that the behavioral consequences are less obvious; i.e., girls tend to become more anxious, withdrawn, and well-behaved. c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a" d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a".

Question 139

143. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is characterized by: a. ataxia, cardiac arrhythmia, and delirium b. headache, tremor, and confusion C. nausea and vomiting, loss of coordination, and seizures d. muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and stupor

Answer 139

143. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptic drugs that may be caused by dopamine blockage in the basal ganglia. a. Incorrect These are symptoms of tricyclic overdose. b. Incorrect These symptoms are characteristic of 5-HT toxicity syndrome. c. Incorrect These symptoms suggest lithium toxicity. d. CORRECT These are the core symptoms of NMS. Other symptoms include painful joints, mutism, tachycardia, and urinary retention.

Question 140

144. The most recent edition of the Stanford-Binet represents an extensive revision of this test. Among other things, when using the new fourth edition of the Stanford-Binet: 1. it is no longer necessary to score items as they are administered 2. performance on the vocabulary subtest is used to help determine "entry level" on all other subtests 3. fifteen different subtests are administered to each examinee 4, raw subtest scores for each subtest are converted to standard scores that have a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 8 a. 1 and 4 only b. 2 and 4 only c. 1, 2, and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 140

144. The most recent version of the Stanford-Binet (4th edition) differs from its predecessors in several important ways. Continuity with previous editions was maintained, however, by retaining many of the item types from earlier versions and the use of an adaptive testing procedure. a. Incorrect It is still necessary to score items as they are administered. b. CORRECT Of the responses given, only these two (#s 2 and 4) accurately describe the current version of the Stanford-Binet. c. Incorrect Although the test includes 15 subtests, not all subtests are administered to all age groups. d. Incorrect As noted above, #1 and K3 are not true

Question 141

145. Which of the following patient characteristics has been found to most consistently correlate with therapy outcome: a. gender b. intelligence c. social class d. age

Answer 141

145. Despite extensive research, few patient characteristics have been linked to successful therapy outcome. a. Incorrect Women more commonly seek and are accepted into treatment and are more likely to report satisfaction with therapy. However, no consistent relationship has been found between gender and therapy outcome. b. CORRECT Of the characteristics listed, intelligence bas been most consistently associated with therapy outcome (with higher levels of intelligence being linked to more positive outcome). Other patient factors that correlate positively with therapy outcome include educational level, ego strength, anxiety tolerance, attractiveness, and client participation. c. Incorrect Lower socioeconomic class (SESI patients are more likely to receive lower quality treatment, be assigned apoor prognosis, and terminate therapy prematurely. However, when they remain in therapy, low SES clients benefit from it about as much as middle-class clients. d. Incorrect Although older clients express greater satisfaction with therapy, there is no relationship between therapy outcome and age.

Question 142

146. Numerous studies have found that social support is a causal contributor to physical and psychological health. Further, research on the "buffering hypothesis" indicates that the critical factor in determining ifa person's health will be adversely aflected by stress is whether: a. the person has a sufficient number of social supports b. the person perceives available supports to be adequate c. the person has previously received support in the past d. the person's support system is actually adequate

Answer 142

146. Research on the "buffering hypothesis" has focused on the individual's perceived (versus actual) support system. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "b b. CORRECT Most measures of support in the research on the buffering hypothesis have assessed perceived availability of adequate support, and this seems to be the crucial factor in determining whether social support reduces the negative effects of stress. c. Incorrect See explanation for response "b d. Incorrect See explanation for response "b"

Question 143

147. In a study of group conflict among boys at a boy's camp, researchers attempted to identify effective methods for reducing conflicts between groups. Results of the study demonstrated that conflict between groups is best alleviated by which of the following techniques: a. having group members work toward a common goal b. creating competition between groups c. increasing contact between members of competing groups under pleasant circumstances d. introducing a "common enemy"

Answer 143

147. In a study similar to the one described in this question (the "Robber's Cave" study). Sherif and his colleagues (1961) first established intergroup conflict by putting two groups of campers in competition for rewards that only one group could obtain. They then tried various methods for reducing the conflict they had created. a. CORRECT Sherif, et al. found that conflict between groups was best resolved when groups were united in the pursuit of a "superordinate" goal that could be achieved only through cooperation. b. Incorrect This is the method Sherif, et al, used to create conflict between groups. c. Incorrect Increasing interpersonal contact under positive conditions only provided members of the groups with more opportunities to express hostility toward one another. d. Incorrect Introducing a third group as a common enemy simply widened the scope of hostility.

Question 144

148. In terms of group therapy, premature termination has been found to depend most on the members': a. locus of control b. expectations c. psychological mindedness d. diagnosis

Answer 144

148. One of the most consistent findings of the research on group therapy is that people who terminate prematurely from group treatment are those who have unrealistic expectations and I unfavorable attitudes. l a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Because of the relationship between unrealistic expectations and premature termination, experts suggest that, to ensure the success of a therapy group, members should be selected through prescreening or should be given some type of pregroup training. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 145

149. Your client, a 75-year old woman, is displaying symptoms of paranoia. Along with a supportive environment, the best treatment for this client would probably be: a. hospitalization b. crisis intervention c. phenothiazines d. behavior therapy

Answer 145

149. With the elderly, paranoid reactions are possible associated features of Delirium and Dementia and are specifically associated with Alzheimer's Disease. a. Incorrect When hospitalized, paranoid individuals often view themselves as superior to other patients, and they may keep quiet about their delusions in order to obtain early release. b. Incorrect Although paranoid symptoms may or may not qualify as or be associated with a crisis (defined as involving a precipitating event that is time-limited and that disrupts the individual's usual coping and problem-solving strategies), paranoid individuals, because of their suspiciousness, do not respond well to therapeutic interventions such as crisis intervention. c. CORRECT When an elderly client displays paranoid reactions, small doses of a major tranquilizer, such as phenothiazine, and a supportive environment are the most effective forms of treatment. It is also important to correct any sensory deficits that may be contributing to the client's paranoia. d. Incorrect Behavior therapy has not been found to be particularly useful for reducing the paranoia of elderly individuals.

Question 146

150. Theparents ofa child who has suffered brain injury are concerned about what to expect regarding the child's recovery. You can tell them that: a. most recovery occurs in the first year after the injury b. healing takes place more quickly on the dominant side of the brain c. brain trauma to children generally takes longer to heal than that suffered by adults d. it is impossible to predict when recovery will begin

Answer 146

150. Recovery from brain trauma depends, of course, on the location and extent of the injury. However, certain generalizations about recovery can be made. a. CORRECT In general, the greatest amount of recovery takes place during the first year after the injury. b. Incorrect This is not generally true about brain injury. c. Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a".

