Quicksheets Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the three types of neurons in the nervous system? Are they afferent or efferent?

A
  1. Motor (efferent)
  2. Interneurons
  3. Sensory (afferent)
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2
Q

What is the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? What is the relative location of the nerves associated with them?

A

Sympathetic: “Fight or Flight” responses; mostly located between T1 and T12 of the spinal cord.

Parasympathetic: “Rest and Digest” Responses; mostly located in upper and lower spinal cord

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3
Q

What are the subcategories of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic Nervous System: This division of autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling fight or flight response. It controls the involuntary responses of the body when a person is in some serious situation. The sympathetic responses prepare the body to deal with some fight or flight conditions.

Parasympathetic Nervous System: This division controls the body functions in a calm state. The involuntary responses of the body under calm conditions are controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is responsible for regulating body functions under normal conditions.

Enteric Nervous System: It is the third division of the autonomic nervous system. It is confined to the control of the gut. It contains branches from both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and is responsible for regulating the functions of gastrointestinal tract.

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4
Q

What are the roles of the parasympathetic nervous system? The sympathetic nervous system?

A
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5
Q

What are the 3 main categories for “organization of the brain”? What do each of them contain?

A
  • Hindbrain:
    • Cerebellum
    • Medulla Oblangata
    • Reticular formation
  • Midbrain
    • Inferior colliculi
    • Superior colliculi
  • Forebrain
    • Thalamus
    • Hypothalamus
    • Basal Ganglia
    • Limbic system
    • Cerebral Cortex
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6
Q

What part of the brain does the thalamus belong to? What is its role?

A

The thalamus belongs to the forebrain

It is the “relay station” for sensory information

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7
Q

What part of the brain does the hypothalamus belong to? What is its role?

A

The hypothalamus belongs to the forebrain.

It maintains homeostasis and integrates with the endocrine system through the hypophyseal portal system that connects it to the anterior pituitary.

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8
Q

What part of the brain does the Basal Ganglia belong to? What is its role?

A

The basal ganglia belongs to the forebrain

It smoothens movements and helps maintain postural stablility

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9
Q

What part of the brain does the limbic system belong to? What is its role? What are the major subgroups of the limbic system?

A

The limbic system belongs to the forebrain.

Controls emotion and memory.

Includes the septal nuclei (pleasure seeking), the amygdala (fear and aggression), hippocampus (memory), and fornix (communication with limbic system)

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10
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the cerebral cortex?

A
  1. The frontal lobe
  2. The parietal lobe
  3. The occipital lobe
  4. The temporal lobe
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11
Q

What is the role of the frontal lobe?

What larger area of the brain is it a part of?

A

The frontal lobe:

Executive function

impulse control

long-term planning (prefrontal cortex)

Motor function (primary motor cortex)

Speech Production (Broca’s area)

Subcategory of cerebral cortex

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12
Q

What is the role of the parietal lobe?

What larger area of the brain is it a part of?

A

Parietal Lobe:

Sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain (somatosensory cortex)

Spatial processing, orientatation, and manipulation

Part of the cerebral cortex

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13
Q

What is the role of the Temporal lobe?

What larger area of the brain is it a part of?

A

Temporal Lobe:

Sound processing (auditory cortex)

Speech perception (Wernicke’s area)

Memory and emotion (limbic system)

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14
Q

What is the role of the occipital lobe?

What larger area of the brain is it a part of?

A

Occipital Lobe:

Visual Processing

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15
Q

What is the role of acetylcholine?

A

Voluntary muscle control

Parasympathetic nervous system

Attention

Alertness

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16
Q

What is the role of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

Fight-or-Flight

Wakefullness

Alertness

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17
Q

What is the role of dopamine?

A

Smooth movements

Postural stability

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18
Q

What is the role of serotonin?

A

Mood

Sleep

Eating

Dreaming

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19
Q

What is the role of GABA, Glycine?

A

Brain “stabilization”

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20
Q

What is the role of glutamate?

A

Brain “excitation”

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21
Q

What is the role of endorphins?

A

Natural Painkillers

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22
Q

What is nature vs. nurture?

What type of studies are used to reseach it?

