Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When considering a person’s risk for measles, mumps, and rubella, the NP considers the following:
Select one:
a. Children should have two doses of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine before their sixth birthday
b. Considerable mortality and morbidity occur with all three diseases
c. Most cases of the three diseases in the United States occur in infants
d. The use of the vaccine is often associated with protracted arthralgia

A

a. Children should have two doses of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine before their sixth birthday

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2
Q
Which of the following conditions does not have a bacterial etiology?
Select one:
a. Epiglottis
b. Infectious Mononucleosis
c. Acute otitis media
d. Conjunctivitis
A

b. Infectious Mononucleosis

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3
Q
A 6-year-old patient arrives at your clinic with a painful limp that seemed to develop out of nowhere.  While examining the patient, you discover that the internal rotation of the hip causes spasms.  Suspecting toxic synovitis, you order a series of lab panels and imaging studies for confirmation.  Which of these procedures would NOT typically be ordered?
Select one:
a. Ultrasonography
b. Creatine kinase test
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate test
A

b. Creatine kinase test

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4
Q

Rates of sepsis in children have lowered in recent years mainly because of:
Select one:
a. more stringent screening and diagnosis of febrile illness
b. increased use of antipyretics
c. longer observation period in children with febrile illness
d. higher rates of select immunization

A

d. higher rates of select immunization

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5
Q

Which of the following best defines a simple partial seizure?
Select one:
a. Staring for 25 seconds prior to onset of minor autonomic symptoms
b. Minor motor symptoms with no loss of consciousness
c. Staring for 10 seconds with brief onset and termination
d. Partial loss of consciousness with increased muscle tone

A

a. Staring for 25 seconds prior to onset of minor autonomic symptoms

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6
Q
You are treating Cynthia, age 9, who has recently been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism.  What two drugs should you recognize as typical first line treatment?
Select one:
a. Methimazole and levothyroxine
b. Propranolol and methimazole
c. Levothyroxine and propranolol
d. Insulin and propylthiouracil
A

a. Methimazole and levothyroxine

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7
Q
Pertussis is primarily spread via:
Select one:
a. Contact with a contaminated surface
b. Respiratory droplet
c. Blood contact
d. Skin-to-skin contact
A

b. Respiratory droplet

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true about inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)?
Select one:
a. It contains live virus
b. It is the preferred method of immunization in North American
c. Two doses should be administered by a child’s fourth birthday
d. After administration of IPV, live poliovirus is usually shed from the stool

A

b. It is the preferred method of immunization in North American

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is most true regarding sinusitis in young children?
Select one:
a. Sinusitis occurs in children beginning at 6 years of age or older
b. Sinusitis is distinguished from acute otitis media by its typical pathogens
c. Radiological studies are the most common method of confirming a diagnosis
d. The parasinuses are the most commonly affected sinuses

A

d. The parasinuses are the most commonly affected sinuses

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10
Q

When giving IIV3 or IIV4 to a 7-year-old who has not received any influenza immunization in the past, the NP considers:
Select one:
a. Two-doses 4 weeks apart or more apart should be given
b. A single dose is adequate
c. Children in this age group have the highest rate of influenza-related hospitalizations
d. The vaccine should not be given to a child with a shellfish allergy

A

a. Two-doses 4 weeks apart or more apart should be given

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11
Q

Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?
Select one:
a. Receiving blood products
b. Ingestion of raw shellfish
c. Drinking municipally sourced tap drinking water
d. Ingestion of fecally contaminated food

A

d. Ingestion of fecally contaminated food

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12
Q
A 13-year-old adolescent female is brought in by her mother for a sports physical.  The mother reports that the teen's last vaccines were given at the age of 6 years.  Which of the following vaccines is recommended by the CDC for this patient?
Select one:
a. Td and HPV
b. Tdap, MCV4, and the HPV vaccines
c. DTap and the flu vaccine
d. DT and the MCV4 vaccines
A

b. Tdap, MCV4, and the HPV vaccines

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13
Q
A treatment option for persistent OME is:
Select one:
a. Amoxicillin plus clavulanate
b. Oral antihistamine
c. Oral decongestant
d. Tympanostomy
A

d. Tympanostomy

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14
Q
Recommended total daily screen time (i.e. television, computer, tablet, games, other) for a young child is:
Select one:
a. 0-30 minutes
b. 1-2 hours
c. 2-3 hours
d. > 4 hours
A

b. 1-2 hours

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15
Q

Which of these signs would indicate meningitis in a patient?
Select one:
a. Pain upon external rotation of the knee
b. Pain upon extension of the leg when the hip is flexed 90 degree
c. Sciatic pain when both legs are elevated off the exam table
d. Pain with internal rotation of the flexed right thigh