Question 147

151. As used by Lorenz, the term "critical period" refers to: a. the ages three to six months, during which many psychologists believe the basic structure of the personality is formed b. the interval between the presentation of an unconditioned stimulus and a conditioned stimulus c. the Iast two minutes of a sporting event, when, according to many sports psychologists, the greatest amount of stress to fans occurs d. a period shortly after birth, which many theorists regard as the time in which an infant bonds with its mother

Answer 147

151. The term "critical period refers to a period when a specific experience will have its greatest impact on development. Lorenz applied the term to the period during which ducklings bond (or imprint) with their mothers. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c." b. Incorrect This interval is referred to as the CS-US interval c. Incorrect Sports psychology is not likely to be emphasized on the licensing exam. d. CORRECT Lorenz found that the "critical period for imprinting in ducklings is 2-3 days after birth. In other words, ducklings will stay close to stimuli which they are exposed to 2-3 days after birth. Research investigating the existence of a similar critical period in humans has been inconclusive.

Question 148

152. While reading the local newspaper, you notice that, in an article about a research project being conducted at the university, a psychologist with a Ph.D. in developmental psychology who is working on the project has been erroneously identified as a clinical psychologist. Your best course of action would be to: a. file a complaint with the Ethics Committee b, contact the newspaper and request that they print a correction c. contact the psychologist and request that she correct this error d. do nothing since it is such a minor offense

Answer 148

152. Ethical Standard 3.02(c) states that "If psychologists learn of deceptive statements about their work made by others, psychologists make reasonable efforts to correct such statements." of APA's Ethics Code states that "Psychologists accurately represent their competence, education, training, and experience." Standard 8.04 states that "When psychologists believe that there may have been an ethical violation by another psychologist, they attempt to resolve the issue by bringing it to the attention of that individual, if an informal resolution seems appropriate and the intervention does not violate any confidentiality rights involved. a. Incorrect It is not necessary to do this. There may not even be a violation in this case, and if there is one, it probably has to do with a lack of knowledge rather than willful maliciousness. An informal solution is much more appropriate. b. Incorrect This is a possible, but not the best, course of action. The above-cited standards clearly imply that, in this situation, you should bring the possible violation to the attention of the psychologist, who then would assume responsibility for correcting it. c. CORRECT This course of action would be in line with the above-cited standards, which suggest that it is your responsibility to bring the matter to the attention of the psychologist, but the psychologist's responsibility to ensure that his education and training are accurately represented. d. Incorrect The above-cited standards suggest that this would be an unethical course of action.

Question 149

153. You would most likely be interested in comparing a child's 19 test score to her score on an academic achievement test if you believe the child: a. has a learning disability b. has recently suffered a brain injury c. is mentally retarded d. has Attention Deficit Disorder

Answer 149

153. The definition and diagnosis of "learning disabilities'' is somewhat controversial. a. CORRECT Most authorities agree that a large discrepancy between IQ test scores and academic achievement suggests a learning disability. b. Incorrect Discrepancies between IQ tests scores and achievement test scores is not a method for assessing brain trauma, although these tests might be part of a thorough neuropsychological assessment. c. Incorrect 1Q tests and achievement tests are usually administered in cases of mental retardation. A measure of adaptive functioning is also critical, however. d. Incorrect This is not a method for diagnosing Attention Deficit Disorder.

Question 150

154. An 8-month old child displays an intense fear reaction whenever she is approached by strangers. The child's behavior can be best explained by which of the following: a. the child's previous negative experiences with strangers have conditioned her to respond to strangers with fear b. the child has not yet developed a schema for her mother's face and the alternate models are confusing c. the face of a stranger represents an unfamiliar event that naturally elicits a fear response d. the child's behavior is an abnormal reaction that is related an overattachment to her mother

Answer 150

154. The child appears to be exhibiting stranger anxiety, which typically develops at 8 months of age and appears to reflect maturation of the infant's perceptual skills such that helshe is able to distinguish between familiar individuals and strangers. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT Given the child's age and lack of information about any other behaviors that might suggest pathology, the most parsimonious explanation for the child's behavior is stranger anxiety. d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c".

Question 151

155. Which of the following is an example of cultural encapsulation: a. a client belonging to a minority group cannot separate problems due to individual factors from &hose related to oppression b. a white male therapist doesn't recognize that he interprets clients' problems from his own cultural worldview c. a young woman's conflict is related to her inability to separate from the values, attitudes, and expectations of her immigrant parents d. a therapist tends to view all problems of minority clients as due to factors inherent to the client's cultural background

Answer 151

155. The term cultural encapsulation is used to describe the characteristics of a therapist who is "encapsulated within hisher dominant culture. a. Incorrect See explanation to response b. b. CORRECT Culturally encapsulated therapists not only view clients' problems through the fdter of their own culture but are also unaware of doing so. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 152

156. The Strong Interest Inventory would probably be LEAST useful: a. as a job selection test b. as a guide for choosing college major c. for making career decisions d. for predicting turnover

Answer 152

156. Longitudinal studies on the original version of the Strong Interest Inventory the SVIB have consistently shown that interests are not good predictors of academic or occupational success. a. CORRECT Research has found interest tests to be good predictors of academic and job choice and job persistence and satisfaction, which are listed as the other alternatives. Job selection tests usually (although not necessarily) are used to predict job success and, therefore, this is the best response of those given since interest test scores are not good predictors of job success. h. Incorrect See explanation for response "a". c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a". d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a".

Question 153

157. The "storm and stress theory" of adolescent mental health proposes that most adolescents experience extensive physical, social, and psychological turmoil. Research in the past 25 years on this topic: a. confirms that most adolescents do experience substantial "storm and stress" b. demonstrates that "storm and stress" is characteristic of adolescents in westernized cultures only c. indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant "storm and stress" d. shows that "storm and stress" is largely due to increases in family conflicts during the adolescent period

Answer 153

157. Research in the past 2-112 decades has largely refuted Anna Freud's proposition that "to be normal during the adolescent period is by itself abnormal." a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c" b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT Studies suggest that, while adolescents may exhibit greater emotional lability, only about 10 to 20% of adolescents exhibit some type of severe emotional turmoil, which is approximately the same percent as found in the adult population. d. Incorrect In fact, contrary to the popular view of adolescence, the research suggests that family conflicts do not really increase substantially during this period.