A

Nature vs. Nurture is a debate regarding the contributions of genetics (nature) and the environment (nurture) to an individual’s traits.

Family, twin, and adoption studies are used to study nature vs. nurture

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23
Q

What is the difference between sensation and perception? How is it involved in the nervous system? (3 major ways)

A

The conversion of physical stimuli into neurological signals in sensation while perception is the processing of sensory information to amke sense of its significance.

Sensory Receptors: respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals.

Sensory Neurons: transmit information from sensory receptors to the CNS

Sensory stimuli: are transmitted to projection areas in the brain, which further analyze sensory input

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24
Q

What is Weber’s Law?

A

States that the just-noticeable difference for a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus, and this proportion is constant over most of the range of possible stimuli

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25
Q

What is the signal detection theory?

A

Studies the effects of nonsensory factors, such as experiences, motives, and expectations, on perception of stimuli.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WUjwk92r-ME

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tcDpnWeCjBU

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26
Q

What is the response bias?

A

Examined using signal detection experiments with four possible outcomes: hits, misses, false alarms, and correct negatives.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WnfQ2CPHtwk

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27
Q

What is adaptation?

A

A decease in response to stimulus over time

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28
Q

What is the path of vision

A

Retina -> optic nerve -> optic chiasm -> optic tracts -> lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of thalamus -> visual radiations -> visual cortex

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29
Q

What is the auditory pathway?

A

cochlea -> vestibulocochlear nerve -> medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of thalamus -> auditory cortex

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30
Q

What is the role of the cochlea?

A

Detect sound

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31
Q

What is the role of the utricle and saccule?

A

Detect linear acceleration

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32
Q

What is the role of the semicircular canals?

A

Detect rotational acceleration

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33
Q

How is smell detected?

What is responsible for detection?

A

Through volatile or aerosolized chemicals by olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves)

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34
Q

How is taste detected?

What is responsible for detection?

A

detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds in papillae

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35
Q

Define: somatosensation

A

Four touch modalities:

pressure

vibration

pain

temperature

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36
Q

Define kinesthetic sense (proprioception)

A

The ability to tell where one’s body is in space

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37
Q

What is bottom-up processing?

A

Aka Data driven processing: Recognition of objects by parallel processing and feature detection. Slower but less prone to mistakes.

Subgroup of object recognition

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38
Q

What is top-down processing?

A

Aka conceptually-driven processing: recognition of an object by memories and expectations, but with little attention to detail. Faster, but more prone to mistakes.

Subgroup of object recognition

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39
Q

Define: Gestalt Principles

A

Ways that the brain can infer missing parts of an image when it is incomplete

Subgroup of object recognition

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40
Q

Define: Habituation

A

The process of becoming used to a stimulus

Subgroup of Learning

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41
Q

Define: Dishabituation

A

Occurs when a second stimulus intervenes, causing a resensitization to the original stimulus

Subgroup of Learning

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42
Q

Define: Observational Learning

A

The acquisition of behavior by watching others

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43
Q

Define: Associative Learning

A

Pairing together stimuli and responses, or behaviors and consequences.

Subgroup of Learning

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44
Q

Define: Classical Conditioning

A

A form of associative learning in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus such that the neutral stimulus alone produces the same response as the unconditioned stimulus; the neutral stimulus thus becomes a conditioned response.

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45
Q

Define: Operant Condtioning

A

A form of associative learning in which the frequency of behavior is modified using reinforcement (increases behavior) or punishment (decreases behavior)

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46
Q
A
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47
Q

What are the stages of consciousness? (as it pertains wakefullness and sleep)

A

Image

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48
Q

What is dyssomnias

A

Sleep disorder

(amount or timing of sleep)

insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea, sleep deprivation

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49
Q

what is parasomnia?

A

(odd behaviors during sleep)

night terrors and sleepwalking (somnambulism)

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50
Q

Drug addiction is mediated by the _______, which includes the _______, ______, and _______. ______ is the main neurotransmitter.

A

Drug addiction is mediated by the mesolimbic pathway, which includes the nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral tegmental area. Dopamine is the main neurotransmitter.

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51
Q

Organize this tree for memory

A
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52
Q

Define: encoding

A

the process of putting new information into memory

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53
Q

Facts are stored via _____. ______ of informaion is often based on ______ interconnected nodes of the semantic network.