A

b. Pain upon extension of the leg when the hip is flexed 90 degree

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16
Q

A newborn’s mother is discovered to be HBsAg (hepatitis B antigen) positive. Which of the following would you recommend for this infant?
Select one:
a. Give the baby hepatitis B immunoglobulin
b. Give the baby both hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin
c. Give the baby hepatitis B vaccine only
d. Send the baby home because he is not infected

A

b. Give the baby both hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin

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17
Q
You are treating a 24-month-old infant who has completed her PCV13 series.  All of the following are possible preexisting conditions that would require administration of one dose of the 23PS formulation except;
Select one:
a. Chronic cardiac disease
b. Hepatitis B
c. Renal failure
d. Asplenia
A

b. Hepatitis B?

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18
Q
Potential adverse events with acetaminophen use in a child with fever and mild dehydration include:
Select one:
a. seizure
b. hepatotoxicity
c. petechial rash
d. gastric ulcer
A

b. hepatotoxicity

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19
Q

A mother brings in her 6-year-old daughter to see the NP. She complains that the school nurse found a few nits on her daughter’s hair. The mother states the school has a ‘no nits’ policy regarding head lice and the child cannot go back to school until all the nits have been removed. The child was treated with permethrin shampoo (Nix) twice about 3 months ago. During the physical exam, the NP sees a few nits that are about 2 inches away from the scalp. The child denies itchiness on her scalp. Which of the following is the best action for the NP to follow?
Select one:
a. Prescribe Lindane (Kwell) for the child because she may have head lice that are resistant to permethrin.
b. Advise the mother to use a nit comb after spraying the child’s hair with white distilled vinegar, waiting for 15 minutes, and the rinsing the child’s hair.
c. Advise the mother to re-treat the girl with permethrin cream instead of shampoo
d. Reassure the mother that the nits will probably drop off after a few weeks.

A

b. Advise the mother to use a nit comb after spraying the child’s hair with white distilled vinegar, waiting for 15 minutes, and the rinsing the child’s hair.

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20
Q
A neighbor's 14-year-old son, who is active in basketball, complains of pain and swelling on both knees.  On physical exam, there is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity of both knees.  Which of the following is most likely?
Select one:
a. Chondromalacia patella
b. Left knee sprain
c. Osgood-Schlatter disease
d. Tear of the medial ligament
A

c. Osgood-Schlatter disease

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21
Q

An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of “a sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis, minimally tender anterior and posterior rash. Abdominal examination reveals right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
a. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Rubella
d. Scarlet fever

A

b. Infectious mononucleosis

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22
Q
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to relieve fever and discomfort in a child with varicella?
Select one:
a. ibuprofen
b. aspirin
c. acetaminophen
d. cold bath
A

c. acetaminophen

23
Q

When advising a patient about immunization with the nasal spray live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV, Flumist), the NP considers the following:
Select one:
a. Its use is acceptable in pregnancy
b. Its use is limited to children younger than 2 years of age
c. Its use is currently not recommended owing to low effectiveness
d. A potential harmful virus can be shed to vulnerable household members post vaccination.

A

c. Its use is currently not recommended owing to low effectiveness

24
Q
outine adolescent vaccination against HBV was recommended in what year?
Select one:
a. 1996
b. 1991
c. 1982
d. 1978
A

a. 1996

25
Q

Most AOM is caused by:
Select one:
a. Certain gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and select respiratory viruses.
b. Atypical bacteria and pathogenic fungi
c. Rhinovirus and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
d. Predominately beta-lactamase-producing organisms

A

a. Certain gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and select respiratory viruses.