Question 154

158. Problem drug use among adolescents is most linked with: a. peer pressure b. lack of information/education c, alienation d. early experimentation with drugs

Answer 154

158. Although '3ust say no" and educational programs are probably the most popular types of anti-drug programs aimed at children and adolescents, the research sugests that their success is destined to be limited because they are based on the wrong assumptions regarding the causes of problem drug use. .. a. Incorrect While peer pressure does underlie experimentation with drugs, it does not seem to be linked with problem drug use among adolescents. b. Incorrect Lack of information has not been found to be a significant contributor to problem drug use. c. CORRECT Based on their longitudinal study, J. Shedler and J. Bloek (Adolescent Drug Use and Psychological Health, American Psychologist, May 1990, 612-6301 conclude that problem drug users exhibit a coherent syndrome, often as early as age 7, that is characterized by alienation, impulsivity, and subjective distress and that these symptoms clearly precede the onset of drug use. d. Incorrect Experimentation is only a predictor of problem drug use in the presence of the syndrome described above.

Question 155

159. Research on sex differences in leadership style suggests that actual drferences between male and female Leaders are far less than what might be expected. The research has also shown that: a. males and females are evaluated similarly by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style b. males are evaluated more favorably than females by group members regardless of their perceived leadership style c. although males and females are evaluated similarly by group members when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style, males are evaluated more favorably than females when they are perceived to have a participative leadership style d. although males and females are evaluated similarly by group members when they are perceived to have a participative leadership style, males are evaluated more favorably than females when they are perceived to have an autocratic leadership style

Answer 155

159. Although research suggests that males and females do not differ significantly in leadership behavior, some studies indicate that males have greater latitude when it comes to the evaluation of their leadership ability (e.g., A. G. Vago and V. H. Vroom. "Sex differences in the incidence and evaluation ofparticipative leadership behauior," Journal of Applied Psychology, 1982, 67, 776-7831, a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." d. CORRECT This was the finding of the research conducted by Vago and Vroom. Males and females were evaluated about the same when they were perceived as having a participative leadership style, but males were evaluated more favorably than females when they were perceived to have an autocratic leadership style.

Question 156

160. You are invited to speak at a national conference on the education of inner-city school children about the qualities of the school environment that contribute to academic achievement. Which of the following best characterizes the advice you are likely to give: a, teachers should have high expectations for their students since expectations can affect achievement b. teachers should be strict and emphasize consistent, age-appropriate discipline c. "at-risk" children should be separated from other children during the early years of schooling d. LEP (limited English proficiency) students should be separated from English speakers until they achieve a minimal level of competency in English

Answer 156

160. Rutter (19831 outlined the school characteristics that are associated with unusually effective schools. Effectiveness is defined in terms such as higher standardized test scores, higher attendance rates, lower rates of delinquency, and higher student self-esteem. a. CORRECT According to Rutter, among other characteristics, effective schools are characterized by high standards and high expectations of academic excellence. In addition, Gerard and Miller (1975) and others have shown that minority students whose teachers expect them to perform poorly on aptitude tests showed decreases in verbal achievement test scores. b. Incorrect In effective schools, relatively little class time is spent on discipline. This is because good teachers intervene early in potentially difficult situations. c. Incorrect Separating at-risk children from other students would probably adversely affect their academic performance. A mixture of backgrounds and abilities characterizes effective classrooms. d. Incorrect Research on the education of LEP students has not provided conclusive results as to which technique is most effective. However, there is no consistent evidence that separating these students from other students is the best course of action.

Question 157

161. Dr. Jones, a licensed clinical psychologist, hires a psychology graduate student to administer the Stanford-Binet and other psychological tests to some of his clients. This is: a. unethical since psychological tests should be administered only by licensed professionals b. ethical only if Dr. Jones accepts full responsibility for the consequences of testing c. ethical only if the student has completed at least one graduate-level course in psychological testing d. ethical only if Dr. Jones provides the student with appropriate training and supervision

Answer 157

16 1. The minimum competency requirements for the administration of psychological tests are not well-defined in the Ethics Code or Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing. However, Standard 2.06 of the Ethics Code states that "Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons." In addition. Standard 1.22(a) states that "Psychologists delegate to their employees, supervisees, and research assistants only those responsibilities that such persons can reasonably be expected to perform competently. on the basis of their education, training, or experience." a. Incorrect APA's ethical guidelines do not require that psychological tests be administered by licensed professionals only. b. Incorrect Dr. Jones should, of course, be responsible for the activities of his assistant. However, this is not sufficient. c. Incorrect The completion of a single course in psychological testing would probably be insufficient training for the administration of psychological tests. d. CORRECT Of the alternatives given, this response is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code.

Question 158

162. It is found that a selection test is a better predictor ofjob successfor applicantsfrom , higher socioeconomic levels than for applicants from lower socioeconomic levels. In this situation, socioeconomic level is best described as a(n): a. suppressor variable b. dependent variable c. moderator variable d. organismic variable

Answer 158

162. Any predictor that is more valid for one class or subset of examinees than it is for another is said to have differential validity. a. Incorrect A suppressor variable is irrelevant to the criterion, but affects criterion scores and thus acts as a source of error and suppresses (reduces) the correlation between the predictor and the criterion. b. Incorrect In a research study, the dependent variable is measured to see if it is affected by the independent variable. For example, in a study assessing the effects of marijuana on task performance, marijuana is the independent variable and task performance is the dependent variable. c. CORRECT A moderator variable is a variable that "moderates" the validity of a test i.e., a variable that make a test a better (or worse) predictor for a particular class or subset of examinees. Socioeconomic status is, therefore, a moderator variable in this situation. d. Incorrect An organismic variable (as opposed to a manipulated variable) is one that can be measured but cannot be manipulated or controlled by the researcher. For example, in a study assessing the relationship between gender and beer consumption, both variables are organismic since the researcher cannot control either the gender or the beer consumption of the subjects.