A

Facts are stored via semantic networks. Retrieval of informaion is often based on priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network.

(what is priming)?

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54
Q

Which one is a stronger memory process? Recognition or recall?

A

recognition of information is stronger than recall of information

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55
Q

What are the 4 stages of Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development? (no definitions)

A

Sensorimotor stage

Preoperational stage

Concete operational stage

Formal operational stage

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56
Q

What is the sensorimotor stage?

What ages does it effect?

A

The first stage of Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

Focuses on manipulating the environment to meet physical needs through circular reactions; object permanence ends this stage.

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57
Q

What is the preoperational stage?

What ages does it effect?

A

Stage 2 of Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

focuses on symbolic thinking, egocentrism (inability to imagine what another person thinks or feels), and centration (focusing on only one aspect of a phenomenon)

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58
Q

What is the concrete operational stage?

What ages does it effect?

A

3rd stage of Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

focuses on understanding the feelings of others and manipulating physical (concrete) objects

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59
Q

What is the formal operational stage?

What ages does it effect?

A

4th stage of Piagets Stages of Cognitive Development

Focuses on abstract thought and problem-solving

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60
Q

What are 4 main techniques of problem solving?

A

Trail-and-error

algorithms

deductive reasoning (deriving conclusions from general rules)

inductive reasoning (deriving generalizations from evidence)

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61
Q

_____ (simplified principles used to make decisions - “rules of thumb”), ______, ______, and ______ may assist in decision-making, but may also lead to erroneous or problematic decisions.

A

Heuristics (simplified principles used to make decisions - “rules of thumb”), biases, intuition, and emotions may assist in decision-making, but may also lead to erroneous or problematic decisions

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62
Q

Define: selective attention

A

allows one to pay attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli require attention in the background

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63
Q

Define: divided attention

A

Uses automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at once.

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64
Q

What are the 3 main language areas in the brain?

A

Wernicke’s Area

Broca’s Area

Arcuate Fasciculus

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65
Q

What is Wernicke’s Area?

A

langauge comprehension; damage results in Wernicke’s Aphasia (fluent, nonsensical aphasia with lack of comprehension)

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66
Q

What is Broca’s Area?

What happens if you damage this area?

A

motor function of speech; damage results in Broca’s Aphasia (nonfluent aphasia in which generating each word requires great effort)

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67
Q

What is Arcuate Fasciculus?

What happens if you damage this area?

A

Connects Wernicke’s Area and Broca’s Area; damage results in conduction aphasia (the inability to repeat words despite intact speech generation and comprehension)

68
Q

Define: Motivation

What are the 2 main types?

A

Motivation is the purpose or driving force behind our actions

Extrinsic: Based on external circumstances

Instrinsic: Bases on internal drive or perception

69
Q

What is the Arousal Theory?

A

Instinct theory: innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

Arousal Theory: The state of being awake and reactive to stimuli; aim for optimal level of arousal for a given task (Yerkes-Dodson Law) - image represents Yerkes-Dodson Law

Drive Reduction Theory: Individuals act to relieve internal states of tension

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs: (highest priority) - physiological needs -> safety and security -> love and belonging -> self-esteem -> self-actualization (lowest priority)

70
Q
A
71
Q

What are the 4 theories of motivation?

A

Instinct theory

Arousal Theory

Drive Reduction Theory

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

72
Q

What is instinct theory?

A

Instinct theory: innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

73
Q

Define Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs: (highest priority) - physiological needs -> safety and security -> love and belonging -> self-esteem -> self-actualization (lowest priority)

74
Q

Define: Drive Reduction Theory

A

Drive Reduction Theory: Individuals act to relieve internal states of tension

75
Q

What are the seven universal emotions?

A

Happiness

Sadness

Contempt

Surprise

Fear

Disgust

Anger

76
Q

What are the 3 main theories for emotion?

A

James-Lange

Cannon-Bard

Schachter-Singer

77
Q

Define the 3 theories of emotion

A

See Image:

78
Q

Define: Stress

What are the 2 main types?