26
Q

Which groups with no history of varicella infection or previous immunization should be targeted for vaccination? (Choose all that apply)
Select one or more:
a. Those born before 1980
b. Individuals > 8 years old with HIV infection with CD4+T-lymphocyte counts > 200cells/uL
c. Adults and children with a history of anaphylactic reaction when exposed to neomycin
d. Day-care workers

A

b. Individuals > 8 years old with HIV infection with CD4+T-lymphocyte counts > 200cells/uL
d. Day-care workers

27
Q

Characteristics of H. influenzae include:
Select one:
a. Rare beta-lactamase production
b. Antimicrobial resistance because of altered protein binding sites
c. Organism most commonly isolated from mucoid middle ear effusion
d. Gram-positive organism

A

c. Organism most commonly isolated from mucoid middle ear effusion

28
Q
A toddler recently diagnosed as anemic is found to have a reticulocyte count of 0.3%.  All of the following may explain these findings except:
Select one:
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Folic acid anemia
d. Bone marrow failure
A

b. Hemolytic anemia

29
Q

You are treating an overweight 7-year-old Hispanic female diagnosed with hypertension. She has a family history of type 2 diabetes. Which of the following is true regarding risk factors and screening for type 2 diabetes for this patient?
Select one:
a. The patient should not be screened until age 10 or onset of puberty
b. The patient should be screened as soon as possible due to her hypertendion
c. The patient should be screened before the age of 7
d. The patient should be screened as soon as possible due to risk factors related to her ethnicity.

A

a. The patient should not be screened until age 10 or onset of puberty

30
Q
Which of the following is usually absent in otitis media with effusion (OME)?
Select one:
a. Fluid in the middle ear
b. Otalgia
c. Fever
d. Itch
A

c. Fever?

31
Q

The following symptom indicates possible acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection:
Select one:
a. Pustular lesions in a scattered pattern
b. Red wheals that begin on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities
c. Vesicular-form skin lesion
d. Maculopapular rash

A

d. Maculopapular rash

32
Q

Which wound presents the greatest risk for tetanus infection?
Select one:
a. A puncture wound obtained while playing in a garden
b. A laceration obtained from a knife used to trim raw beef
c. A human bite
d. An abrasion obtained by falling on a sidewalk

A

a. A puncture wound obtained while playing in a garden

33
Q

Which of the following represents the best choice of clinical agents for a child with AOM who has had a history of penicillin allergy who requires antimicrobial therapy?
Select one:
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Cefdinir
c. Amoxicillin
d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)

A

b. Cefdinir

34
Q
Erythromycin 200 mg with sulfisoxazole 600 mg suspension (pediazole) is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
Select one:
a. G6PD deficiency
b. Lead Poisoning
c. Beta thalassemia minor
d. B12 deficiency anemia
A

a. G6PD deficiency

35
Q
The earliest age than an MMR can be administered is at:
Select one:
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 12 months
A

d. 12 months

36
Q

Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?
Select one:
a. This vaccine contains live virus
b. Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy
c. Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction
d. One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized

A

a. This vaccine contains live virus

37
Q
A febrile 5-year-old patient with sickle cell anemia has continued bedwetting.  You order a urinalysis.  Which of the following findings would you expect?
Select one:
a. Proteinuria
b. Red blood cells
c. Leukocyte esterase
d. Specific gravity of 1.008
A

d. Specific gravity of 1.008

38
Q
A 15-month-old infant is in your office for a well baby check.  The mother denies history of chickenpox infection.  Which of the following immunizations is indicated at this visit?
Select one:
a. DTaP, Hib, IPV, Hepatitis B
b. DTaP, Hib, PCV, IPV, MMR
c. MMR, Hepatitis B, varicella
d. DTaP, IPV, MMR, varicella
A

?

d. DTaP, IPV, MMR, varicella

39
Q
A toddler who presents with iron-deficiency anemia is also at increased risk for lead poisoning due to pica. After moving to a house built in 1965, the mother brings the child in for venous blood level testing.  While going over the results, you explain that chelation therapy is not recommended because the toddler's venous blood level concentrations do not reach which threshold?
Select one:
a. 35 ug/dl
b. 45 ug/dl
c. 65 ug/dl
d. 75 ug/dl
A

? b. 45 ug/dl

40
Q

When counseling the family of an otherwise healthy 2-year-old child who just had a febrile seizure, you consider which of the following regarding whether the child is at risk for future febrile seizures? (Choose all that apply)
Select one or more:
a. The occurrence of one febrile seizure is predictive of having another
b. Intermittent diazepam can be used prophylactically during febrile illness to reduce risk of recurrence
c. A milder temperature elevation in a child with a history of a febrile seizure poses significant risk for future recurrent febrile and nonfebrile seizures
d. Consistent use of antipyretics during a febrile illness will significantly reduce the risk of a future febrile seizure

A

a. The occurrence of one febrile seizure is predictive of having another
b. Intermittent diazepam can be used prophylactically during febrile illness to reduce risk of recurrence