Question 159

163. African-American adolescents who exhibit a "blended bicultural" behavioral pattern: a. are situated midway between ethnic and American culture and are part of neither b. acknowledge their American heritage but are more strongly influenced by their ethnic background c. do not distinguish between ethnic and American cultures but have characteristics of both d. view themselves as equally American and ethnic or as more American

Answer 159

163. Biculturalism among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents was recently examined by J. S. Phinney and M. Devich-Navarro (Variations in bicultural identification among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents, Journal of Research in Adolescence, 1997, 7(1), 3-32). These investigators found that the adolescents in their sample exhibited one of three patterns: blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated. a. Incorrect This describes marginalization. None of the adolescents in Phinney and Devich-Navarro's sample fit this pattern. b. Incorrect Phinney and Devich-Navarro refer to this as alternating biculturalism. c. Incorrect This is referred to as a fused identity. Phinney and Navarro found no evidence of this pattern in their sample. d. CORRECT As defined by these authors, this pattern represents blended biculturalism

Question 160

164. An aerospace corporation uses the procedure known as multiple cutoJf in its employee selection process. As a result, which of the following is most likely to occur: a. an applicant who obtains very high scores on tests of mathematical and mechanical intelligence will not be hired because he fails a test of verbal intelligence by one point b. an applicant who scores low on a test of verbal intelligence obtains very high scores on tests of mechanical and mathematical intelligence, so he is hired as an airline mechanic c. an applicant's score on tests of verbal, mathematical, and mechanical intelligence place him in the lowest of fifteen criterion groups, so he is not hired d. an applicant's score on a test of mechanical intelligence compares favorably to the scores of successful employees, so he is hired as an airline mechanic

Answer 160

164. Multiple cutoff is a method for combining predictor scores that involves establishing minimum cut-off scores for each predictor. If an examinee falls below the cut-off for even one predictor, he or she will be rejected. a. CORRECT The applicant in this case was not hired because he did not pass all of the tests used for prediction. As noted above, when multiple cutoff is used, all of the predictor tests must be passed. b. Incorrect The multiple cutoff technique is noncompensatory; that is, a high score on one measure does not compensate for a low score on another measure. c. Incorrect In this case, scores on two or more predictors are combined to predict membership in three or more criterion groups. This procedure is known as multiple discriminant analysis. d. Incorrect In this case, a score on a test is interpreted in terms of a comparison to the scores of successful employees and is not a description of the multiple-cutoff technique.

Question 161

165. Who holds the privilege in a client-therapist relationship: a. the client b. the therapist c. the court d. both the client and the therapist

Answer 161

165. The psychotherapist-patient privilege refers to the legal right of the client to have hisher psychotherapy records and disclosure withheld in a legal proceeding. This privilege is state law in all 50 states, though the laws related to privilege (e.g., exceptions to privilege) will vary from state to state. a. CORRECT In all states, the client is the holder of the privilege, which means that it is up to the client to decide whether to exercise or waive the privilege. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," c. Incorrect See explanation for response "a," d. Incorrect See explanation for response "a,"

Question 162

166. A client says, "I don't know where they come from, but these thoughts about swearing and cursing just keep coming back. Ijust can't seem to get them out of my mind. All I can think about is cursing and swearing." Which of the following techniques is most likely to be used to alleviate this client's problem: a. thought stopping b. biofeedback c. behavioral rehearsal d. overcorrection

Answer 162

166. This client is exhibiting obsessions. a. CORRECT Although thought stopping is often used to treat obsessions and compulsions, there is some evidence that it is most effective for obsessions, while flooding and other exposure techniques are better for eliminating compulsions. However, of the responses given, this is the best answer. b. Incorrect Biofeedback is ordinarily used to control involuntary bodily functions and activities such as blood pressure, muscle tension, and body temperature. c. Incorrect The technique of behavioral rehearsal is not associated with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder. d. Incorrect Overcorrection is used to reduce undesirable overt behaviors.

Question 163

167. When evaluating a treatment for children suffering from serious behavioral disorders, to overcome the ethical problems associated with the use of a wait-list control group, the best research design would be which of the following: a. single-subject b. cross-sectional c. placebo control d. clinical trials

Answer 163

167. The ethical problem referred to in this question is the withholding of treatment to control group subjects for the duration of the research study. a. CORRECT In single-subject designs, subjects act as their own controls. An ideal single-subject design in this situation would be the AB or the multiple-baseline design. These designs do not require removal of a treatment during the course of the study. b. Incorrect Cross-sectional designs are used to assess the effects of an independent variable across different age groups. c. Incorrect A placebo control group requires that some subjects receive no treatment (the placebo) during the course of the study and would not overcome the ethical problem associated with a wait-list control group. d. Incorrect "Clinical trials" refers to research conducted in clinical settings and may involve a wait-list or placebo control group.

Question 164

168. The best conclusion that can be drawn about the effects of examiner race on the cognitive test performance of African-American and other minority-group children is that: a. White examiners have significant adverse effects on the test performance of African-American and other minority-group children b. White examiners often have positive effects on the test performance of African-American and other minority-group children c. White examiners may have negative effects on the test performance of African-American and other minority-group children in some situations d, the race of the examiner has no effect on the test performance of African-American and other minority-group children

Answer 164

168. This is a controversial topic in the literature. The results of the research have not been consistent and the whole issue of cognitive testing and cultural bias has yet to be resolved. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c" c. CORRECT This is probably the best conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the research results. While the majority of studies have found no clear relationship between examiner race and the test performance of minority children, some studies have found a substantial effect, with Black and other minority children performing better with a same-race examiner. d. Incorrect Although some researchers have drawn this conclusion, the research results have not been entirely consistent.

Question 165

169. A distinctive feature of the MMPI-2 is its inclusion of several "validity scales." The purpose of one of these scales, the L [Lie) Scale, is to: a. obtain information about the examinee needed to derive a specific psychiatric diagnosis b. provide information on the test itself for use in validation studies c, check the examinee's propensity to view himherself in an unfavorable manner so that ' a "correctton factor" can be applied to the examinee's scores d. measure the examinee's tendency to depict himherself favorably so that the validity of the test results can be determined

Answer 165

169. The purpose of the L (Lie) Scale is to indicate the degree to which the examinee has attempted to present himself or herself in a favorable light. a. Incorrect See explanation above. b. Incorrect See explanation above. c. Incorrect See explanation above. d. CORRECT See explanation above.

Question 166

170. The problem-solving and decision-making abilities of a team of employees who have been working together for several months are beginning to decline. Which of the following would be least useful for improving the performance of this team: a. having members come up with solutions alone before discussing them with each other b. dividing their tasks into subtasks and having subgroups work on those tasks they are best suited for c. encouraging members of the team to express more dissent and to be more openly critical about the solutions expressed by other members d. adding members to thc group who arc known to be low in dominance

Answer 166

170. A number of phenomena have been identified as resulting when individuals make decisions or solve problems as a group. Research on brainstorming and groupthink, for instance, has identified several liabilities associated with group decision-making. a. Incorrect Research on brainstorming suggests that people working alone come up with better and more creative ideas than people working as a group. Moreover, the Nominal Group Technique utilizes the approach described in this response specifically to improve the quality of decision-making. b. Incorrect Janis, who introduced the notion of groupthink, recommended this approach as one way to decrease the tendency toward bad decision-making by groups. c. Incorrect This was another technique suggested by Janis. He felt that groupthink would be reduced if members were critical of the ideas of others and if at least one member was instructed to play "devil's advocate." d. CORRECT Adding members who are low in dominance actually seems to increase the probability that groupthink will occur. The inclusion of members who are high in dominance and who are not anxious about having their opinions challenged helps reduce the likelihood that groupthink will occur.

