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DPT 509 > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

how is the PSFS implemented?

A

the patient is asked to name at least 3 activities that they are struggling with and would like to get back to and rate their ability to perform each on a scale of 0 (unable to perform) to 10 (able to perform at pre-injury level)

average score is taken out of a possible 10

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2
Q

the PSFS is valid, reliable, and responsive in populations with…

A

knee dysfunction

cervical radiculopathy

acute LBP

mechanical back pain

neck dysfunction

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3
Q

what is the MDC of the PSFS?

A

1.0-2.5 PSFS points

neck dysfunction, knee dysfunction, cervical radiculopathy, chronic LBP, and COPD

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4
Q

what is the MCID of the PSFS?

A

spinal stenosis: 1.34

UE musculoskeletal: 1.2

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5
Q

what are the goals of body mechanics?

A

protection and jt conservation

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6
Q

lower COM = ____ stability

A

greater

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7
Q

larger BOS = ____ stability

A

greater

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8
Q

legs are _________ spine is ____________

A

source of force, means of force transfer

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9
Q

is pushing or pulling easier on the lumbar spine?

A

pushing

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10
Q

bending forward pushes spinal disc material _____

A

posteriorly

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11
Q

bending backward pushes spinal disc material _____

A

anteriorly

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12
Q

does bending forward or backward help take pressure off the foramina?

A

bending backward

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13
Q

what is proper stand to sit position?

A

legs touch chair

descend by leading w/ buttocks and lowering legs

sit toward front to middle of chair (don’t aim for back)

slide back

use arm to assist

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14
Q

what is proper sit to stand mechanics?

A

slide forward in chair

feet under thighs

use arms to push is able

lead with head

don’t flex neck

maintain lumbar lordosis

push up with legs

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15
Q

what are proper body mechanics when going down to lift something?

A

position body close to object

wide BOS

knee flexion and move hips posteriorly w/straight spine

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16
Q

what are proper body mechanics when coming up to lift something?

A

keep object close to body

engage core

don’t hold breath

lead with head

push up with legs

legs are source of force, spine is means of force transfer

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17
Q

when pushing and pulling use ____ leg/arm(s)

A

both

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18
Q

what is ergonomics?

A

the science and practice of sitting and designing jobs and workplaces to match the capabilities and limitations of the human body

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19
Q

what is the purpose of ergonomics?

A

to help prevent injury

reduce fatigue and discomfort

increase productivity

improve quality of work

improve job satisfaction

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20
Q

what is a work site analysis?

A

assessing for job demands and correcting ergonomics

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21
Q

what items are on the ergonomics checklist?

A

posture

force

repetitions

vibration

temperatures

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22
Q

repetitive reach items on a desk should be within how many inches?

A

13-18 inches

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23
Q

occasionally reach items on a desk should be within how many inches?

A

21-26 inches

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24
Q

at what level should the computer monitor be?

A

at eye level

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25
Q

arms should be positioned ____ to the floor when seated

A

parallel

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26
Q

how should feet be positioned when seated?

A

flat on the floor

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27
Q

what are the postural requirements?

A

must be energy efficient

must minimalize stress to the musculoskeletal system

must focus on function

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28
Q

what is static posture?

A

erect, bipedal stance in humans

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29
Q

what is the basis for understanding dynamic posture?

A

static posture

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30
Q

when are you susceptible to muscle fatigue, altered blood flow, and perturbations?

A

in static posture

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31
Q

what type of posture requires low energy and minimal muscle activity?

A

static posture

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32
Q

what is BOS?

A

the area from the heels to toes and foot to foot

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33
Q

where is the COM/COG located in static posture?

A

anterior to S2

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34
Q

how many degree is postural sway in the sagittal plane?

A

12 deg (6 front, 6 back)

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35
Q

how many degrees is postural sway in the frontal plane?

A

16 deg (8 to each side)

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36
Q

posture is a ____ not a ____

A

activity, position

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37
Q

what is posture?

A

a dynamic and complex interaction between a variety of body systems

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38
Q

what is postural control?

A

the ability to maintain stability of the body and body segments in response to forces that threaten to disturb the body’s structural equilibrium

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39
Q

t/f: postural control requires precise function from a variety of body systems

A

true!

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40
Q

what is COG/COM?

A

the point on a structure from which gravity exerts its force

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41
Q

what is LOG?

A

vector that runs vertically from COG and determines the location of gravitational forces acting on the body

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42
Q

is the LOG within or outside the BOS in standing?

A

within

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43
Q

is the LOG within or outside the BOS in motion?

A

outside

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44
Q

what is center of pressure (COP)? where is it located?

A

center of distributed forces

b/w the feet in bipedal stance and within foot in single leg stance

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45
Q

what is the point at which the ground rxn forces are acting?