41
Q

When considering vaccinating a pregnant woman with IIV3 or IIV4, the NP considers that:
Select one:
a. There is a small risk of the virus spreading to the fetus
b. Immunization should not be done in the third trimester
c. The unborn child acquires some protection against influenza up to 6 months after birth
d. LAIV is the preferred vaccine for pregnant women

A

? c. The unborn child acquires some protection against influenza up to 6 months after birth

42
Q
The main risk factor for AOM in infants is:
Select one:
a. Undiagnosed dairy allergy
b. Eustachian tube dysfunction
c. Cigarette smoke exposure
d. Use of soy-based infant formula
A

b. Eustachian tube dysfunction

43
Q

When advising parents about injectable inactivated influenza vaccine, trivalent or quadrivalent (IIV 3 or IIV 4); the clinician considers the following about the vaccine:
Select one:
a. The vaccine is contraindicated with a personal history of a mild hive-form reaction to eggs
b. Its use is limited to children older than 2 years
c. The vaccine contains live virus
d. Its use is recommended for members of households containing high-risk patients.

A

d. Its use is recommended for members of households containing high-risk patients.

44
Q

When assessing a febrile child, the NP considers that:
Select one:
a. even minor temperature elevation is potentially harmful
b. nuchal rigidity is usually not found in early child- hood meningitis
c. fever-related seizures usually occur at the peak of the temperature
d. most children with temperatures of 38.3⁰C to 40⁰C (101⁰F to 104⁰F) have a potentially serious bacterial infection

A

b. nuchal rigidity is usually not found in early child- hood meningitis

45
Q
A 2-year-old girl presents with pustular, ulcerating lesions on the hands and feet and oral ulcers. The child is cranky, well hydrated and afebrile. The most likely diagnosis is
Select one:
a. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
b. Aphthous stomatitis
c. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
d. Vincent angina
A

a. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

46
Q

Which of the following is not seen during body temperature increase found in fever?
Select one:
a. lower rate of viral replication
b. toxic effect on select bacteria
c. negative effect on S. pneumoniae growth
d. increased rate of atypical pneumonia pathogen replication

A

d. increased rate of atypical pneumonia pathogen replication

47
Q
You examine a 15-year-old presenting with a 1-day history of sore throat, low-grade fever, maculopapular rash, and posterior cervical and occipital lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
a. Scarlet fever
b. Roseola
c. Rubella
d. Rubeola
A

c. Rubella

48
Q
The incidence of AOM in children has decreased in the past decade in part because of:
Select one:
a. Earlier detection and treatment
b. More effective treatment options
c. An increase in select vaccination use
d. Lower rates of viral infection
A

c. An increase in select vaccination use

49
Q
The incubation period for measles caused by the rubeola virus is
Select one:
a. 7-10 days
b. 10-14 days
c. 1-2 weeks
d. 2-3 weeks
A

b. 10-14 days

50
Q

As part of the evaluation in a febrile 3-year-old boy, the following white blood cell count with differential is obtained:

WBCs = 22,100/mm3
Neutrophils = 75% (normal 40% to 70%) with toxic granulation
Bands = 15% (normal 0% to 4%)
Lymphocytes = 4% (normal 30% to 40%)
Which of the following best describes the WBC with differential results?
Select one:
a. leukocytosis with neutrophilia
b. leukopenia with lymphocytosis
c. lymphopenia with neutropenia
d. leukopenia with neutropenia
A

a. leukocytosis with neutrophilia

51
Q
Which of the following pathogens is most commonly responsible for epiglottitis?
Select one:
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Haemophilus influenzae
A

d. Haemophilus influenzae

52
Q

When answering questions about hepatitis A vaccine, you consider stating that it:
Select one:
a. Contains live virus
b. Should be given to all children unless contraindicated
c. Frequently causes systemic post-immunization reaction
d. Is nearly 100% protective after a single injection

A

b. Should be given to all children unless contraindicated

53
Q
Jamie, a 4-year-old male, presents to the clinic in a sleepy afebrile state.  His mother mentions that after his afternoon nap, he started screaming in their brightly lit den and began vomiting.  When she tried to talk to him, he spoke nonsense,  When you talk to Jamies, he rouses, exhibits normal speech and says he feels fine.  what is the most likely source of Jamie's symptoms?  
Select one:
a. Viral meningitis
b. Brain tumor
c. Neurofibromatosis
d. Confusional migraine
A

d. Confusional migraine

54
Q
These results increase the likelihood that the cause of the above-mentioned question child's infection is:
Select one:
a. viral
b. parasitic
c. fungal
d. bacterial
A

d. bacterial