Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RAD 390 - Radiation Therapy Oncology Nursing > Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Abnormal growth of tissue resulting from uncontrolled progressive multiplication of cells that serves no function

A

Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Spread of cancer beyond the primary site; tumor moves

A

Metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Depth at which electronic equilibrium occurs for photon beams; depth of maximum absorbed dose and ionizations for photons from a single treatment field, falls off after
As energy goes up, this goes further down; higher energy = lower

A

D-max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Region between the skin surface and the depth of D-max
In this region, dose increases with depth until it reaches a maximum at the depth of D-max
The higher the x-ray energy, the greater this

A

Build-up region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dose delivered at the depth of D-max through a single treatment field; where we can calculate what is given at D-max

A 
Given dose (GD)
Applied dose
D-max dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unit of time; unit of output measure for linacs
Accelerators are calibrated so that 1 delivers 1 cGy for a standard, reference field size at a standard reference depth at a standard source-to-calibration point

A

Monitor unit (MU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1 MU = ? cGy

A

1 cGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Average daily dose

A

180-280 cGy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Point of intersection of the three axes of rotation of the treatment unit; gantry, couch and collimator rotate around this point in space, usually tumor

A

Isocenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Central portion of beam emanating from the target, only part of the beam that doesn’t diverge

A

Central axis (CA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Distance from the source to the patient’s skin; disadvantage: have to move patient to make up for difference in thickness of patient

A

Source-skin distance (SSD) set-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Distance from source to the axis of rotation of the treatment unit (isocenter)

A

Source-axis distance (SAD) set-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Unblocked or open field size projected at the reference distance, usually the isocenter (100 cm)

A

Collimator field size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Equivalent rectangular field dimension of the open treatment area within the collimated field
Ex: MLCs, aperture block

A

Blocked (effective) field size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Small packet of electromagnetic energy (ex: x-rays, gamma rays, etc.)

A

Photon energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Negatively charged subatomic energy that can be accelerated by a variety of machines or emitted from decaying isotopes

A

Electron energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tool that modifies the isodose distribution of a beam to correct for tissue inhomogeneities by progressively decreasing beam intensity across the field irradiated

A

Wedge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Correct for tissue inhomogeneities

A

Compensating filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Used to form/shape treatment field made of 50% bismuth, 26.7% lead, 13.3% tin and 10% cadmium; low melting point but toxic

A

Cerrobend block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Distinct part of a linac that allows treatment field shaping and blocking through the use of motorized leaves and the head of the machine

A

Multi-leaf collimators (MLCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Extended metal structure used to restrict the useful beam to the required size

A

Electron application (cone)
Extension cone
Cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tissue equivalent material placed on the skin to increase skin dose and even out irregular contours on the patient (similar Z to tissue)

A

Bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Allows part of the beam to pass through while reflecting the other part of the beam; prevents beam from diverging into other part of field

A

Beamsplit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Immobilization devices created from styrofoam shell and foaming agents

A

Alpha cradle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Immobilization device that consists of a cushion and a vacuum compression pump (“beanbag”)

A

Vac-Lok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Thermoplastic immobilization device; facemask

A

Aquaplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Used to help immobilize and position tongue

A

Bite block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lasers that project a small red or green beam of light toward the patient to set up the patient for right treatment
5: right, left, ceiling, floor, back

A

Positioning lasers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Treat patient with one field

A

Single field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pair of fields directed along the same axis from opposite sides (ex: AP and PA)

A

Parallel opposed fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Two oblique fields which are similar to a breast bridge, skim the field

A

Tangential field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Distance from midline to side

A

Breast bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Isocentric technique where the beam moves continuously about the patient

A

Rotation/arc therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment at a short distance; uses radioactive material to deliver dose administered directly into the tumor
Used in early stage disease or as a boost (ex: prostate seeds)

A

Brachytherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Shows distribution of absorbed dose and points of equal dose

A

Isodoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Organs that limit the dose or dose that can be tolerated by critical structures

A

Critical organ dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal tissue or vital organs whose radiation tolerance limits the deliverable dose

A

Critical structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Normal tissues (critical structures) in which sensitivity to radiation damage may influence treatment planning and/or delivery of a prescribed dose of radiation

A

Organ at rise (OAR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Distance between the borders of two adjacent fields, usually measured on the patient’s skin; used to measure and verify the depth at which two adjacent fields abut

A

Gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The use of imaging to compare the position of external set-up marks and internal anatomy to the treatment plan; ex: CT, portal imager (mV and/or kV), etc.

