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Animal Management > Quiz 1 Animal Management > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Animal Management Flashcards

1
Q

What are ruminants?

A

Herbivores with a four-chambered stomach that can digest fibrous plant materials

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2
Q

What is a monogastric?

A

Animals with a single-chambered stomach typically requiring grain based diets

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3
Q

How much of grain product is fed to animals and how many people could this feed?

A

1/3-1/2 which could feed 3.5 billion people

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4
Q

What is blue water?

A

Water in rivers and lakes and groundwater

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5
Q

What is green water?

A

Water found in plants, the soil and rain

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6
Q

What is more efficient meat or milk?

A

Milk

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7
Q

What also impacts the efficiency of animals?

A

Maturity

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8
Q

What are legumes beneficial for?

A

They counteract depletion of nutrients in soil

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9
Q

What are the four key contributions of livestock production to society?

A

Food supply, economic value, cultural significance, and ecosystem services.

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10
Q

How do intensive livestock production systems differ from extensive systems?

A

Intensive systems have high inputs/outputs and are often controlled, while extensive systems use larger areas with lower inputs and rely on natural environments.

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11
Q

What is a mixed livestock production system?

A

A system that integrates both crops and livestock, where animals contribute to soil fertility, and crops provide feed.

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12
Q

How do different livestock species utilise feed resources?

A

Ruminants (e.g., cattle, sheep) digest fibrous material like grass, while non-ruminants (e.g., pigs, poultry) require grains.

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13
Q

What are the major resource requirements in livestock production?

A

Feed, water, and land usage.

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14
Q

Why is waste management important in intensive livestock systems?

A

To prevent pollution from large amounts of waste and to use manure as fertiliser responsibly.

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15
Q

How can livestock production impact greenhouse gas emissions?

A

Ruminants produce methane, but feed efficiency improvements and breeding for lower-emission animals help mitigate this.

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16
Q

What are three environmental management practices in livestock production?

A

Rotational grazing, waste management, and water conservation.

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17
Q

What are dual-purpose livestock production systems?

A

Systems designed to produce more than one product, such as dairy cows that also provide meat.

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18
Q

What are controlled environments in intensive livestock production?

A

Systems with regulated temperature, humidity, and light to optimise production, often with automatic feeding and waste management.

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19
Q

What are the infrastructure demands of intensive livestock systems?

A

Buildings, ventilation, sanitation, feed storage, and biosecurity measures

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20
Q

What are some animal welfare concerns in intensive livestock production systems?

A

Overcrowding and lack of stimulation, which can lead to stress, despite high production efficiency.

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21
Q

What characterises extensive livestock production systems?

A

Use of natural pastures, forests, or rangelands, with fewer inputs and more resilience to environmental changes.

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22
Q

What are the potential environmental impacts of extensive livestock production systems?

A

Overgrazing can cause soil erosion and loss of vegetation, but well-managed systems promote soil health and biodiversity.

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23
Q

Why are husbandry procedures like castration important in the Australian beef cattle industry?

A

Castration helps prevent indiscriminate breeding, improves management and handling, and reduces aggression. However, it is painful, and different methods cause different types of tissue damage.

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24
Q

What are the purposes of ear tagging and ear notching in beef cattle and what do they involve?

A

They are used for identification purposes. Ear tagging involves colour-coded tags based on the year of birth, while ear notching involves a unique cut-out pattern in the ear.

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25
Q

What is the difference between disbudding and dehorning in beef cattle?

A

Disbudding is performed at a young age before the horn tissue attaches to the skull, while dehorning happens after the horn attaches, causing open wounds and significant pain.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of branding in the beef cattle industry, and what are the associated welfare concerns?

A

Branding is used for identification purposes, but it is known to be extremely painful for the animals.

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27
Q

What is the most significant cost for cattle production related to health management in Australia?

A

Cattle tick infestations are the most significant cost for cattle production.

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28
Q

How can clostridial diseases, like tetanus, be prevented in beef cattle?

A

Vaccinating annually is the most effective way to prevent clostridial diseases.

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29
Q

What are the symptoms, location, and treatments for cattle ticks?

