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Imaging II > Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does alignment include?

A

General Skeletal Architecture
General Contour of Bone
Alignment of Bones Relative to Adjacent Bones

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2
Q

What is aberrant size of bones?

A

Gross enlargement of bone seen in conditions such as gigantism, acromegaly, or Paget’s disease
Grossly undersized bone may be related to congenital, metabolic, or endocrine abnormalities

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3
Q

What does general skeletal architecture include?

A
  • aberrant size of bones
  • supernumerary bones
  • congential anomalies
  • absence of any bones
  • development deformities
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4
Q

What can a cervical rib cause?

A

transverse process of C7 because elongated: can cause neurological or vascular issues

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5
Q

What is included with general contour of bone?

A
  • internal or external irregularities
  • cortical outline of each bone
  • any bony outgrowth of spurs at joint margin
  • breaks in continuity of cortex, signifying fracture
  • past surgical site marking
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6
Q

The cortical outline of bone should be:

A

smooth and continuous

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7
Q

Bony outgrowth of spurs at joint margins may be indicative of:

A

degenerative joint changes or may result from tension at areas of tissue attachment

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8
Q

What can sharp angles in the cortex be a sign of?

A

impaction fracture

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9
Q

What is included in alignment of bones relative to adjacent bones

A

fracture
dislocation
subluxation

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10
Q

What is evaluated with bone density?

A

general bone density
textural abnormalities
local density changes

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11
Q

Healthy cortex shows up with ____ density than cancellous bone and appears as ____ mrgin along bone shafts

A

greater, white

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12
Q

When is trabeculae altered?

A

when mineralization of bone is altered

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13
Q

How is image of trabeculae described?

A

thin, delicate, coarsened, smudged or fluffy

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14
Q

What is fluffly trabecular?

A

represent random proliferation of both osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity, as seen in skull of patient with Paget’s disease and in hyperparathyroidism

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15
Q

What is smudged trabecular characeristic of?

A

osteomalacia

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16
Q

When is coarsening of trabeculae seen?

A

seen in patients with chronic renal failure and osteoporosis
Accentuation of these trabeculae do not signify strength rather, loss of surrounding trabeculae cause remaining trabeculae to appear prominent

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17
Q

Lacy, delicate trabeculae:

A

secondary to thalassemia (Cooley’s anemia)

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18
Q

When is sclerosis seen?

A

normal local increases in bone density seen in areas subjected to increased physical stress, such as weight-bearing areas of joints

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19
Q

Localized sclerosis is a sign of what?

A

repair- extra bone deposited to fortify bony architecture to withstand forces of weight-bearing

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20
Q

When is excessive sclerosis normal?

A

site of healing fracture as callus is formed and new bone remodeled

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21
Q

When is reactive sclerosis seen?

A

when body acts to surround and contain a diseased area, such as a tumor or infection

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22
Q

Why is articular cartilage of joints and cartilaginous IVDs of spine not well demonstrated?

A

water-like density

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23
Q

Cartilage space analysis includes evaluation of items on following lists

A
  1. Joint Space Width
  2. Subchondral Bone
  3. Epiphyseal Plates
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24
Q

What does well preserved joint space imply?

A

cartilage or disk of normal thickness

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25
Q

What does decreased joint space imply?

A

cartilage or disk thinned down as result of degenerative processes

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26
Q

What is subchondral bone assessed for?

A

density changes or irregularities

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27
Q

What is looked for in subchondral bone?

A
  • increased sclerosis

- erosion

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28
Q

What is looked for in epiphseal plates?

A

position
size
smooth margin
disruptions

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29
Q

What is soft tissue of muscles evaluated for?

A

gross muscle wasting

gross swelling

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30
Q

What does gross muscle wasting suggest?

A

primary muscle disease, paralysis, inanition associated with severe illnesses, or disuse atrophy secondary to trauma

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31
Q

What is gross swelling of muscle and soft tissue indicative of:

A

inflammation, edema, hemorrhage, or tumor

32
Q

What is the loss or displacement of fat due to?

A

swelling and provide clue to adjacent abnormality

33
Q

Displacement of pronator quadratus fat line at wrist indicates:

A

wrist fracture

34
Q

Displacement of fat pads at elbow (from olecranon fossa posteriorly and from coronoid and radial fossae anteriorly) indicates:

A

gross effusion associated with fracture

35
Q

When is effusion seen?

A

Seen in exacerbations of arthritic conditions, infection, hemophilia, and in acute joint trauma

36
Q

What are the four types of periosteal reactions?