A

Image guided radiation therapy (IGRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Therapy that delivers non-uniform exposure across the beam’s eye view (BEV) using a variety of techniques and equipment
Changes dose distribution between each field; static field
Inversed planned type treatment

A

Intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Visualization perspective that is “end-on” or positioned as if looking at a volume from the source or radiation; made possible from collected CT data, this perspective is essential in three-dimensional planning

A

Beam’s eye views (BEVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Type of specialized IMRT where it delivers radiation by rotating the radiation machine through one or more arcs while radiation is continuously delivered

A

Volumetric modulated arc therapy (VMAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Type of radiation therapy in which the radiation is delivered slice by slice; 6x energy
Treatment unit where the linac rotates continuously while the treatment couch moves through the gantry bore producing a spiral treatment beam

A

Tomotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Radiation therapy unit that accelerates electrons and produces x-rays or electron treatments

A

Linear accelerator (linac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

About 1 in ____ women will develop cancer (____ out of 100)

A

3; 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

About 1 in ____ men will develop cancer (____ out of 100)

A

2; 41

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cancer contributes to 1 out of every ____ deaths

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cancer is ________ to heart disease as the most common cause of death

A

2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

______ deaths a day from cancer in the US

A

1650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Preventative treatment (ex: treat brain for small cell lung cancer)

A

Profolactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Uncontrollable growth of irregular cells; will grow as long as it can
Poor cell differentiation
Invades other tissues (altered surface enzymes allow tumor to grow into other tissues)
Grow at new sites (lymph, blood, etc.)
Avoid immune system (immunotherapy)
Autonomy

A

Cancer cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Increased growth

A

-plasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Abnormal

A

Dys-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Disorganized growth

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Increased, excessive

A

Hyper-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Quality or state of being self-governing; self-directing freedom, especially moral independence
No limitations of growth

A

Autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tumors that often invade and destroy normal surrounding tissue and, if left untreated, can cause the death of the host
Have no purpose and immortal

A

Malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Increased cellularity (number of cells increase)

A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

After

A

Meta-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Abnormal appearing of cells, start seeing different cells in an area; not counted as malignant (ex: Barrett’s esophagus)

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

More

A

Pleo-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Variance in size and shape of cells

A

Pleomorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cell looks the same as the cell it originated from

A

Well differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cell looks unlike cell it originated from; more sensitive to radiation

A

Poor differentiation/anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

2 types of exposure to carcinogens

A

Incomplete

Complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Requires same cell to be affected by promoter, can’t cause cancer on its own (ex: UV light, hormones, etc.)

A

Incomplete exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Directly causes cancer (ex: chemicals, viruses, environment)

A

Complete exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

3 stage theory of carcinogens

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

4 stages of cell growth

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression
Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Altered DNA cell leads to mutation

A

Initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Promoting agent enhances faulty DNA (preneoplastic to neoplastic)

A

Promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

New growth of tumor cell (neoplasm)

A

Progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cell growth, spreads from one point to another

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Study of the causes of disease

A

Etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Controls cellular division of normal calls; can become oncogen

A

Protooncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Gene that regulates the development and growth of cancerous tissues; on/off switch of cancer cells

A

Oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Gene whose presence and proper function produces normal cellular growth and division; absence or inactivation of such a gene lease to uncontrolled growth
Arrest the damaged DNA to give it time to repair itself

A

Tumor-suppressor gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

New growth

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Provides information about its biological aggressiveness and is based on the degree of cell differentiation

A

Grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Cancers grow by reproducing cells; completes cell cycle by loses restriction at ________

A

G0 (resting phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Time it takes for tumor to double in size (can be hours to months)

A

Doubling time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Earliest cancer can be detected on x-ray

A

30 doublings will reach 1 cm in size (about size of a marble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

_____ more doublings past 30 can lead to death

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Change in ________ can help detect cancer early

A

WBC count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Greatest risk of developing cancer

A

Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Multiple types of cells in tumor volume with a different response to radiation
Tumors are not just one type of cell

A

Tumor heterogeneity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

5 ways cancers metastasize

A

Enter blood and lymph vessels (most common)
Invasion of adjacent tissues, continuously growing
Invasion/evasion of immune system
Reentrance into distant tissue
Implantation of malignant cells in new tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Implantation of malignant cells in new tissue
The spillage of tumor cell clusters and their subsequent growth as malignant implants at a site adjacent to an original tumor
Can happen during surgery (tumor removed and part left or falls off somewhere else and grows)

A

Seeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Cancer cells break away from tumor and disseminate in blood

A

Intravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Certain cancer cells go to certain sites (ex: prostate to bone)

A

Homing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Process by which vascular networks (blood supply) are created to sustain malignant tumors

A

Angiogenesis/neovascularization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Metastasis = stage ?