A

Symptoms include anemia due to blood consumption, they are common in Eastern and Northern Queensland and NT, and treatments include chemical treatments, paddock spelling, and genetic selection.

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30
Q

How does the buffalo fly affect cattle, and how can it be managed?

A

Buffalo flies feed on blood, causing intense irritation. Management includes using traps, dung beetles, and minimising chemical treatments to prevent resistance.

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31
Q

What are the symptoms, locations, and management methods for BVDV (Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus) in cattle?

A

Symptoms include conception failure, abortion, and calf mortality. It is found wide spread in Australia, and management involves culling carriers and vaccinating.

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32
Q

What is dystocia and how is it managed in beef cattle?

A

Dystocia is calving difficulties and is managed by mating well-grown heifers with low birthweight bulls to reduce the risk of large foetuses.

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33
Q

What causes neonatal calf mortality, and how can it be mitigated?

A

Causes include insufficient milk production, especially in Northern Australia. It can be mitigated through proper nutrition and environmental management.

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34
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment methods for internal parasites like worms in beef cattle?

A

Symptoms include anaemia in cattle up to 2 years of age. Worms are more common in southern cattle, and treatment includes drenching and managing weaning at 6-8 months.

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35
Q

How is bloat in beef cattle caused and treated?

A

Bloat is caused by excessive gas accumulation in the rumen, often from lush legumes or grain diets. Treatment includes managing at-risk pastures and using a stomach tube or rumen incision.

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36
Q

What is bovine ephemeral fever, and how is it treated?

A

Bovine ephemeral fever is spread by biting insects, causing fever and lameness, particularly in northern Australia. Treatment involves drugs to reduce the fever.

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37
Q

What are the key components of pasture management in beef production?

A

Pasture management includes soil and water management and the use of fertilisers.

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38
Q

What is TMR management in feedlot systems?

A

Total mixed ration management involves selecting appropriate feed mixtures for cattle in feedlots.

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39
Q

What is a calf?

A

A young cow, either male or female under one year of age

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40
Q

What is a weaner?

A

A calf that has been weaned from its mother’s milk, usually between 6-8 months of age in cattle and earlier in dairy

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41
Q

What is a heifer?

A

A young female cow which has not yet had a calf

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42
Q

What is a cow?

A

A mature female bovine that has given birth to at least one calf

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43
Q

What is a steer?

A

A castrated male cow

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44
Q

What is a bull?

A

An intact male cow

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45
Q

What is a vealer?

A

A young cow that is generally under 8-12 months raised specifically for meat

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46
Q

What is a cull cow?

A

A cow that is removed from the breeding herd

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47
Q

What is the importance of the 5-in-1 vaccine for beef cattle?

A

Protects against clostridial diseases such as blackleg, pulpy kidney, tetanus, black disease, and malignant oedema.

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48
Q

What is the general procedure for weaning in cattle?

A

Minimum 100 days and maximum 6 months

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49
Q

How many calving periods are there for cattle and when is it?

A

One usually during September to December

50
Q

How many mating periods are there for cattle and when is it?

A

One usually during November to February

51
Q

When does weaning usually occur in cattle?

A

February to May

52
Q

What are the two main British breeds of Bos Taurus cattle?

A

Angus and Hereford

53
Q

What is a key identifying feature of British breeds of Bos Taurus such as Angus and Hereford?

A

They tend to have more intercellular fat and produce higher quality meat.

54
Q

What are two European breeds of Bos Taurus cattle?

A

Limousin and Charolais.

55
Q

What are the identifying features of European breeds of Bos Taurus such as Limousin and Charolais?

A

Heavily muscled, higher carcass weight, and leaner beef.

56
Q

What is a downfall of Bos Taurus breeds generally in Australia?

A

They don’t tend to perform well in warmer climates or where there are more parasites.

57
Q

What is a common breed of Bos Indicus in northern Australia?

A

Brahman.

58
Q

What are the identifying features of Brahman cattle?

A

White or creamy/grey colour, large ears, and a big hump.

59
Q

What is the range of fat content in milk preferred by Australian markets?

A

3.5%-4.5%

60
Q

What does a high Somatic Cell Count (SCC) indicate in dairy cattle?