A

COP

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46
Q

in erect standing the GRF ___LOG

A

=

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47
Q

the horizontal distance b/w ___ and ___ determines the need for additional support

A

LOG, GRF

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48
Q

ideal posture is determined by ___

A

LOG

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49
Q

where is the LOG in relation to the ankle?

A

4-6 cm anterior

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50
Q

where is the LOG in relation to the knee

A

anterior

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51
Q

where is the LOG in relation to the hip?

A

posterior

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52
Q

what is normal pelvic tilt (ASIS-PSIS angle)?

A

12 deg

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53
Q

what is normal sacral inclination?

A

30-40 degrees

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54
Q

what is normal lumbar lordosis?

A

20-70 deg

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55
Q

where is the apex of the lumbar lordosis?

A

L3/L4

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56
Q

what is normal thoracic kyphosis?

A

20-50 deg

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57
Q

what is normal cervical lordosis?

A

20-30 deg

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58
Q

where does the LOG fall in relation to the ear?

A

along the tragus of the ear

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59
Q

what are common postural deviations?

A

weakened thoracic extensors

increased thoracic kyphosis

possible reduced lumbar lordosis

tightened pecs

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60
Q

what is flat back posture?

A

mild thoracic kyphosis and forward head

LOG posterior to the hips

post hip tilt

flexed lumbar spine

weakened thoracic muscles

tight pecs

potentially weakened hip flexors

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61
Q

what is the kypho-lordotic posture?

A

axis for knees and ankles is too anterior

anterior pelvic tilt

increased lumbar lordosis and thoracic kyphosis

forward neck flexion in cervical spine

weak glutes and back extensors

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62
Q

what is swayback posture?

A

very forward head

posterior pelvic tilt

decreased lumbar lordosis

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63
Q

what is scoliosis?

A

frontal plane alignment deviation

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64
Q

scoliosis creates an abnormal ____ curve of the spine

A

lateral

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65
Q

what is a common cause of scoliosis?

A

leg length discrepansy

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66
Q

what is structural scoliosis?

A

changes in the skeletal system

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67
Q

what is functional scoliosis?

A

curve caused by a changeable reason

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68
Q

what is compensated scoliosis?

A

C7 and S1/2 are lined up w/curve in b/w

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69
Q

what is uncompensated scoliosis?

A

C7 and S1/2 aren’t lined up

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70
Q

what do you look at/for in a scoliosis check?

A

rib hump, arm spaces, pelvic angle, spinal curve, and scap heights

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71
Q

what are the causes of upper and lower crossed syndromes?

A

poor postural habits

muscles imbalances (like tight or lengthened muscles)

72
Q

what is upper crossed syndrome?

A

tight upper trap, levator scap, and pecs

lengthened deep cervical muscles, serratus anterior, rhomboids, and mid and lower traps

rounded shoulders and protracted scap

forward head posture

increased cervical lordosis and thoracic kyphosis

73
Q

what is lower crossed syndrome?

A

tight hip flexors and back extensors

lengthened abdominals and glutes

knee hyperextension

biceps fem lengthening

increased lumbar lordosis

protruding abdomen

anterior pelvic tilt

74
Q

lower crossed syndrome can result in ____ movement of the COG

A

anterior

75
Q

what is genu recurvatum?

A

hyperextended knees

76
Q

patients with genu recurvatum may also have what deformity at the ankle?

A

aquinas deformity where the ankle can’t dorsiflex and get out of plantar flexion

77
Q

genu recurvatum puts excessive stress on what structure?

A

the posterior knee

78
Q

what is genu valgus?

A

knock knees

increased valgus angle/medial angle

decreased lateral angle

79
Q

what is genu varum?

A

increased lateral angle

decreased valgus angle/medial angle

bowlegged

80
Q

what is the normal foot arch?

A

a straight line b/w the med mal, navicular, and head of 1st metatarsal (Feiss line)

81
Q

what is pes planus ?

A

overpronated foot

dropped navicular

flat foot

82
Q

what is hallux abductus valgus?

A

usually a biomechanical issue

big toe curves out

may see calluses and/or bone growth

83
Q

what are torsions?

A

twist in a bone

84
Q

what is toe in position?

A

medial rotation

pigeon toed

85
Q

what is rectus position?

A

straight AP alignment of the feet

86
Q

what is toe out position?

A

lateral rotation

87
Q

what is pes cavus?

A

high arches

navicular is higher up

88
Q

what is normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

89
Q

what is the ectomorph body type?

A

skinny, hard to gain weight, slender frame, narrow chest and abdomen, smaller body structure, fast metabolism, narrow shoulders and hips

90
Q

what is the mesomorph body type?