A

4 (highest, poor prognosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

4 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of lung cancer

A

Liver
Adrenal glands
Bone
Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

4 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of breast cancer

A

Lymph
Bone
Lung
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Common metastatic site of stomach cancer

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

2 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of anus cancer

A

Liver

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

3 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of bladder cancer

A

Lungs
Bone
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

3 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of prostate cancer

A

Bone
Liver
Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

3 common metastatic sites (most to least common) of uterine cervix cancer

A

Lungs
Bone
Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Common metastatic site of colon cancer

A

Liver (direct hepatic drainage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Common metastatic site of sarcomas

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

3 patterns of cancer occurrence

A

Sporadic
Inherited
Familial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Most cancers arise spontaneously (most common pattern of occurrence; no history or exposure to carcinogens
Occurs later in life (greater than 50 years)

A

Sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Family has pattern of cancer, patient inherited faulty repair gene
Rare (less than 10% of all cancer)
Typically occur at younger age/earlier in life
Requires promoter, bilateral
Ex: breast cancer about 5%

A

Inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Certain cancers happen enough that it can’t be related to chance but is not genetic
Families share certain risk factors (ex: smoke, diet) and environment
Occurs later in life

A

Familial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Between ____% to _____% of all cancers are associated with lifestyle (ex: smoking and diet)

A

60% to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Most preventable cause of cancer

A

Cigarette smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

3 patterns of cancer occurance

A

Sporadic
Inherited
Familial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Most cancers arise spontaneously, no history or exposure to carcinogens; occurs later in life (greater than 50 years)

A

Sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Family has pattern of cancer, patient inherited faulty repair gene; two or more generations diagnosed with the same or related forms of cancer
Rare, less than 10% of all cancers
Typically occurs at younger age/earlier in life
Requires promotor
Usually bilateral, multifocal, or multiple primary tumors in one or more family members
Ex: about 5% of breast cancer

A

Inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Certain cancers happen enough that it can’t be related to chance but it’s not genetic
Families share certain risk factors (ex: smoke, diet) and environment
Occurs later in life

A

Familial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Between ____% to ____% of all cancers are associated with lifestyle (ex: smoking, diet)

A

60% to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Most preventable cause of cancer; ____% of lung cancer in men, ____% in women

A

Cigarette smoking; 90%, 70%

115
Q

Occurance of cancer in the general population

A

Absolute risk

116
Q

Statistical estimate that compares the likelihood of development of a cancer in a person who has a specific risk factor with the likelihood in a person who doesn’t have the specific risk factor
Risk of someone developing disease with a risk factor compared to someone without the risk factor

A

Relative risk

117
Q

Number of cases of cancer that could be prevented with the manipulation of known risk factors
Amount of disease caused by a specific risk factor and its prevention if changed within the population

A

Attributable risk

118
Q

7 cancers smoking is associated with

A 
Head and neck
Stomach
Bladder
Kidney
Pancreas
Liver
Cervix
119
Q

___% to ___% of all hereditary cancers diagnosed

A

5% to 10%

120
Q

Cancer on both sides of the body (ex: kidneys, breasts)

A

Bilateral

121
Q

Cancer in different spots, more aggressive

A

Multifocal

122
Q

Noma

A

Tumor

123
Q

Leio

A

Smooth

124
Q

Myo

A

Muscle

125
Q

Sarcoma

A

Connective tissue

126
Q

Hemato

A

Blood

127
Q

Neuro

A

Nervous system (brain)

128
Q

Adeno

A

Glandular

129
Q

Carcinoma

A

Epithelium

130
Q

Classification of benign and malignant tumors of glandular epithelium

A

Benign: adenoma
Malignant: adenocarcinoma

131
Q

Classification of benign and malignant tumors of squamous epithelium

A

Benign: papilloma
Malignant: squamous cell carcinoma

132
Q

The thin tissue forming the outer layer of a body’s surface and lining the alimentary canal and other hollow structures