A

Stress: the physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

Primary Appraisal: classifying a potential stressor as irrelevent, benign-positive, or stressful

Secondary Appraisal: Directed at evaluating whether the organism can cope with the stress, based on harm, threat, and challenge.

79
Q

Define: Stressor

A

Stressor (distress or eustress): anything that lead to a stress response; can include environment, social, psychological, chemical, and biological stressors

80
Q

What are the 3 stages of general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm

Resistance

Exhaustion

81
Q

Define: Self-concept

A

Subcategory of Identity and Personality

The sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves: in the present, who we used to be, and who we might be in the future.

82
Q

Define: Identities

A

Individual components of our self-concept related to the groups in which we belong

83
Q

Define: Self-Esteem

A

Our evaluation of ourselves

84
Q

Define: Self-Efficacy

A

The degree to which we see ourselves as being capable of a given skill in a given situation

85
Q

Define: Locus of control

A

A self-evaluation that refers to the way we characterize the influences in our lives. Either internal (success or failure is the result of our own actions) or external (success or failure is a result of outside factors)

Marlene often blames herself for anything that goes wrong (“I should have brought Maya to the vet”) whereas Austin blames external factors (“The game is Lagging”)

86
Q

What is DSM?

A

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders: The guide by which most psychological disorders are characterized, described, and diagnosed.

87
Q

Define: Schizophrenia

What are the 2 main categories of symptoms?

A

Psychotic disorder characterized by distortions of reality and disturbances in content and form of thought, perception, and behavior.

Positive: include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized throught and behavior (psychotic symptoms)

Negative: Removal of normal processes, decreased emotions or interest, decreased avolition (motivation) and alogia (comes from the Greek words meaning “without speech” and refers to a poverty of speech that results from impairment in thinking that affects language abilities).

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PURvJV2SMso

88
Q

Define: Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

Constant disproportionate and persistent worry

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9mPwQTiMSj8

89
Q

Define: Specific Phobias

A

Irrational fears of specific objects (Marlene and her fear of moths and frogs)

90
Q

Define: Social Anxiety Disorder

A

Anxiety due to social and performance situations

91
Q

Define: Agoraphobia

A

Fears of places or situations where it is hard for an individual to escape

92
Q

Define: Panic Disorder

A

Recurrent attacks of intense, overwhelming fear and sympathetic nervous system activity with no clear stimulus. It may lead to agoraphobia

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YxELZyA2bJs

93
Q

What are the bipolar disorders (and related disorders)

A

Bipolar 1 disorder: contains at least one manic episode

Bipolar 2 disorder: contains at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode.

Cyclothymic disorder: containts hypomanic episodes with dysthymia (defined as a low mood occurring for at least two years, along with at least two other symptoms of depression)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KSvk8LLBo2g

94
Q

What are the 3 main types of depressive disorders?

A

Major Depressive Disorder

Peristent Depressive Disorder

Seasonal Affective Disorder

95
Q

Define: Major Depressive Disorder

A

Contains at least one major depressive episode

96
Q

Define: Peristent Depressive Disorder

A

A depressed mood (either dysthymia or major depression) for at least 2 years

97
Q

Define: Seasonal Affective Disorder

A

The colloquial name for major depressive disorder with seasonal onset, with depression occurring during winter months

98
Q

Define: Freud’s Stages of Psychosexual Development

A

Based on tensions caused by the lipido, with failure at any given stage leading to fixation

99
Q

Define: Erickson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development

A

Stem from conflicts that are the results of decisions we are forced to make about ourselves and the environment around us at each phase in our lives.

Stages are:

Trust vs Mistrust

Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt

Initiative vs Guilt

Industry vs Inferiority

Identity vs Role Confusion

Intimacy vs Isolation

Generativity vs Stagnation

Integrity vs Despair

100
Q

Define: Kohlberg’s Theory of Moral Reasoning

A

Describes the approaches of individuals to resolving moral dilemmas

Preconventional

Conventional

Postconventional

101
Q

Define: Vygotsky’s Theory of Cultural and Biosocial Development

A

Describes the development of language, culture, and skills

102
Q

Define: Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

Obsessions (persistant, instrusive thoughts and impulses) and compulsions (repetitive tasks that relieve tension but cause significant impairment)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=I8Jofzx_8p4

103
Q

Define: Body Dysmorphic Disorder

A

unrealistic negative evaluation of one’s appearance or a specific body part

104
Q

Define: Dissociative Amnesia

A

Inability to recall past experience. May involve dissociative fugue, a sudden change in location that can involve assumption of a new identity

105
Q

Define: Dissociative Identity Disorder

A

Two or more personalities that take control of behavior

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XF2zeOdE5GY

106
Q

Define: Depersonalization/derealization disorder

A

Feelings of detachment from the mind and body, or from the environment

107
Q

What are the 2 main perspectives on personality?