A

medium build, rectangular/wedge body, wider/broader shoulders, fairly lean, can gain muscles easily, usually strong, more muscles of arms and legs

91
Q

what is the endomorph body type?

A

short in stature, difficult time losing body fat,bulky physique, rounder body, gain fat and muscles easily, wide shoulders and hips

92
Q

what is hypomobility?

A

decrease in quantity of motion

93
Q

what is hypermobility/instability?

A

increase in quantity of motion

more likely to dislocate or sublux

94
Q

what is a painful arc?

A

pain in a portion of the ROM

95
Q

what are the characteristics of abnormal motion?

A

hypomobility

hypermobility

aprehension to movement

painful arc

presence of crepitus/jt sounds/vibrations

pain during/at end of range

abnormal end feel

AROM not similar to PROM

compensation/aberrent motion (unusual way to get through motion)

96
Q

reduction in motion may result from factors of _____ or _____ origin

A

musculoskeletal, non-musculoskeletal

97
Q

t/f: hypomobility may be normal in advanced age

A

true

98
Q

how do we determine if hypomobility is normal?

A

see if it’s bilateral

dif-abnormal
similar-normal

99
Q

what type of abnormal motion is this:
results from laxity in capsuloligamentous complex (CLC) and changes in jt surfaces, trauma, or genetic connective tissue disorders

A

hypermobility

100
Q

what is capsular pattern?

A

restricted CLC resulting in loss of motion specific to that jt

101
Q

what is an example of a classic capsular pattern that exists in joints?

A

osteoarthritis

102
Q

what is noncapsular pattern?

A

loss of motion doesn’t follow a characteritic patterns and may be related to isolated capsular restrictions or some other cause

103
Q

what are the components that make up quality of movement?

A

coordination, neuromuscular performance, motor control, and motor performance

104
Q

to assess normalcy we must assess what 2 characteristics of motion?

A

quantity and quality of motion

105
Q

what is the quantity of motion?

A

defines the degree to which a jt moves through a given ROM

106
Q

what is the quality of motion?

A

defines the manner in which a jt moves

107
Q

what is muscle length?

A

functional excursion of a muscle from its fully lengthened position to its fully shortened position

108
Q

what is muscle play?

A

ability of a muscle to move transversely relative to underlying tissue

109
Q

one jt muscles are often measured through _____ ROM

A

passive

110
Q

the expectation is that one jt muscles should allow max ____

A

PROM

111
Q

what is passive insufficiency?

A

multi jt muscles lengthened across both jts and cannot lengthen anymore

112
Q

what is active insufficiency?

A

multi jt muscles that are so contracted, they can’t create any more actin/myosin overlap

113
Q

t/f: to assess the length of a multi-joint muscles, the joint is held statically while the other is moved through its full ROM

A

true!

114
Q

measurement of the ____ joint moved provides quantification of muscles length

A

last

115
Q

what is classic motion?

A

osteokinematic motion

116
Q

how is osteokinematic motion quantified?

A

using goniometry

117
Q

what are accessory/component movements?

A

arthrokinematics

118
Q

which is more challenging to evaluate osteokinematics or arthrokinematics?

A

arthrokinematics

119
Q

what is rolling motion in arthrokinematics?

A

angular movement

approximation of new points of one jt surface w/new points on another surface

120
Q

direction of the roll is always in the same direction as what?

A

the segment being displaced

121
Q

what is gliding motion in arthrokinematics?

A

when jt surfaces are congruent and a single point on one jt surface is repeatedly contacting new points on the other jt surface

122
Q

when the convex is moving on the concave, the roll and glide are in ____ direction

A

opposite

123
Q

when the concave is moving on the convex, the roll and glide are in ____ direction

A

same

124
Q

what is the exception to the convex-concave principle?

A

external rotation where there is a posterior glide

125
Q

what ROM provides info regarding the following?

willingness to move, coordination, muscles function, jt ROM, quality of motion

screening technique to direct other aspects of care

symptoms/limitations that may be assocated with the stretch/contraction of the tissues

A

AROM

126
Q

what ROM is a reflection of true jt ROM?

A

PROM

127
Q

is PROM or AROM normally greater?

A

PROM

128
Q

should PROM testing come before or after MMT?

A

before

129
Q

what is CPP?

A

position of a jt in which least deg of mobility b/w articular surfaces is available

130
Q

what is OPP?

A

position of max mobility

131
Q

t/f: jt surfaces are generally incongruous, except in one specific position

A

true!

132
Q

what 2 criteria should be considered for CPP/OPP?

A

jt congruency and CLC extensibility

133
Q

determining OPP/CPP can be best accomplished through what?