A

Epithelium

133
Q

Relating to, consisting of, or denoting a layer of epithelium that consists of very thin flattened cells

A

Squamous

134
Q

Classification of benign and malignant tumors of connective tissue smooth muscle

A

Benign: leiomyoma
Malignant: leiomyosarcoma

135
Q

Classification of malignant tumors of the hematopoietic system

A

Leukemia (WBC)

136
Q

Classification of malignant tumors of the lymphoreticular system

A

Lymphoma

137
Q

Classification of benign and malignant tumors of the neural system

A

Benign: neuroma
Malignant: blastoma

138
Q

Most common histology associated with the oral cavity, pharynx, lung, anus, and cervix (tissue comes in direct contact with carcinogen)

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

139
Q

Most common histology associated with the breast

A

Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

140
Q

Most common histology associated with the colon and rectum, endometrium, and prostate (gland)

A

Adenocarcinoma

141
Q

Most common histology associated with the brain

A

Astrocytoma

142
Q

3 levels of cancer prevention

A

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary

143
Q

Evading disease by methods such as immunization, avoiding tobacco, and reducing exposure to UV light

A

Primary cancer prevention

144
Q

Early detection and treatment of subclinical, asymptomatic, or early disease in persons without signs or symptoms of cancer
Screenings should be sensitive (disease present) and specific (no disease) and take into account false positives and negatives

A

Secondary cancer prevention

145
Q

Management of an illness to prevent progression, recurrence, or other complications (ex: blood test)

A

Tertiary cancer prevention

146
Q

5 dietary recommendations to reduce cancer risk

A

Avoid overeating, maintain ideal body weight (ex: fat cells produce estrogen associated with breast cancer)
Reduce fat intake to less than 30% of total caloric intake
Eat fruits and vegetables that provide fiber (5 servings a day); decreases transfer time of fecal material, provides antioxidants
Minimize the intake of foods that are salt-cured, smoked (associated with stomach and esophageal cancer), and nitirite-cured (ex: lunch meat, bacon); food preservatives (nitrates and nitrites) associated with increased risk of cancer
Limit consumption of alcoholic beverages/don’t drink excessively (oral cavity, larynx, esophagus, breast, and liver cancer)

147
Q

Number of new cases per 100,000 people per year

A

Incidence rate

148
Q

Number of deaths per 100,000 people per year

A

Mortality rate

149
Q

Proportion of patients alive at some point after their diagnosis

A

Survival rate

150
Q

The number of cancers that exist in a defined population at a given point in time
Measures proportion of the population who have cancer at a specified point or during an interval of time; how common it is seen in population

A

Prevalence

151
Q

Include fatality rates only for those who have the disease

A

Case-fatality rate

152
Q

Most common cancer in both men and women

A

Skin cancer (basal, squamous, malignant melanomas

153
Q

3 most common cancers in men (account for 41% of all cancers in men)

A

Prostate
Lung and bronchus
Colon and rectum

154
Q

3 incidence rates of cancer in men

A

Black men have the highest incidence
White men are next
American Indians/Alaska Natives had the lowest rates

155
Q

3 most common cancers in women (account for 50% of all cancers in women)

A

Breast (30%)
Lung and bronchus
Colon and rectum

156
Q

How long you can stay in the sun without getting burned x SPF number

A

Sun protection factor (SPF)

157
Q

Second leading cause of death in the US

A

Lung cancer

158
Q

5 incidence rates of cancer in women

A 
White women have the highest rates
Blacks
Hispanics
Asian/Pacific Islander
American Indian/Alaska Native women have the lowest rates
159
Q

5 tests recommended for colorectal screenings by the American Cancer Society (ACS) and how often they should be done

A

Fecal occult blood test (FOBT)- look for blood in feces by getting a stool sample on a test card coated with a plant based substance called guaiac; annual
Flexible sigmoidoscopy (flex sig) every 5 years
Double contrast BE every 5 years
Colonoscopy every 10 years or virtual CT colonoscopy every 5 years (can’t biopsy)
Combination of FOBT and flex sig every 5 years

160
Q

When does the ACS recommend people should begin colorectal screenings?

A

Start around 50 years old or 40-45 if high risk

161
Q

3 ACS recommendations for breast cancer screenings

A

Breast self-examinations (BSE)
Clinical breast examinations
Mammography (40 years and older)

162
Q

When does the ACS recommend people should do BSEs?