Question 167

171. A client you have seen several times tells you that he had sexual intercourse with his 13-year old niece three times during the last year. You should: a. maintain the client's confidentiality if you determine he is unlikely to sexually molest the child again b. immediately make a report to the child protective agency whether or not you think it is likely he will sexually molest the child again c. immediately alert the parents of the child and make a report to the appropriate agency if they seem unable to protect the child d. immediately alert the parents of the child

Answer 167

171. A therapist is legally and ethically required to make a report of known or suspected child abuse to the appropriate authorities. a. Incorrect A therapist must make a report even if the abuse occurred in the past and it seems unlikely that it will occur again. This makes sense, since the victim of the abuse is likely to be in need of physical and/or psychological help. b. CORRECT This is consistent with state laws and the provisions of the Ethics Code. c. Incorrect Reporting the incident to the child's parents would be a breach of confidentiality. d. Incorrect A report to the parents would be a breach of confidentiality and not in accordance with state laws.

Question 168

172. According to Herzberg's "two-factor theory," a disgruntled blue-collar worker is most likely to say he is satisfied with his job if he is: a. given a raise b. given fewer tasks to do c. put on a piece-rate pay system d. given more responsibility

Answer 168

172. Herzberg's two-factor theory divides job components into two types: hygiene factors and motivator factors. a. Incorrect For Herzberg, money is a hygiene factor and, consequently, can produce dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but does not contribute to satisfaction or motivation, even when it is perceived to be adequate. b. Incorrect From Herzberg's perspective, this would not lead to greater satisfaction. c. Incorrect This is not consistent with two-factor theory. d. CORFU3CT According to two-factor theory, satisfaction and motivation are increased by providing an employee challenge, etc.

Question 169

173. When working with a Black family, a non-Black therapist should keep in mind that: a. Black families are typically matriarchal b. Black husbands are usually less tolerant of the career efforts of their wives than White husbands c. Black males and females do not hold as rigidly to sexual stereotypes as White males and females d. Black wives are more willing than White wives to let their husbands make domestic decisions

Answer 169

173. Research on the Black family has generally found that Black men and women are less concerned about sex-role stereotypes than White men and women. However, the power structure of the Black family is not substantially different from that found in many White families. a. Incorrect A number of investigators have pointed out that Black and White husbands exercise the same degree of family decision-making power and that the matriarchal Black family is, in fact, a myth. b. Incorrect If anything, the opposite is true because of their de-emphasis on sex-role stereotypes and social conditions that have made it easier for Black women to succeed educationally and economically than Black men. c. CORRECT According to Billingsley, an important aspect of the cultural heritage of Black families is a de-emphasis on rigid sex-linked stereotypes (Black Families in White America, Englewood Cliffs: Prentice-Hall, 1969). d. Incorrect In terms of decision-making, there does not seem to be much difference between Black and White families.

Question 170

174. Most infants take their first steps while holding onto furniture at about: a. 6 to 7 months of age b. 9 to 10 months of age c. 12 to 13 months of age d. 15 to 16 months of age

Answer 170

174. Although children vary considerably in motor and other aspects of development, some generalizations can be made. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b b. CORRECT At about 9 to 10 months, most babies are able to take a few steps while holding onto furniture. This is followed, at about 12 to 13 months, by the ability to walk without help or support. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 171

175. Overtraining is most associated with: a. peak performance b. enhanced transfer of training c. a drug-like "high" d. decreased motivation and performance

Answer 171

175. Note that this question is asking about overtraining, not overlearning. The term overtraining appears in the sports psychology literature; overlearning is used in the learning and training literature. a. Incorrect This would be the best answer if the question were asking about overlearning. b. Incorrect This also better fits overlearning c. Incorrect This is not associated with overtraining or overlearning. d. CORRECT In the sports psychology literature, overtraining (staleness) refers to excessive training and the resulting physical and psychological symptoms. The undesirable effects of overtraining include premature fatigue during exercise, reduced performance, emotional instability, decreased motivation, and increased susceptibility to infection.

Question 172

176. Which of the following disorders is more common in females than males: a. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder b. Major Depressive Disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Alcohol Dependence

Answer 172

176. This is a straightforward question and one you may have been able to make an "educated guess" for even if you were unfamiliar with the data on the incidence of all of the disorders listed for males and females. a. Incorrect Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is about equally common in males and females. b. CORRECT Major Depressive Disorder is about twice as common in females as males. c. Incorrect Schizophrenia is about equally common in males and females. d. Incorrect Alcohol Dependence is more common in males; the male-to-female ratio may be as high as 5: 1.

Question 173

177. An advocate of client-centered therapy would most likely view diagnosis as: a, the starting point of therapy b, an ongoing process C. a joint task of the therapist and client d. unnecessary and possibly detrimental

Answer 173

177. Rogerian therapists tend to de-emphasize both diagnosis and assessment. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. d. CORRECT Rogerian therapists usually reject diagnosis on the ground that it places the therapist in a superior, authoritarian role that can impede the development of autonomy and self-actualization in the client.

Question 174

178. From the Freudian perspective, interpretation: a, is appropriate only during the final "working through" phase of therapy b. is most useful when it evokes material at the deepest level of the unconscious c, helps the client uncover unconscious material and gain insight into it d. helps the client understand the causes of hisher behaviors and beliefs

Answer 174

178. Interpretation is a key process in Freudian psychoanalysis and is applied to free associations, dreams, resistances, etc. a. Incorrect Interpretations are made throughout therapy. b. Incorrect The opposite is true. Interpretation is most successful when it addresses unconscious material that is just below the surface. c. CORRECT This is the most accurate description of interpretation d. Incorrect This is not as good of a description as response "c".