A

solid
laminated or onion skin
spiculated or sunburst
condman’s triangle

37
Q

Solid periosteal reaction:

A

benign process

Seen in fracture healing and osteomyelitis

38
Q

Laminated or onion skin reaction:

A

indicates repetitive injury, as in battered child syndrome

Also associated with sarcomas such as Ewing’s sarcoma

39
Q

Spiculated or sunburst reaction:

A

associated with malignant bone lesions, such as osteogenic sarcomas, and less frequently seen in metastatic squamous cell tumor
- Distinct appearance of periosteum due to repeated breakthrough of neoplastic process followed by new periosteal response

40
Q

Condman’s triangle reaction:

A

Piece of periosteum elevated by abnormal conditions ossifies in triangular shape

41
Q

Gas in soft tissue:

A

gas gangrene or trauma

42
Q

Calcifications in soft tissue:

A

may be result of old trauma whereby bloody hemorrhage has coagulated and calcified

43
Q

How is the broad index of skeletal diseases can be organized for diagnosis by identifying:

A

category of pathology, distribution of lesion, and predictor variables that characterize disease features

44
Q

Six categories of pathology in classification of skeletal diseases:

A 
Congenital
Inflammatory
Metabolic
Neoplastic
Traumatic
Vascular
45
Q

Lesion may be:

A

monostotic or monoarticular
polyostotic or polyarticular
diffuse

46
Q

Monostotic or monoarticular

A

affecting only one bone or one joint

47
Q

Polyostotic or polyarticular

A

affecting multiple bones or multiple joints

48
Q

Diffuse

A

affecting all or nearly all bones or joints

49
Q

What two disease categories occur diffusely:

A

Neoplastic

Metabolic

50
Q

Bone lesions are described as:

A

osteolytic

osteblastic

51
Q

Osteolytic

A

bone destroyed by osteoclastic activity

52
Q

Osteoblastic

A

new reparative or reactive bone present

53
Q

Three forms of osteolytic lesions:

A

geographic destruction
moth-eaten appearance
permeative destruction

54
Q

Geographic destruction:

A

Large areas of bone destroyed and appear as radiolucent lesions
Sharply defined borders suggest benign lesion

55
Q

Moth-eaten appearance:

A

Several small holes throughout bone appear similar to moth-eaten cloth
Ragged borders here suggest malignant lesion

56
Q

Permeative destruction

A

Very fine destruction of bone through haversian system, sometimes requiring magnifying lens to recognize on film
Poorly defined borders suggest malignant lesion

57
Q

Where does osteoarthritis affet?

A

weight bearing areas

58
Q

RA affects:

A

entire joint surface

59
Q

What is a significant factor in predicting type of malignant and benign bone tumors?

A

age

gender predominance

60
Q

Margins of a lesion are:

A

sharp and clearly defines or wide and poorly defined

61
Q

Benign lesion borders:

A

Sharp, clearly defined, sclerotic borders

62
Q

Fast growing or malignant lesion:

A

Wide, poorly defined borders with minimal or absent reactive sclerosis

63
Q

Immature bone, lesions that are ___ than ____ are likely to be benign because:

A

longer than wide

lesion has grown slowly along with bone

64
Q

Tumors do not cross:

A

joint spaces or epiphyseal growth plates

65
Q

Infections do not cross:

A

joint space

66
Q

Inflammatory processes cause:

A

destruction of bone on both sides of joint

67
Q

Responses of bone to lesion, trauma, or degenerative processes can include

A

periosteal reaction, sclerosis, and buttressing

68
Q

Sclerosis is:

A

new bone growth established to fortify an area subjected to increased stress,

69
Q

What is reactive sclerosis:

A

body’s attempt to contain an area of abnormal bone

70
Q

Buttressing:

A

formation of bony exostoses or osteophytes at joint margins, which serve to strengthen architecture of joint

71
Q

How are periosteal reaction to neoplasm characterized:

A

interrupted or uninterrupted

72
Q

Interrupted periosteal response suggests

A

malignant or non-malignant but highly aggressive lesions

73
Q

Uninterrupted periosteal response suggests

A

benign processes and presents as solid density, either longitudinal, undulated, or buttressing in pattern

74
Q

What is matrix?

A

intercellular tissue produced by some bone tumors

75
Q

How is a tumor matrix indentified?

A

chondroid (cartilaginous)
osteiod (bony)
mixed

76
Q

Chondroid matrix appears:

A

stippled, popcorn-like, or comma-shaped calcifications seen in tumors invading soft tissues

77
Q

Osteiod matrix appears:

A

white, cloud-like, fluffy density within medullary cavity and in adjacent soft tissue, most often in osteosarcomas

Imaging II (10 decks)

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