A

Start at age 20 and perform monthly 5-7 days after period; lead to a lot of false positives so now recommend be familiar with breast

163
Q

When does the ACS recommend people should get clinical breast exams?

A

Start at 20 years old every 4 years until annually at 40 years old

164
Q

When does the ACS recommend people should get mammograms at 40-44 years old, 45-54, and older than 55?

A

40-44: up to patient
45-54: annually
Older than 55: every 2 years

165
Q

Mammography benefits older women ___ to ___ years old; reduce mortality by ____% to ____% at this age

A

50-69 years old

20% to 35%

166
Q

5 risk factors of breast cancer

A 
Mother or sister had premenopausal or bilateral disease
Had period before age 12
Reached menopause after age 55
First birth after 30 years old
Nulliparity
167
Q

Never given birth

A

Nulliparity

168
Q

3 components of BSEs

A

Visual examination in mirror (scaling or dimpling, change in nipple, discharge)
Palpation in the shower
Palpation in the supine position on the bed

169
Q

Blood test, indicators that increase or come about because person has cancer

A

Serum tumor markers

170
Q

Cancer protein/molecule immune system recognizes

A

Cancer antigen (CA)

171
Q

7 serum tumor markers

A 
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
CA-125
CA-15-3
CA 19-9
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
172
Q

4 cancers associated with AFP

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Choriocarcinoma (uterus)
Teratoma
Tumors of testes and ovaries

173
Q

7 cancers associated with CEA

A 
Colon
Rectum
Pancreas
Stomach
Lung
Breast
Ovary
174
Q

3 cancers associated with CA-125

A

Ovarian
Breast
Colorectal

175
Q

Cancer associated with CA-15-3

A

Breast

176
Q

4 cancers associated with CA 19-9

A

Colorectal
Pancreas
Stomach
Liver

177
Q

4 cancers associated with HCG

A

Choriocarcinomas
Germ cell tumors
Testicular disease
Hydidiform moles (cysts) - hormonal reproductive system

178
Q

Structure, shape, etc.

A

Morphology

179
Q

Cell type

A

Histology

180
Q

Surgical procedure that involves removing all or part of the tissue suspected of being cancerous

A

Biopsy

181
Q

4 biopsies from smallest to largest

A

Needle
Incisional
Excisional
Open

182
Q

2 types of needle biopsies

A

Aspiration

Core

183
Q

Smallest biopsy, cytological sample

A

Aspiration

184
Q

Insert needle and remove tumor cells

A

Core

185
Q

Act of cutting into tissue to remove part of the tumor so that a diagnosis can be made, larger than needle

A

Incisional

186
Q

Removal of the entire tumor by cutting it out so that a diagnosis can be made

A

Excisional

187
Q

Under direct vision or by laser remove part or whole tumor, most invasive

A

Open biopsy

188
Q

Why is pathology important?

A

A clinical diagnosis is just a guess without a pathology report

189
Q

3 things neede to identify the histopathology

A

Tumor type
Classification
Grade

190
Q

Tumor type

A

Origin

191
Q

Subtype of malignancy (ex: adenosquamous)

A

Classification

192
Q

Provides information about a tumor’s biologic aggressiveness and is based on the degree of cell differentiation (what cell looks like)

A

Grade

193
Q

Few features of cell tumor originated from = high grade tumor

A

Poorly undifferentiated

194
Q

Higher grade tumor = _____ aggressive

A

More aggressive

195
Q

5 grades (G) for malignancy

A 
X
I (1)
II (2)
III (3)
IV (4)
196
Q

Grade cannot be determined, not enough information

A

GX

197
Q

Cells are well differentiated, closely resembling the tissue from which they arose; considered a low-grade tumor
Mature cells

A

GI (1)

198
Q

Cells are moderately differentiated; still resemble normal cells somewhat, but exhibit more malignant characteristics
Cells have some immaturity and vary from normal tissue

A

GII (2)

199
Q

Cells are poorly differentiated; few normal cellular characteristics are retained, but the tissue of origin may still be established
Immature cells, do not look like normal cells

A

GIII (3)

200
Q

Cells are undifferentiated, no normal cellular characteristics can be found and determining the origin is very difficult

A

GIV (4)

201
Q

3 steps in which cancer is staged

A

Start with history and physical (H&P) - background (ex: smoker, drinker), family history, when signs and symptoms started if any
Order radiographic procedures, diagnostic tests (radiation oncologist = administers RT; medical oncologist = chemotherapy doctor)
Order with some labs (easy way to get a lot of information from patient)

202
Q

Step-by-step process to determine the size and location of a tumor and the degree to which it has spread

A

Staging

203
Q

The movement of charged particles in a fluid or gel under the influence of an electric field

A

Electrophoresis

204
Q

Staging system from the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) used on solid tumors (breast, lung, colon, etc.)