Question 175

179. You hear a rumor that one of your co-workers has a habit of sexually-harassing the younger female employees. You start paying closer attention to his behavior and discover I that the rumors are not unfounded. Your best course of action in this situation would be to: I a. maintain a record of your observations and present them to the company's Director b. approach the young women who have been harassed and suggest they file a complaint with the Ethics Committee c. discuss your observations and the rumors you have heard with the co-worker d. do nothing since your co-worker's behaviors are basically harmless

Answer 175

179. Sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the Ethics Code. In addition, Standard 1. 14 requires that psychologists attemptto minimize harm against individuals with whom psychologists work. a. Incorrect Maintaining a record of your observations is not necessarily something you would need to do. Also, making a report to the Director of the organization would, in most cases, not be the best initial course of action. b. Incorrect This might be acceptable. A problem, though, is there is nothing in the question that says your co-worker is a psychologist or other professional. Be sure to read carefully! c. CORRECT This is always a best first course of action if you feel comfortable in confronting the individual who has allegedly acted unethically. d. Incorrect As a psychologist, you have a responsibility to take action when you see a colleague sexually harassing co-workers and others.

Question 176

181. Stuttering should be uiewed as "normal childhood dysfluency" when: a. it is not accompanied by other mental or behavioral problems b. it affects speech less than 25% of the time c. it does not interfere with communication d. it occurs before age 2 112

Answer 176

181. According to DSM-IV, stuttering involves a disturbance in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." c. Incorrect By definition, stuttering interferes with communication. d. CORRECT The DSM-IV stipulates that a diagnosis of stuttering should not be made unless the disturbance is inappropriate for the individual's age. Stuttering is virtually indistinguishable from the normal dysfluency that occurs in many children around age 2. For this reason, when stuttering occurs prior to age 2 112, it should be viewed as normal childhood dysfluency.

Question 177

180. Research has demonstrated that recall of a particular piece of information is greater after five hours of sleep than after five hours of wakeful actiuity. This finding tends to discredit which of the following theories of forgetting: a. interference b. memory trace decay c. retrieval cue d. motivated forgetting

Answer 177

180. This research discredits memory trace decay theory which attributes memory loss to a decay in memory traces as the result of the passage of time. a. Incorrect This research actually SUPPORTS interference theory, which proposes that memory loss is due to interference (i.e., stimuli encountered during the period of activity interferes with previously acquired information). b. CORRECT These findings suggest that memory loss is more than a simple decay of memory traces since a similar amount of decay should have occurred regardless of whether subjects slept or engaged in another activity. c. Incorrect This research is irrelevant to this theory. d. Incorrect This research is irrelevant to this theory.

Question 178

182. As applied to research design, the term external validity refers to which of the following: a. accuracy b. control c, significance d. generalizability

Answer 178

182. Both internal and external validity are concerns in the design of research. Internal validity refers to the extent to which it can be assumed that the changes in the dependent variable are caused by the independent variable. External validity refers to the extent which the results of research can be generalized. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d." d. CORRECT External validity, as defined by Cook and Campbell, refers to the researcher's , the research study. I ability to generalize research findings beyond the specific time, setting, and subjects involved in

Question 179

183. A securely attached infant: a. may or may not become upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and seeks contact with the parent on reunion b. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is unlikely to be comforted by a stranger; and seeks comfort from the parent on reunion c. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; is comforted by a stranger; and may or may not seek contact with the parent on reunion d. becomes upset when the parent leaves the room; seeks comfort from a stranger if upset; and resumes play when the parent returns

Answer 179

183. Research by Ainsworth and her colleagues identified three main patterns of attachment: secure, anxiety/avoidant, and anxious/resistant. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Securely attached children become verbally and visually upset when a parent leaves the room, are not comforted by a stranger, and, on reunion with the parent, seek contact and comfort but gradually return to play. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 180

184. Research on working women suggests that combining work and family roles is most associated with: a. stress-related illness b. reduced involvement in family roles c. enhanced self-esteem d. low job commitment

Answer 180

184. This topic was addressed in a recent review of the research on women and work (S. D. Phillips and A. R. Imhoff, Women and career development: A decade of research, Annual Review of Psychology, 1997, 48, 31-59). a. Incorrect See explanation for response c. b. Incorrect See explanation for response c. c. CORRECT Empirical research suggests that, overall, dual roles for women have positive effects on self-esteem and other aspects of well-being. d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.

Question 181

185. During Piaget's heteronomous stage, children's moraljudgments are based on: a. the intentions behind the act b. the seriousness of the consequences of the act c. the status of the actor d. the events leading up to the act

Answer 181

185. Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism. a. Incorrect This is more characteristic of moral relativism. b. CORRECT Rules and the consequences of violating a rule are the basis of moral judgment during the stage of moral realism (which is also called the heteronomous stage). c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 182

186. Which of the following treatments entails a combination of exposure to a feared stimulus coupled with psychodynamic interpretation of the fear: a. overcorrection b. implosive therapy c. covert sensitization d. PST

Answer 182

186. Of the responses given, only one consists of a combination of behavioral techniques and psychodynamic principles. a. Incorrect Overcorrection is an operant technique that is usually classified as a type of punishment. b. CORRECT Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic , interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors. c. Incorrect Covert sensitization is a type of aversive conditioning that is conducted in imagination. It does not incorporate psychodynamic interpretation. d. Incorrect PST (Problem Solving Therapy) is a cognitive technique used to help clients learn to cope with current and future problems.

Question 183

187. Among white adolescents, maternal employment is associated with: a. lower school grades for both males and females b. lower school grades for middle- and upper middle-class boys c. lower school grades for lower-class males d. lower school grades for middle-class males and females

Answer 183

187. The research generally indicates that the effects of maternal employment on academic achievement are affected by socioeconomic status. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b b. CORRECT Middle- and upper middle-class boys are most negatively affected by maternal employment, at least in terms of school grades and other measures of academic achievement. This is particularly true when mothers work full-time throughout the boy's life. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 184

188. Decentralization is preferable to centralization when an organization: a. is operating in a highly competitive and constantly changing environment b, is operating in a predictable market and methods of production are relatively stable c. is experiencing a slow rate of growth and has a strong-willed leader d. has little competition

Answer 184

188. As its name implies, in a decentralized organization, power is delegated throughout the organization. In contrast, in centralized organizations, power is primarily in the hands of one person or a few people. a. CORRECT Because decentralized organizations are more flexible, they are more effective than centralized organizations for adapting to change and meeting the need to make frequent and quick decisions. b. Incorrect Centralized organizations tend to be better in this-situation. c. Incorrect The "strong-willed leader" should have helped you eliminate this as a possible correct answer. d. Incorrect When the market and the organization an organization to become more centralized.