A

Psychoanalytic Perspective

Humanistic Perspective

108
Q

Define: Psychoanalytic Perspective of Personality

A

Personality results from unconscious urges and desires

Freud: Id, superego, ego

Jung: collective unconscious, archetypes

109
Q

Define: Humanistic Perspective of Personality

A

Emphasizes internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive toward happiness and self-realization

Maslow: Hierarchy of Needs

Rogers: Unconditional positive regard

110
Q

Define: Type and Trait Theory

A

Personality can be describes as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

111
Q

What are the major type theories of personality?

A

Ancient Greek Humors

Sheldon’s somatotypes: division into Types A and B, and the Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (image)

(Expand on these…)

112
Q

Define: Eysenck’s Three Major Traits:

A

Psychoticism

Extraversion

Neuroticism

113
Q

What are the “Trait Theorists’ Big-Five”?

A

Openness

Concsientiousness

Extraversion

Agreeableness

Neuroticism

(OCEAN)

114
Q

Define: Allport’s Three Basic Types of Traits

A

Cardinal

Central

Secondary

115
Q

Define: Somatic Symptom Disorder

A

At least one somatic symptom, which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition, that causes disproportionate concern

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oVO7tZS2ZdI

116
Q

Define: Illness Anxiety Disorder

A

Preoccupation with having or coming down with a serious medical condition

117
Q

Define: Conversion Disorder

A

Unexplained symptoms affecting motor or sensory function

118
Q

Define: Personality Disorders

What are the 3 subgroups (clusters)?

A

Personality Disorders are patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired functioning.

Cluster A: (odd, eccentric, weird): paranoid, schizotypal, schzoid

Cluster B: (dramatic, emotional, erratic, wild): antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic

Cluster C: (Anxious, fearful, worried): Avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive

119
Q

Define: Social Facilitation

A

Tendency to perform at a different level (better or worse) when others are around.

(I often do worse when people are watching me)

120
Q

Define: Deindividuation

A

Loss of self-awareness in large groups; can lead to drastic changes in behavior

121
Q

Define: Bystander Effect

A

In a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need.

122
Q

Define: Peer Pressure

A

Social influence placed on an individual by other individuals they consider equals

123
Q

Define: Group Polarization

A

Tendency towards making decisions in a group that are more extreme than the thoughts of the individual group members

124
Q

Define: Groupthink

A

The tendency to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas

(like the example of the oil spill. Scientists couldn’t figure out a good way to clean up oil spill, sent out question to general public, general public responded with better solution. They moved outside of groupthink)

125
Q

Define: Assimilation

A

When one culture begins to melt into another. Adapting cultural norms of dominant culture.

126
Q

Define: Multiculturalism

A

Encouragement of multiple cultures in a community to enhance diversity

127
Q

Define: Subculture

A

A group that distinguishes itself from the primary culture to which it belongs

128
Q

Define: Socialization

A

The process of developing and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs.

129
Q

Define: Norms

A

Bondaries of acceptable behavior within society

130
Q

Define: Stigma

A

Extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences

131
Q

Define: Deviance

A

any violation of norms, rules, or expectations within a society

132
Q

Define: Conformity

A

changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

133
Q

Define: Compliance

What are 4 techniques for gaining compliance? Define them.

A

individuals change behavior based on the request from others; techniques for gaining compliance include:

Foot-in-the-door: starting with small simple request, then asking for larger request

Door-in-the-face: starting with large unreasonable request that is likely to get turned down, then asking for smaller more reasoonable request

Lowball: Compliance to a costly request is acheived by first getting compliance to an attractive, less costly request then renouncing it to get the costly request.