A

jt play

134
Q

normalcy of end feels is determined by what 3 factors?

A
  1. does the end feel match that which is expected for the jt being tested?
  2. does the end feel match that which is expected based on the direction of the motion?
  3. does the end feel occur at the proper place w/in the ROM?
135
Q

what is the starting position for all motions?

A

anatomical position

136
Q

motion begins at __ deg and proceeds to __ deg

A

0-180

137
Q

where is 0 deg in the transverse plane motion?

A

midway through the motion

138
Q

when positioning for goniometry, what segment is stabilized?

A

the proximal segment

139
Q

starting position for goniometry is __ deg

A

0

140
Q

t/f: you should reduce the effects of periarticular tissues in goniometry

A

true!

141
Q

if the measurement is not taken in a standard position, what should you do?

A

document the position measured in

142
Q

what is the body of the goniometer?

A

the circular portion with the degree marks

143
Q

what is the stationary arm of the goniometer?

A

the arm typically alignment with the proximally stabilized segment of the jt or the body

144
Q

what is the moveable arm of the goniometer?

A

the arm typically aligned with the mobile segment of the jt

145
Q

the stationary arm is aligned with the _____ axis of the ____ segment of the jt

A

longitudinal, proximal

146
Q

the moveable arm is aligned with the _____ axis of the ______ segment of the jt

A

longitudinal, distal

147
Q

how should you view the goniometer?

A

at eye level

148
Q

how could these measurements be documented?

5 degrees of hyperextension
115 degrees of flexion

A

5-0-115

149
Q

how could the following measurement be documented?

elbow flexion of 140 deg

A

0-140 deg

150
Q

what do negative #s often denote what about pt’s ROM?

A

motion which is unable to achieve neutral

151
Q

what is the purpose of goniometry?

A

to measure the angle created at a jt by adjacent bones

152
Q

decreased measurement error=_____ reliability

A

increased

153
Q

in goniometry, is the intra or inter-rater reliability greater?

A

intrarater reliability is greater

154
Q

why do we provide passive overstretch in goniometry?

A

to feel the end range and look for reproduction of symptoms

155
Q

what is the SPADI test?

A

self-administered measure of the patient’s perception of
their shoulder pain and disability in an outpatient setting.

156
Q

what are the SPADI subscales?

A

pain and disability

157
Q

what is the standard error of measure of the SPADI?

A

8.9 for pain

7.2 for functional

6.2 overall

158
Q

what is MDC of the SPADI?

A

shoulder arthroplasty: 18

adhesive capsulitis: 17

shoulder disability: 21.5

159
Q

what is the MCID of the SPADI?

A

8-13

160
Q

what is the test-retest reliability of the SPADI?

A

0.64-0.66

lacks strong reliability

strongest in AROM which ranged from 0.56-0.8

161
Q

what is the DASH?

A

measures patient’s disability in doing everyday tasks

162
Q

what is the test-retest reliability of the DASH?

A

ICC of 0.96

163
Q

what is the predictive validity of the DASH?

A

> 0.69

164
Q

what is the MDC of the DASH?

A

1.96 for proximal humeral fractures

12.2 for adults with musculoskeletal UE problems

10 for intercollegiate athletes

165
Q

what is the MCID for the DASH?

A

10.2 for adults with UE musculoskeletal complaints undergoing surgery

166
Q

what is the LEFS?

A

20 questions on patient reported LE function

167
Q

are there any subscales for the LEFS?

A

no

168
Q

what is the scale of the LEFS?

A

each item has a max score of 4 with 4 being no difficulty and 0 being extreme difficulty

169
Q

is a higher LEFS good or bad?

A

good bc its a FUNCTIONAL scale not a DISABILITY scale

170
Q

what is the standard measure of error for the LEFS?

A

ACL Reconstruction → 3.7 points

various LE Injuries → 3.9 points

TKA & THA → 3.7 points

orthopaedic Rehab Ward → 4 points

171
Q

what is the MDC of the LEFS?

A

ACL Reconstruction → 8.7 points

various LE Injuries → 9 points

hip Impairment → 7 points

TKA & THA → 9 points

172
Q

what is the MCID of the LEFS?

A

ACL reconstruction: 9 points

various LE injuries: 9 points

hip impairments: 6 points

TKA & THA: 9 points

173
Q

what is the test-retest reliability of the LEFS?

A

various LE injuries: excellent (r = 0.86)

TKA & THA: excellent (r = 0.85)

TKA & THA due to OA: excellent (r = 0.86)

hip impairments: excellent (r = 0.86)

174
Q

do you want a higher or lower score on a disability scale?

A

lower

175
Q

do you want a higher or lower score on a functional scale?

A

higher

DPT 509 (7 decks)

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