Quiz 13

Question 1

A drug is assigned a pregnancy category “A” if:

A) there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, and the risk of using the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit.
B) controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.
C) there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the documented risk.
D) studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available.

Answer 1

B) controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

Question 2

A drug that possesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in a larger single dose has demonstrated:

A) the placebo effect.
B) a cumulative action.
C) an idiosyncratic reaction.
D) cross-tolerance.

Answer 2

B) a cumulative action.

Question 3

A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index:

A) can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.
B) should not be given because its effects are too harmful.
C) should not be given to patients over 50 years of age.
D) is safe to give because the chance of toxicity is remote.

Answer 3

A) can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.

Question 4

A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:

A) bone marrow.
B) stomach.
C) spleen.
D) liver.

Question 5

A patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid is given together with a benzodiazepine. This is an example of:

A) synergism.
B) summation.
C) antagonism.
D) potentiation.

Answer 5

A) synergism.

Question 6

An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n):

A) side effect.
B) placebo effect.
C) adverse effect.
D) idiosyncrasy.

Answer 6

C) adverse effect.

Question 7

Common components of a medication profile include which of the following?

A) Pregnancy risk factors
B) The weight of the drug
C) The cost of the medication
D) Specific time schedules

Answer 7

A) Pregnancy risk factors

Question 8

Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called:

A) tolerance.
B) addiction.
C) habituation.
D) immunity.

Answer 8

A) tolerance.

Question 9

During a study, a patient experiences measurable clinical improvement or unexplained adverse effects after receiving a medication with no pharmacologic properties. This is referred to as:

A) an untoward effect.
B) an idiosyncrasy.
C) the placebo effect.
D) the therapeutic ratio.

Answer 9

C) the placebo effect.

Question 10

Stimulation of alpha1 receptors results in:

A) vasoconstriction.
B) arterial dilation.
C) glucagon secretion.
D) insulin secretion.

Answer 10

A) vasoconstriction.

Question 11

The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as:

A) potency.
B) affinity.
C) efficacy.
D) the threshold level.

Answer 11

C) efficacy.

Question 12

The action of the body in response to a medication is called:

A) biotransformation.
B) pharmacodynamics.
C) pharmacology.
D) pharmacokinetics.

Answer 12

D) pharmacokinetics.

Question 13

The generic name of a medication:

A) contains a string of letters and numbers.
B) does not require approval from the Food and Drug Administration.
C) is the official name approved by the Food and Drug Administration.
D) is proprietary and cannot be reproduced.

Answer 13

C) is the official name approved by the Food and Drug Administration.

Question 14

Which of the following is the brand name for metoprolol?

A) Vasotec
B) Cordarone
C) Lopressor
D) Tenormin

Answer 14

C) Lopressor

Question 15

Which of the following medications can be administered via the intranasal route?

A) Morphine
B) Diazepam
C) Midazolam
D) Atropine

Answer 15

C) Midazolam

Question 16

Which of the following medications is categorized as an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor?

A) Synthroid
B) Zantac
C) Diazepam
D) Captopril

Answer 16

D) Captopril

Question 17

Which of the following medications is commonly administered via a nebulizer?

A) Lidocaine
B) Penicillin
C) Albuterol
D) Solu-Medrol

Answer 17

C) Albuterol

Question 18

Which of the following medications is derived from a plant source?

A) Atropine sulfate
B) Heparin
C) Insulin
D) Lithium

Answer 18

A) Atropine sulfate

Question 19

Which of the following statements regarding the endotracheal route of medication administration is correct?

A) The endotracheal route can be considered, although it is the least desirable medication route.
B) If a medication must be given via the endotracheal route, five times the standard intravenous dose should be given.
C) Evidence has shown that medications given via the endotracheal route quickly achieve a peak plasma level.
D) Medications given via the endotracheal route should be flushed with 20 to 30 mL of sterile water.

Answer 19

A) The endotracheal route can be considered, although it is the least desirable medication route.

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding the sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is correct?

A) Large doses of intravenous nitroglycerin are required to achieve the same effect as a single sublingual nitroglycerin dose.
B) Sublingual nitroglycerin has a delayed onset of action but nearly a 100% bioavailability.
C) Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action.
D) Sublingual nitroglycerin administration involves placing a tablet between the patient’s cheek and gum.

Answer 20

C) Nitroglycerin given by the sublingual route has a rapid onset of action.