Question 185

189. During the third therapy session, a client reveals to you that he has been seeing another psychologist for the past six months. The client claims that this therapist doesn't seem to be "doing any good," and that he feels you'll be better able to help him. As an ethical psychologist, you should: a. call the psychologist and inform her of the situation but only with the client's consent b. tell the client you will continue therapy with him but discuss the implications of the situation c. tell the client you cannot continue therapy with him unless he terminates therapy with the other psychologist d. continue seeing the client hut suggest that it would be best if he terminates therapy with the other psychologist

Answer 185

189. Standard 4.04 of the Ethics Code states that. "In deciding whether to offer or provide services to those already receiving mental health services elsewhere, psychologists carefully consider treatment issues and the potential patient's or client's welfare." a. Incorrect You need not contact the other psychologist, irrespective of the client's consent, unless you have reason to suspect that she has acted unethically (which is not suggested in this question]. b. CORRECT This is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. The best thing to do in this situation would be to discuss the implications of continuing therapy with the client while he is seeing another therapist. In addition, you should encourage the client to discuss this matter with the other therapist. c. Incorrect It may become necessary to do this if, after a period of time, the client is continuing to see you and the other therapist and you are both providing him with essentially the same services, but it is probably not the best first course of action. d. Incorrect Telling the client that it would be best for him to stop therapy with the other therapist is not required by the Ethics Code. It does not take the best interests of the client (or other therapist) into consideration.

Question 186

190. Dr. Able, a psychologist, has been seeing a client for five months and feels that the client may not be benefitting from treatment. When she mentions this to him, the client says he is quite satisfied with the progress of therapy. Based on this information, Dr. Able's best course of action wouZd be to: l a. continue seeing the client in therapy since the client is satisfied b. tell the client that she is ethically required to refer him to another therapist c. obtain supervision to ensure that her treatment is effective d. consult with another psychologist to discuss the situation

Answer 186

190. When psychologists believe that a client is not benefitting from treatment, special consideration must be given to the situation. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. , c. Incorrect See explanation for response "d. I d. CORRECT Although referral (response "b") might be acceptable, it is not necessary as a first course of action in this case given the circumstances. Instead, consultation would be a better action since it would help the therapist determine if his evaluation of the situation is correct.

Question 187

191. As a treatment for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, hypnosis: a. is contraindicated because it often paradoxically exacerbates symptoms b. has been found to be more effective for compulsions than obsessions c. may have clinical utility, especially when combined with other behavioral techniques d. is as effective or, in some cases, more effective than other behavioral techniques

Answer 187

191. In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) has become the treatment-of-choice for OCD. However, other treatments have been evaluated and found to have some degree of clinical efficacy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response C. b. Incorrect See explanation for response C c. CORRECT The few studies that have evaluated hypnosis as a treatment for OCD have found that it helps reduce obsessions, especially when it is combined with other treatments such as flooding. d. Incorrect The studies suggest that hypnosis is not more effective than other treatments but that it might be a useful adjunctive intervention.

Question 188

192. The owner of a company has decided that, to determine how well employees are performing, employees will be watched while performing theirjobs for apredetermined period of time. Based on the relevant research, you predict that the employees' performance during the period of observation will: a. be inhibited if the task is easy b. be inhibited if the task is complex c. be enhanced whether the task is easy or complex d. be inhibited whether the task is easy or complex

Answer 188

192. It has been found that, in certain circumstances, the presence of others inhibits task performance (social inhibition), while in other circumstances, the presence of others facilitates task performance (social facilitation). a. Incorrect When the task is simple or well-learned, the presence of others tends to enhance task performance. b. CORRECT The presence of others tends to inhibit performance when the task is complex or unfamiliar. c. Incorrect See explanations for responses "a" and "b. d. Incorrect See explanations for responses "a" and "b".

Question 189

193. When working with older (geriatric) clients, a therapist should keep in mind all of the following except: a. older people are more different from one another than younger people on a variety of measures b. "slowing down" is a predictable correlate of the normal aging process c. the correlation between physiological and psychological characteristics increases with age d. psychotherapy, especially insight-oriented psychotherapy, is relatively ineffective with the geriatric population

Answer 189

193. Primary problems in the treatment of elderly clients are the reluctance of therapists to work with this population and the myths that surround aging and its effects. a. Incorrect This is true. Not only are there greater differences in biologicallphysical phenomena but also in intellectual abilities, personality, and attitudes (see., e.g., Bob Knight, Psychotherapy with Older Adults, 1986, Beverly Hills: Sage Publ.). b. Incorrect This is also true. However, in many situations, slowing down is compensated for by greater accuracy and effectiveness. - c. Incorrect Physiological characteristics that have little importance among younger individuals (e.g., blood pressure) often become more critical in old age. d. CORRECT While there is greater diversity among the elderly in terms of their therapeutic needs and desires, it is not true that they cannot benefit from therapy. Failures seem to be related more to the therapist's lack of skill and pessimism than to the characteristics of the elderly.

Question 190

194. One area of interest to industrialpsychologists is the effects of rest breaks on productivity. For example, Bhatia and Murrell(1969) evaluated daily output figures after the introduction of rest breaks that reduced the total work time from eight to seven hours per day. Generally speaking, studies like the one conducted by Bhatia and Murrell have indicated that the introduction of rest breaks results in: a. a rise in daily output despite the fact that employees actually spend less time on the job b. a decrease in daily output due to reduced time on the job c. no significant change in productivity rates d. a decrease in productivity but an increase in job satisfaction

Answer 190

194. Even if you are unfamiliar with the research in this area, it makes sense that the less the fatigue, the greater the productivity. a. CORRECT Studies on the effects of rest breaks have indicated that such breaks actually increase productivity despite reduced time on the job, presumably due to decreased fatigue. b. Incorrect There is no evidence that rest breaks cause a decrease in output. c. Incorrect Rest breaks do appear to cause an increase in productivity. d. Incorrect Rest breaks do not decrease productivity.

Question 191

195. In recent years there has been an increase in the number of elderly employees in organizations. When working wfth these employees, it is important to keep in mind that: a. elderly employees often have cognitive and sensory deficits that interfere with their job performance b. elderly employees can be expected to have increased rates of absenteeism due to health problems c. elderly employees are usually not as dependable as younger employees d. elderly employees learn best when training is presented at a slower pace

Answer 191

195. Although elderly employees may have special needs, in general, they are very productive workers. a. Incorrect Although elderly employees may display some minor deficits, these deficits are usually counterbalanced by favorable factors such as increased effort. b. Incorrect Elderly employees actually have a lower rate of absenteeism than younger employees. c. Incorrect Elderly individuals have been found to be more dependable than younger employees. d. CORRECT To maximize learning, training for elderly employees should be presented at a slower pace and should emphasize active learning.