A

It is an indicator of mastitis

61
Q

What is mastitis?

A

Inflammation of the mammary gland

62
Q

What is the Bulk Milk Cell Count (BMCC) used for?

A

It is an indicator of the general health status of the herd.

63
Q

What is environmental mastitis, and how is it spread?

A

It is a form of mastitis that is normally shed in faeces and found on teats and udders. Teat injuries and poor udder preparation predispose cows to infection.

64
Q

What are common management strategies to control mastitis?

A

Prevent, monitor, test, treat, and improve milking routines and environment.

65
Q

At what temperature and duration is pasteurisation performed to ensure milk safety?

A

72°C for 15 seconds or 63°C for 30 minutes.

66
Q

What are the five key elements of caring for newborn dairy calves?

A

Quick removal from the dam, disinfection of the birth cord, feeding colostrum, monitoring for dehydration, and addressing signs of illness.

67
Q

What is colostrum, and why is it important for dairy calves?

A

Colostrum is the first milk from the dam, rich in antibodies, and essential for the newborn calf’s immune protection.

68
Q

Why should colostrum be administered quickly to dairy calves?

A

It should be fed quickly for maximum absorption in the intestine.

69
Q

What is milk fever in dairy cattle, and how is it treated?

A

Caused by low blood calcium, leading to muscular weakness and potentially death. It is treated with calcium borogluconate administered intravenously or subcutaneously.

70
Q

What are the signs of subclinical acidosis in dairy cattle?

A

Cows not eating, low milk fat percentage, and foamy faeces.

71
Q

What is lameness in dairy cattle, and what can cause it?

A

Lameness is a mobility issue caused by factors like poor dairy shed design, rough walking surfaces, and conditions such as white line disease, sole bruising, and foot rot.

72
Q

What is subclinical mastitis?

A

Subclinical mastitis shows no observable symptoms but leads to significant changes in milk composition, especially an increase in somatic cell count.

73
Q

What is milk let down, and what triggers it?

A

Milk let down is the release of milk from the mammary glands, triggered by the hormone oxytocin, often stimulated by the calf or the milking process.

74
Q

What are the 3 Qs of colostrum management for newborn calves?

A

Quality, quantity and quickly

75
Q

How does the low volume feeding influence ruminant growth in calves?

A

Encourages faster transition to ruminant digestion

76
Q

How does the high volume feeding influence ruminant growth in calves?

A

Results in a slower transition to ruminant digestion but supports early growth.

77
Q

What are the differences between individual vs. group rearing systems for calves?

A

Individual rearing allows more monitoring of health and feed intake but can lack socialisation, whilst group rearing promotes social behaviour but may increase disease transmission.

78
Q

What is the fertility cycle of a dairy cow?

A

21 days

79
Q

How long is a cow’s pregnancy?

A

9 months

80
Q

What is the typical lactating period for a dairy cow?

A

305 days

81
Q

How long is the dry period for a dairy cow and why is it needed?

A

60 days, allowing the cow to rest before the next lactation.

82
Q

At what age should a heifer be first impregnated?

A

Typically be impregnated at around 13-14 months

83
Q

Why does milk production increase with subsequent pregnancies?

A

First pregnancies involve energy for both growth and milk production, but in later pregnancies, the cow’s energy is more focused on milk production as she is fully grown.

84
Q

What are three common dairy breeds in Australia?

A

Holstein, Jersey and Brown Swiss

85
Q

How are Holstein identifiable?

A

Black and white

86
Q

How are Jersey identifiable?

A

Smaller, light brown colour

87
Q

How are Brown Swiss identifiable?

A

Large brown or grey coat

88
Q

What vaccination is used in dairy cattle?

A

7-in-1

89
Q

What is the flight zone in sheep?

A

The flight zone is the space sheep maintain between themselves and humans.

90
Q

What is the point of balance when handling sheep?

A

The point of balance is at the shoulder. If you move in front of the point of balance, the sheep will move backward, and if you move behind it, the sheep will move forward.

91
Q

What is crutching, and why is it done?

A

Crutching is the removal of wool from the rear end of the sheep to reduce faecal and birth matter buildup on wool, preventing contamination.