A

Tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) staging

205
Q

Characteristics of a given tumor (size, depth of invasion, involvement of surrounding structures)

A

Tumor (T)

206
Q

Presence or absence of involved nodes and size or number of involved nodes

A

Node (N)

207
Q

Presence or absence of metastasis

A

Metastasis (M)

208
Q

4 stages of the primary tumor (T)

A

TX
T0
Tis
T1, T2, T3, T4

209
Q

Primary tumor cannot be assesed

A

TX

210
Q

No evidence of primary tumor

A

T0

211
Q

Carcinoma in situ

A

Tis

212
Q

An early form of cancer defined by the absence of invasion

A

In situ

213
Q

Increasing size and/or local extent of the primary tumor specific to every disease

A

T1, T2, T3, T4

214
Q

3 stages of regional lymph nodes (N)

A

NX
N0
N1, N2, N3

215
Q

Regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed

A

NX

216
Q

No regional lymph node metastasis

A

N0

217
Q

Increasing involvement of regional lymph nodes

A

N1, N2, N3

218
Q

3 stages of distant metastasis

A

MX
M0
M1

219
Q

Distant metastasis cannot be assesd

A

MX

220
Q

No distant metastasis

A

M0

221
Q

Distant metastasis

A

M1 (automatically stage 4)

222
Q

3 reasons staging is important

A

Gives prognosis values
Determines treatment based on disease within the patient
Data collection gives protocols for type of disease and what treatment works best for it; tumor registry

223
Q

Database tracking mechanism for cancer incidence, characteristics, management, and results in cancer treatment facilities for patients diagnosed with cancer; carry diagnosis, stage, and treatment
Follow patient for life through followup examinations

A

Tumor registry

224
Q

4 stages of the Ann Arbor classification of lymphoma staging (Hodgkin’s) (spreads in a pattern)

A

Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV

225
Q

Lymphoma confined to nodal group

A

Stage I

226
Q

More than one group of lymphoma on the same side of the diaphragm

A

Stage II

227
Q

Lymphoma on both sides of the diagram

A

Stage III

228
Q

Disseminated disease, spread of lymphoma

A

Stage IV

229
Q

Fevers, night sweats, and weight loss from lymphoma

A

B-symptoms

230
Q

Extra lymphatic disease (extra nodal site with disease)

A

E

231
Q

5 stages of leukemia using the Rai system

A 
Stage 0
Stage I
Stage II
Stage III
Stage IV
232
Q

The Rai staging system works well with what leukemia?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

233
Q

Rai stage of leukemia where patient has more than 10,000 lymphocytes

A

Stage 0

234
Q

Rai stage of leukemia where patient has enlarged lymph nodes

A

Stage I

235
Q

Rai stage of leukemia where patient has enlarged liver and/or spleen

A

Stage II

236
Q

Rai stage of leukemia where patient has anemia

A

Stage III

237
Q

Rai stage of leukemia where patient has thrombocytopenia

A

Stage IV

238
Q

Decrease in the peripheral red cell count, low RBCs

A

Anemia

239
Q

Abnormal decrease in the number of platelets

A

Thrombocytopenia

240
Q

About ___% to ___% of all acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) will achieve complete remission and ____% to ____% will be cured; ____% to ____% cure rate for kids

A

About 80% to 90% of all acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) will achieve complete remission and 30% to 40% will be cured; 60% to 80% cure rate for kids

241
Q

Most common childhood leukemia

A

ALL

242
Q

3 stages of the Binet classification of leukemia

A

Clinical stage A
Clinical stage B
Clinical stage C

243
Q

Binet stage of leukemia where patient has no anemia or thrombocytopenia and less than three areas of lymphoid involvement

A

Clinical stage A

244
Q

Binet stage of leukemia where patient has no anemia or thrombocytopenia with greater than or equal to three areas of lymphoid involvement

A

Clinical stage B

245
Q

Binet stage of leukemia where patient has anemia and/or thrombocytopenia regardless of the number of lymphoid enlargement