Question 192

196. A psychologist administers a 100-item truefalse test to 50 examinees. The mean of the score distribution is 60 and its standard deviation is 8. If the psychologist decides to correct each examinee's score using the standard correction for guessing formula, she can expect that: a. the mean and standard deviation of the new distribution will both be lower b. the mean and standard deviation of the new distribution will both be highex Psychology Written Post Test 4 c. the mean of the new distribution will be lower and its standard deviation will be higher d. the mean of the new distribution will be higher and its standard deviation will be lower

Answer 192

196. The correction for guessing formula is: Corrected Score = (R) - (Wln-l), where R = number of right answers, W = number of wrong answers, and n = the number of choices per answer. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT Unless you do a lot of testing, you're probably not familiar with the correction for guessing formula. If you were, you could have figured out the answer to this question by applying the formula to a concrete example. To illustrate, assume that a 10-item truelfalse test is administered to three examinees who achieve scores of 10, 6, and 2. The mean of this distribution is 6 and its standard deviation is 4. Using the above formula, the corrected distribution of scores is 10, 2, and -6. The mean of this corrected distribution is 2 and its standard deviation is 8. (Even without calculating the standard deviation for the two distributions, it is clear by looking at them that there is greater variability in scores in the second distribution.) d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c".

Question 193

197. At months of age, infants begin to search for a hidden object but reach for the object in the last place they found it even when they have seen the object moved to another location: a. 4to8 b. 8 to 12 c. 12 to 18 d. 18 to24

Answer 193

197. The behavior described in this question is referred to as the "A-not-B error." a. Incorrect During this stage, infants reach for a partially hidden object but stop if the object disappears from view. b. CORRECT At about eight months of age, children first provide evidence that they know that objects exist when they are out of view. However, they commit the A-not-B error, which continues to about 12 months of age. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 194

198. The provisions ofAPA's General Guidelines for Providers ofPsychologica1 Services require that "Professional Psychologists" have: a. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology b. a masters or doctoral degree in psychology plus compensatory professional experience C, a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school d. an appropriate license or certificate in psychology

Answer 194

198. The General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services requires Professional Psychologists to have a doctoral degree in psychology from a regionally accredited university or professional school. a. Incorrect This is not consistent with the General Guidelines. b. Incorrect This is not what is required by the General Guidelines. c. CORRECT This is a correct description of the requirements of the General Guidelines d. Incorrect Licensure is not mandated by APA's General (or Specialty) Guidelines.

Question 195

199. In the context of the Rorschach test, positive form quality indicates: a. incorporation of inkblot details into the response b. congruence between the response and reality C. that the response is based entirely on the inkblot shape d. that form is well integrated with other determinants

Answer 195

199. As its name suggests, form quality refers to the form (shape) of the inkblot. a. Incorrect See explanation for response b. b. CORRECT Form quality refers specifically to the degree to which an examinee's response matches the actual form of the inkblot. c. Incorrect See explanation for response b. d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.

Question 196

200. You receive a subpoena from the court requesting that you supply it with copies of your records on a former client. Apparently, the client has been charged with a crime and he is using "insanity" as his defense. You should: a. refuse to turn over the records to the court because to do so would be a breach of the client's confidentiality b. turn over the records only if you believe they will help the client's case c. turn over the records to the court unless the client changes his plea d. turn over the records to the court regardless of the client's plea

Answer 196

200. When pleading not guilty by reason of insanity, a person relinquishes hisher legal privilege. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c", b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c". c. CORRECT As noted above, the insanity defense revokes the individual's privilege Therefore,the psychologist should produce the records requested by the court. d. Incorrect Except when privilege has been waived by a client (e.g., when helshe is invoking the insanity defense), a psychologist should first assert the privilege when a client's records are subpoenaed by the court.

Question 197

17. Researchers relied primarily on which of the following techniques to identfy the "Big Five" personality traits: a. meta-analysis b. LISREL c. discriminant analysis d. factor analysis

Answer 197

17. Development of the five-factor model of personality was based on an atheoretical "lexical" approach. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT The lexical approach assumes that all socially-relevant personality

Question 198

134. An elderly patient reports a variety ofperceptual impairments, as well as feelings of depression. The factor that will most strongly indicate whether or not the diagnosis will be Dementia or Major Depressive Disorder is: a. in Major Depressive Disorder, thinking and concentration are not impaired b. Dementia, unlike Major Depressive Disorder, is characterized by perceptual disturbances such as illusions and hallucinations c. in Major Depressive Disorder, the person often reports his or her memory to be worse than it actually is d. Dementia, unlike Major Depressive Disorder, often involves disorganized thinking and rambling, irrelevant, or incoherent speech

Answer 198

134. An elderly patient reports a variety ofperceptual impairments, as well as feelings of depression. The factor that will most strongly indicate whether or not the diagnosis will be Dementia or Major Depressive Disorder is: a. in Major Depressive Disorder, thinking and concentration are not impaired b. Dementia, unlike Major Depressive Disorder, is characterized by perceptual disturbances such as illusions and hallucinations c. in Major Depressive Disorder, the person often reports his or her memory to be worse than it actually is d. Dementia, unlike Major Depressive Disorder, often involves disorganized thinking and rambling, irrelevant, or incoherent speech

Question 199

63. Aperson who has received a diagnosis of Somatization Disorder is most likely to also have which of the following: a. a Phobic Disorder b. a Substance Abuse Disorder c. a Bipolar Disorder d. a Personality Disorder

Answer 199

63. This is another one of those questions that requires you to be familiar with very specific details. (You're likely to encounter one or two questions on co-morbidity on the actual exam.) a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT According to G. 0. Gabbard, 61% of people with Somatization Disorder have one or more co-occurring personality disorders. The next most common disorder is Major Depression (55%) followed by Generalized Anxiety Disorder (34%) [Treatments of Psychiatric Disorders, Volume 2 (2nd ed.), Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 19951.

Question 200

112. The authors of DSM-IV attempted to overcome the dfliculties associated with a categorical dtngnostic classiJication system by: a. using a dimensional system b. using a combined dimensional-categorical system c. including polythetic criteria sets for some disorders d. including nomothetic criteria sets for some disorders

Answer 200

112. DSM-IV, like its predecessors, is a categorical classification system that divides the mental disorders into distinct categories. a. Incorrect See explanation for response "c." b. Incorrect See explanation for response "c." c. CORRECT In recognition of the heterogeneity of people with the same disorder, the authors of DSM include polythetic criteria sets for many of the disorders. In other words, for these disorders, the "individual need only present with a subset of items from a longer list" (DSM-IV, p. Mi). d. Incorrect See explanation for response "c."