That’s-not-all: People are more likely to comply to a request after a “build-up” to make the request sound better (infomercials)

134
Q

Define: Obedience

A

Change in behavior based on a command from someone seen as an authority figure

135
Q

Define: Status

A

a position in society used to classify individuals. Can be ascribed (involuntarily acheived), achieved (voluntarily earned), or master (primary identity)

136
Q

Define: Role

A

Set of beliefs, values, norms that define the expectations of a certain status.

137
Q

Define: Group

A

Two or more individuals with similar characteristics that share a sense of unity

138
Q

Define: Network

A

Observable pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups

139
Q

Define: Organization

A

group with a structure and culture designed to achieve specific goals; exists outside of each individual’s membership within the organization.

140
Q

Define: Display Rules

A

unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotion

141
Q

Define: Impression Management

A

maintenance of a public image through various strategies

142
Q

Define: Dramaturgical Approach

A

Individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

143
Q

Define: Interpersonal Attraction

A

influenced by physical, social, and psychological factors.

144
Q

Define: aggression

A

behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase social dominance

145
Q

Define: attachment

A

an emotional bond to another person; usually refers to the bond between a child and a caregiver

146
Q

Define: Altruism

A

helping behavior in which the person’s intent is to benefit someone else at a personal cost.

147
Q

Define: Attribution Theory

What are the 4 types?

A

Focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior:

Dispositional (internal): causes relate to the features of the person who is being considered

Situational (external): causes relate to features of the surroundings or social context

Correspondent Inference Theory: describes attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors performed by another person.

Fundamental Attribution Error: Bias torwards making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions

148
Q

Define: stereotype

A

attitudes and impressions that are made based on limited and superficial information

149
Q

Define: self-fulfilling prophecy

A

the phenomenon of a stereotype creating an expectation of a particular group, which creates conditions that lead to confirmation of this stereotype.

(if you tell someone who is black that they are dumb because they are black and continuously repeat this to them then they may internalize this, failing to succeed in school, and perpetuation that notion)

150
Q

Define: stereotype threat

A

a feeling of anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype

(in Europe, I felt that many Europeans thought of Americans as loud and obnoxious. When my friend was being loud and obnoxious in public I would get anxious and try to distance myself from him)

151
Q

Define: Prejudice

A

An irrationally based attitude prior to actual experience

152
Q

Define: Ethnocentrism

A

the practice of making judgements about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture (in-group vs. out-group)

When I was in Vietnam I thought they were extremely inefficient and therefore less capable. But this is a very American ideal. I was being ethnocentric.

153
Q

Define: Cultural Relativism

A

The opposite of ethnocentrism

Studying the social groups and cultures on their own terms

154
Q

Define: Discrimination

A
155
Q

Define: Functionalism

A

focuses on the function and relationships of each component of society

156
Q

Define: conflict theory

A

focuses on how power differentials are created and how they maintain order

157
Q

Define: symbolic interactionism

A

the study of how individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, symbols, and gestures

158
Q

Define: Social Constructionism

A

Explores how individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality.

159
Q

Define: material culture

A

physical items one associates with a given group (art, clothing, food, buildings)

160
Q

Define: symbolic culture

A

The ideas associated with a particular cultural group

161
Q

Define: Demographics

A

The statistical arm of sociology

statistical data relating to the population and particular groups within it.

162
Q

Define: Migration

What are the 2 types?

A

Refers to the movement of people into (immigration) or out of (emigration) a geographical location

163
Q

Define: Demographic Transition

A

a model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

164
Q

Social Stratification is based on socioeconomic status (SES) what are the five factors that make this up?

A

Class: a category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics

Power: The capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments

Social Capital: The investment people make in society in return for economic or collective rewards. (hmmm not sure i agree)

Social Reproduction: the passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, to other generations

Poverty: low SES; in the US, the poverty line is the government’s calculation of the minimum income requirements to acquire the minimum necessities of life.

165
Q

Define: Epidemiology

What are 4 ways in which it is measure in social science?

A

Incidence:

Prevalence

Morbidity

Mortality

(need to get more info on these, don’t like the quickfacts data)**