92
Q

When is lamb marking done, and what does it involve?

A

Lamb marking is done at 4-8 weeks and includes earmarking female right ear, male left ear

93
Q

What is also done during lamb marking?

A

Castration, tail docking and sometimes mulesing.

94
Q

What is mulesing, and why is it performed?

A

Mulesing involves removing skin folds from the breech area to increase the bare area and reduce the incidence of fly strike by up to 90%. It is a painful but effective procedure.

95
Q

What is fly strike, and why is it a concern?

A

Fly strike is caused by flies laying eggs on sheep, leading to maggots eating the sheep’s flesh. It causes irritation, infection, and up to 3 million sheep deaths each year.

96
Q

Why is tail docking performed in sheep?

A

Tail docking is done to prevent the buildup of faeces on the tail (dags), reducing the risk of fly strike.

97
Q

What are the three main methods of managing internal parasites in sheep?

A

Internal parasites are managed by oral drenching, grazing management, worm egg count testing, and selecting appropriate drench based on drench resistance.

98
Q

What are common external parasites in sheep, and how are they controlled?

A

Blowfly and lice are common external parasites. Lice damage wool, causing irritation. Dipping after shearing is the best control method.

99
Q

What is foot rot, and how is it managed in sheep?

A

Foot rot is an infectious disease causing redness between toes and lameness. It is managed by treating infected sheep and isolating them from the flock.

100
Q

What is Ovine Johne’s disease, and how is it controlled?

A

Ovine Johne’s disease is a wasting disease endemic to Australia. There is no preventive vaccine, but control vaccines reduce bacterial shedding.

101
Q

Why is shearing a welfare issue in sheep production?

A

Labour shortages lead to delays in shearing and poorly done shearing leading to nicks and cuts

102
Q

What is wet and drying in sheep management, and why is it done?

A

Wet and drying is the process of identifying which ewes are suckling lambs

103
Q

What is a ram?

A

A ram is an adult intact male sheep that is used for breeding

104
Q

What is an ewe?

A

An ewe is an adult female sheep.

105
Q

What is a lamb?

A

A lamb is a young sheep, typically under one year old.

106
Q

What is a wether?

A

A wether is a castrated male sheep.

107
Q

What is a yearling?

A

A yearling is a sheep that is between one and two years old.

108
Q

What are three common meat breeds of sheep in Australia?

A

Dorper, Suffolk and Poll Dorset

109
Q

What are the identifying features of Dorper sheep?

A

Dorper sheep have a white body with a black or white head

110
Q

What are the identifying features of Suffolk sheep?

A

Suffolk sheep are known for their black faces and legs, with a white wool body.

111
Q

What are the identifying features of Poll Dorset sheep?

A

Poll Dorset sheep are white, with no horns

112
Q

What are two common wool breeds of sheep in Australia?

A

Merino and Border Leicester.

113
Q

What are the identifying features of Merino sheep?

A

Merino sheep have dense, fine wool and are generally smaller in size

114
Q

What are the identifying features of Border Leicester sheep?

A

Border Leicester sheep have long, coarse wool, white faces with no wool on their heads

115
Q

What does quality of colostrum refer to?

A

The antibody content specifically immunoglobulin IgG

116
Q

What types of diseases does the 7-in-1 vaccine protect against?

A

Protects against five clostridial diseases and two strains of leptospirosis.

117
Q

What are the health impacts of high-volume feeding in calves?

A

The slower development of the ruminant can lead to digestive issues when transitioning to solid feed, potentially increasing the risk of bloat and acidosis.

118
Q

What are the health impacts of low-volume feeding in calves?

A

The faster development of the ruminant reduces the likelihood of digestive problems like bloat and acidosis and promotes better long-term digestive health.

119
Q

What are the productive impacts of low-volume feeding in calves?

A

Calves can be transitioned to ruminant diet sooner and become productive more quickly. This can lead to more efficient use of feed resources and potentially lower overall feeding costs

120
Q

What are the productive impacts of high-volume feeding in calves?

A

The extended milk dependence can negatively impact efficiency, as farmers need to continue providing milk for longer periods.

Animal Management (2 decks)

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