A

Clinical stage C

246
Q

4 stages of colon cancer according to Dukes staging system

A

A
B
C
D

247
Q

Colon cancer confined to muscular lining of bowel wall

A

A

248
Q

Colon cancer grown beyond muscular layer of bowel wall

A

B

249
Q

Colon cancer spread to involved lymph nodes

A

C

250
Q

Distant metastasis of colon cancer

A

D

251
Q

Staging system for how deeply penetrating a melanoma is

A

Clark and Breslow

252
Q

7 other tests for cancer

A 
CT: general anatomic information
MRI: soft tissue (ex: brains)
Nuclear medicine: bone scans, physiological
PET: changed lung disease treatment
PET/CT
Bone marrow biopsy: through iliac crest
Multiple gated acquisition (MUGA) scan
253
Q

Scan that determines heart function using a gamma camera; restrictions to who can be around patient (ex: pregnant, kids)

A

Multiple gated acquisition (MUGA) scan

254
Q

5 advantages of PET/CT

A 
Concise calibration
Patient in same position
Good for lymphomas
Check response to chemotherapy
Check for recurrent disease
255
Q

Patients that have mets
Tests show no obvious origin (undifferentiated cells)
Prognosis around 3-4 months

A

Unknown primary

256
Q

Unknown primaries account for what percent of all cancers?

A

5-10%

257
Q

Must have _________________ to determine if someone has cancer

A

Tissue diagnosis

258
Q

3 steps needed to complete staging

A

Diagnosis
Prognosis
Correct treatment

259
Q

How often should we check a patient’s blood?

A

Once a week

260
Q

WBCs less than ______ stops treatment, increased risk of infection

A

2,000

261
Q

Platelets less than _______ may stop treatment; below ______ to ______ at risk for severe bleed

A

Platelets less than 100,000 may stop treatment; below 20,000 to 50,000 at risk for severe bleed

262
Q

Percent of packed RBC

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

263
Q

Normal HCT level, in men, and in women

A 
Normal = 40-45%
Men = 38.8-46.4%
Women = 35.4-44.4%
264
Q

What transports oxygen in blood

A

Iron

265
Q

Iron level

A

Hemoglobin (HGB)

266
Q

Normal HGB level in men, women, and children (g/dL)

A 
Men = 13.3-16.2 g/dL
Women = 12-15.8 g/dL
Children = 11.5-14.5 g/dL
267
Q

Normal erythrocyte (RBC) blood counts per cubic millimeter and percentage for men and women

A

Men per cubic millimeter = 4.3-5.6 x 10^6; percentage = 100

Women per cubic millimeter = 4-5.2 x 10^6; percentage = 100

268
Q

Normal reticulocyte blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 0.8-2.3% red cells

Percentage = 100

269
Q

Normal total leukocyte (WBC) blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 3,500-9,050

Percentage = 100

270
Q

Normal band blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 0-450

Percentage = 0-5

271
Q

Normal lymphocyte blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 701-4,530

Percentage = 20-50

272
Q

Normal eosinophil blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 0-540

Percentage = 0-6

273
Q

Normal basophil blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 0-180

Percentage = 0-2

274
Q

Normal monocyte blood count per cubic millimeter and percentage

A

Per cubic millimeter = 140-720

Percentage = 4-8

275
Q

Normal platelet blood count per cubic millimeter

A

165,000-415,000 per cubic millimeter (severely low less than 20,000)

276
Q

Clotting factor

A

Platelets

277
Q

Bone marrow aspiration/biopsy detects or assesses

A

Hematologic abnormalities

278
Q

Blood chemistries and hepatic function studies detects or assesses

A

Abnormalities of the liver, kidneys, and bone related to cancer or its therapy

279
Q

Complete blood count detects or assesses

A

Bone marrow abnormalities or treatment toxicity

280
Q

Creatinine clearance detects or assesses

A

Kidney function, especially important prior to administration for nephrotoxic drugs

281
Q

Hemoccult test detects or assesses

A

Presence of blood in stool; screening but not specific for cancer

282
Q

Pap smear detects or assesses

A

Cervical cancer or premalignant changes

283
Q

Serum electrophoresis detects or assesses

A

Serum protein and immunoglobulin levels (multiple myeloma)

284
Q

Urine catecholamines detects or assesses

A

Neuroblastoma, pheochromocytoma (released by adrenals)

RAD 390 - Radiation Therapy Oncology Nursing (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions